METSSS Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how does peristalsis occur in oesophagius ? (primary / secondary waves?)

A

peristalsis:

  • bolus enters striated muscle, initiates primary peristaltic wave. pressures changes / waves of contraction push bolus down.
  • this stimulates stretch receptors = secondary peristaltic wave of smooth muscle (back up secondary wave) pushes the bolus into the stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does pit. gland control FSH & LH hormone release?

why is it more complex in women then men?

A

hypothalamic hormones: GnRH + kisspeptin

regulate release of: FSH and LH from pituitary.

FSH & LH cause sex steroid release (testosterone / oestrogen) , ovulation, spermatogenesis.

in women: estradiol +ve and -ve feedback depends on stage of menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are two seperate roles of aldosterone? [2

A
  1. restores BP, reabsorbed salt & water lvls (not excrete as much)
  2. restores K loss !

(two totally differnet systems! )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of hormones are thyroid hormones?

produced from what?

what is active / inactive names?

how does it circulate around body?

A

biological amines - produced from tyrosine

T4 (inactive) is produced by thyroid gland -> converted to T3 to be active (via deiodinise enzyme)

circulates as T3, but attached to thryoid binding globulin1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

main role of thryoid hormones? (1)

how controlled?

  • negative feedback - how? (1)
  • how else (4)
A

- increases metabolic rate

  • negative feedback control: T3 inhibits pituitary release of TSH

- local control mechanism:

i) deiodinase expression
ii) thyroid hormone uptake transporter expression
iii) thyroid hormone receptor expression
iv) release from thyroid binding globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does hypothalamus communicate with the anterior pit. gland? and posterior pit gland?

A
  • hypothalamic hormone binds to anterior pituitary cell target (all are stimulatory except Dopamine which is inhibitory) via portal system
  • causes release of anterior pituitary hormone - releaed into blood
  • hypothalamus have long axons that cause release of posterior pituitary hormones (ADH and oxytocin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which three strucutres do you find in the free border of the lesser omentum?

A
  1. bile duct
  2. hepatic artery proper
  3. hepatic portal vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the 3 steps of glycolysis that are metabolically irrervisble and need to be side stepped to in order to produce glucose in gluconeogenesis?

A

3 irreversible steps are in glycolysis:

  • *1. Glucose –> glucose-6-phosphate.
    2. P + fructose-6-phosphate –> fructose-1-6-bisphosphate.
    3. pyruvate -> PEP (complicated)**

enyzmes used to reverse ^^ reactions:

  1. enzyme = gluocse-6-phosphatase (removes the P)
  2. enzyme = fructose, 1,-6-biphosphatase
  3. enzyme = (more complicated -> will come to later)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Acetyl co-A is a product of of fatty acid break down.

how do high levels of acetyl co-a influence gluconeogenesis?

A

high levels of Acetyl Co-A:

activates pyruvate carboxylase (used in step 1 of malate cycle: drives gluconeogenesis from pyruuvate -> PEP & eventually glucose)

inhibits: pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (prevents pyruvate being turned into acteyl co A & sparing it, leaving for gluconeogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gluconeogensis from glycerol:

what is glycerol converted to? what does this get converted to?
where? (2)

A
  • glycerol is converted to dihydroxyacetone phosphate only in the liver & kidneys
  • dihydroxyacetone phosphate then reacts with glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to produce fructose-1,6, bisphosphate (and from there .. = fructose-6-phosphate -> glucose-6-phosphate -> glucose)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Q

specifically, how is gluconeogensis controlled by:

  • insulin?
  • glucagon?
  • adrenaline?

(.i.e. which enzymes blocked etc)

A
  • *insulin:**
  • inhibits gluconeogensis
  • insulin dephosphorylates pyruvate dehydrogenase. this makes pyruvate dehydrogenase active & converts pyruvate -> acetyl coA, which enters krebs cycle. pyruvate is therefore not available to be made into glucose
  • *glucagon & adrenaline:**
  • promotes gluconeogensis
  • glucagon increases cAMP levels. this causes pyruvate dehydrogenase to be phosphorlayed (by pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase) & inactive. pyruvate is then available for glucose production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of lipoprotein lipase?
what activates lipoprotein lipase?

where is lipoprotein lipase most active:

a) during periods of starvation?
b) after a meal

A

lipoprotein lipase: breaks down fats from inside lipoproteins and carries them into the cells

activated by: Apo C2

where is lipoprotein lipase most active:

a) during periods of starvation: muscle (where FA being used for energy in TCA)
b) after a meal: adipose cells (to form fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can ur body create cholesterol? (which enzyme)

how does high cholesterol induce negative feedback of cholesetol production? (3)

A

- acetyl co-A –> cholesterol (via enzyme HMG-coA reductase)

high cholesterol induces negative feedback of cholesetol production

  • *- reduces expression of HMG co-A reductase
  • reduced gene expression of LDL (which brings the cholesterol)
  • XS stored as cholesterol esters**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name two differences in the structure of HDLs & LDLs [2]

A
  • Low-density lipoproteins contain B-100 proteins
  • HDL particles contain mostly A-I and A-II proteins. high protein content, low fat cotent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why is commensal bacteria gut overgrowth clinically significant regarding vitamins?

A

commensal bacteria: providers AND consumers of B vitamins & vitamin K.

overgrowth: likely to have B12 deficiency & high B9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what two important things does niacin (B3) create? [2] roles?

A
  • forms: NAD & NADP -> imporant hydrogen acceptors. when reduced forms: hydrogen donors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe pathway of common hepatic artery –> hepatic artery proper —> ?? :)

A

common hepatic artery: branches into

  • gastroduodenal artery, which branches to give right gastroepiploic artery - which anastamoses with left gastroepiploic artery.
  • right gastric artery (goes to less curvature of stomach). anastamoes with left gastric artery

after these two: becomes the hepatic artery proper; branches into:

  • right hepatic artery –> cystic artery (gall bladder)
  • left hepatic artery
20
Q

what are the 3 branches of the IMA?

what connects the SMA & IMA?

A

inferior mesenteric artery branches:

  • left colic artery
  • sigmoidal artery
  • superior rectal artery
  • SMA & IMA connected by marginal artery
21
Q

what are the 3 branches of the IMA?

what connects the SMA & IMA?

A

inferior mesenteric artery branches:

  • left colic artery
  • sigmoidal artery
  • superior rectal artery
  • SMA & IMA connected by marginal artery
22
Q
A
23
Q
A
24
Q

describe pathway of common hepatic artery –> hepatic artery proper —> ?? :)

A

common hepatic artery: branches into

  • gastroduodenal artery, which branches to give right gastroepiploic artery - which anastamoses with left gastroepiploic artery.
  • right gastric artery (goes to less curvature of stomach). anastamoes with left gastric artery

after these two: becomes the hepatic artery proper; branches into:

  • right hepatic artery –> cystic artery (gall bladder)
  • left hepatic artery
25
Q

which veins dont go to liver & directly drain into IVC? (4)

A
  • gonadal vein
  • renal vein
  • internal iliac vein
  • external iliac vein
26
Q

which veins dont go to liver & directly drain into IVC? (4)

A
  • gonadal vein
  • renal vein
  • internal iliac vein
  • external iliac vein
27
Q

what is transamination?
how does it occur?
where does it occur mostly?
what is the enyzme used for it

A

transamination: transfer of an amino group. new amino acids can be made by using the carbon skeleton of other amino acids and transferreing a new side chain on it

mechanism:

  • keto acid / group (a.a but instead of the NH2, is replaced by C double bonded O) swaps with the amine of another amino acid
  • requires an intermediary: pyridoxal phosphate (from vitamin B6)

location: liver

Enzyme: tranaminase

28
Q
A

get a fusion of the dorsal mesogastrium & the transverse mescolon !

29
Q
A

get a fusion of the dorsal mesogastrium & the transverse mescolon !

30
Q

what are glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?

A
  • *glutogenic**: can be converted to glucose by gluconeogenesis or enter the TCA
  • can either be transaminated to oxaloacetate or pyruvate (or other intermediates that will form oxaloacetate):
  • e.g. alanine or glutamate

ketogenic: can be converted to ketone bodies, these can feed into the TCA cycle, mostly via A-CoA or acetoacetyl-CoA.

31
Q
A
32
Q
A
33
Q

what is glutamine used for? (4)

A

 Source of fuel during fasting - especially in muscles and immune cells.

 Used for gluconeogenesis, esp. in kidney.

 Produces ammonia, which can act as buffer for unwanted protons.

 Glutamine has anti-inflammatory properties in the gut.

Overall: fuel, building block, needed for metabolites: a-ketoglutarate and glutamate.

34
Q

MoA of urea cycle:

a) what is the rate determining step?
b) what are the two amino groups required? for it
c) what is the key regulating enzyme?

A

Rate controlling step:

o HCO3- + NH4+ –> carbamoyl phosphate (via enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1)
o Requires 2 ATP.
o Controlled allosterically by glutamate metabolite: N-acetyl glutamate - this is formed in an excess of glutamate, so drives urea cycle.

b) the two amino groups required from: aspartate (1) & ammonia (1)

essentially is a shuttle reaction of NH4 into from aspartate and ammonia into urea

35
Q

what does the addition of ApoC2 and ApoE by HDLs do to chylomicrons? [2]

A

- ApoC2 added: allows chylomicrons to give its triglycerides to peripheral cells

- ApoE added: allows chylomicron remenant to be taken up by the liver to deliver FA & cholesterol

36
Q

what does the addition of ApoC2 and ApoE by HDLs do to chylomicrons? [2]

A

- ApoC2 added: allows chylomicrons to give its triglycerides to peripheral cells

- ApoE added: allows chylomicron remenant to be taken up by the liver to deliver FA & cholesterol

37
Q

the mesentary connects which two structures? [2]

the greater omentum connects which two structures? [2]

A

small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall

stomach (greater curvature) to transverse colon !!

38
Q

Three main branches of the coeliac trunk?

A

Left gastric

Splenic

Common hepatic

39
Q

Three main branches of the coeliac trunk?

A

Left gastric

Splenic

Common hepatic

40
Q

the mesentary connects which two structures? [2]

the greater omentum connects which two structures? [2]

A

small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall

stomach (greater curvature) to transverse colon !!

41
Q

MoA of urea cycle:

a) what is the rate determining step?
b) what are the two amino groups required? for it
c) what is the key regulating enzyme?

A

Rate controlling step:

o HCO3- + NH4+ –> carbamoyl phosphate (via enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1)
o Requires 2 ATP.
o Controlled allosterically by glutamate metabolite: N-acetyl glutamate - this is formed in an excess of glutamate, so drives urea cycle.

b) the two amino groups required from: aspartate (1) & ammonia (1)

essentially is a shuttle reaction of NH4 into from aspartate and ammonia into urea

42
Q

what is glutamine used for? (4)

A

 Source of fuel during fasting - especially in muscles and immune cells.

 Used for gluconeogenesis, esp. in kidney.

 Produces ammonia, which can act as buffer for unwanted protons.

 Glutamine has anti-inflammatory properties in the gut.

Overall: fuel, building block, needed for metabolites: a-ketoglutarate and glutamate.

43
Q

what are glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?

A
  • *glutogenic**: can be converted to glucose by gluconeogenesis or enter the TCA
  • can either be transaminated to oxaloacetate or pyruvate (or other intermediates that will form oxaloacetate):
  • e.g. alanine or glutamate

ketogenic: can be converted to ketone bodies, these can feed into the TCA cycle, mostly via A-CoA or acetoacetyl-CoA.

44
Q

what is transamination?
how does it occur?
where does it occur mostly?
what is the enyzme used for it

A

transamination: transfer of an amino group. new amino acids can be made by using the carbon skeleton of other amino acids and transferreing a new side chain on it

mechanism:

  • keto acid / group (a.a but instead of the NH2, is replaced by C double bonded O) swaps with the amine of another amino acid
  • requires an intermediary: pyridoxal phosphate (from vitamin B6)

location: liver

Enzyme: tranaminase

45
Q

what two important things does niacin (B3) create? [2] roles?

A
  • forms: NAD & NADP -> imporant hydrogen acceptors. when reduced forms: hydrogen donors