Meiosis and Common Chromosomal Anomalies Flashcards

1
Q

Fertilization of a female oocyte (gamete) by male spermatocyte (gamete) reconstitutes the 46 chromosome number in the

A

Zygote (diploid, N = 23)

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2
Q

How are autosomes and sex chromosomes characterized?

A
  1. ) Size
  2. ) Centromere index
  3. ) Chromosome G-bright
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3
Q

What is the centromere index?

A

Length of p arm / total chromosome length

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4
Q

Low AT/GC ratio, rich in SINE repeats and Alu sequences, early replicating, contain “housekeeping genes”, not tissue specific, and rich in transcribed genes give

A

Bright G bands

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5
Q

Diploid cells replicate and divide into two identical diploid cells

A

Meiosis I

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6
Q

DNA cells replicate and the replicated homologous chromosomes establish connections (synapsis)

A

Prophase I

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7
Q

Homologous chromosome pairs are ordered in the middle of the cell

A

Metaphase I

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8
Q

There is chiasmata at the chromosome ends, and the homologous pairs migrate to opposite poles of the cell

A

Anaphase I

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9
Q

The formation of nuclei and two daughter cells

A

Interkinesis I

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10
Q

Separates sister chromatids and is made up of Prophase without DNA synthesis, metaphase, and anaphase, and results in 4 haploid cells

A

Meiosis II

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11
Q

When there is no separation of homologues between metaphase and anaphase

A

Non-disjunction Meiosis I

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12
Q

Non-disjunction in meiosis I will lead to

A

2 Disomic gametes and 2 monosomic gametes

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13
Q

When there is no separation of sister chromatids between metaphase and anaphase

A

Non-disjunction Meiosis II

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14
Q

Non-disjunction Meiosis II results in two normal gametes and

A

One disomic gamete and one nullisomic gamete

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15
Q

In Males, we see meiosis I followed by Meiosis II starting at puberty. Male meiosis allows for the development of

A

4 spermatids

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16
Q

In females, meiosis I begins early in intrauterine development and stops before

A

Birth “diplotene”

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17
Q

Only 20% of the 6-7 million original oogonia survive as primary oocytes that are arrested in

A

“Dictyotene” until puberty

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18
Q

With folliculogenesis, meiosis-I is completed with the extrusion of the 1st polar body at the time of

A

Ovulation

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19
Q

Completion of meiosis-II with the extrusion of the 2nd polar body occurs at

A

Fertilization

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20
Q

Female meiosis ends with

A

1 Mature oocyte and 2 lost polar bodies

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21
Q

Can be used to determine parental origin of chromosomes

A

Polymorphic CA-repeats

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22
Q

Polymorphic markers at the beginning of the p-arm or q-arm of the chromosome permits the differentiation of whether non-disjunction occurred in

A

Meiosis I or Meiosis II

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23
Q

Non-disjunction in meiosis I will be indicated by markers that are

A

Heterozygous close to the centromere

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24
Q

Non-disjunction in meiosis II will be indicated by markers that are

A

Homozygous close to the centromere

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25
Chromosomal synapsis is driven by DNA homology resulting in a quadri-radial arrangement with 16 possible segregations of which only
2 are balanced (12%)
26
Leads to acentric/dicentric chromatids with duplications/deficiencies or genetic information
Recombination in inversion loop during meiosis I
27
All female are mosaic. A few patients with non-random inactivation of the X chromosome that carry an X-linked disorders or that are Homozygous for the X-chromosome could manifest
X-linked conditions
28
The random and clonal X-inactivation in females at blastocyst stage for gene dosage compensation with a male
Mary Lyon Hypothesis
29
Refers to the situation in which 2 copies of a chromosome come from the same parent, instead of 1 copy coming from the mother, and 1 copy coming from the father
Uniparental Disomy
30
Fertilization with hyperhaploid (disomic) gamete with subsequent loss of the normally inherited chromosome from the other gamete (trisomy rescue) during mitosis causes 1-2% chromosomal mosaicism detected in
Placental samples
31
Determined by: 1) Degree of mosaicism 2) Genomic imprinting mechanisms in affected chromosomes 3) The non-Mendelian expression of monogenic disorders that map to that chromosome 4) by the combination of all these factors?
Fetal phenotype
32
Changes in gene expression in response to the environment
Epigenetics
33
Reversible condensed chromatin conformation represses
Transcription
34
This regulatory mechanism of gene expression is also clinically relevant for placenta differentiation and function causing Intrauterine fetal growth restriction
Imprinting
35
Imprinting has been reported on chromosomes
7, 11 (Beckwith Wiedemann), 15 (Prader WIlli/ Angleman), and X (inactivation)
36
Allow for genetically unique newborns across generations with a 46 chromosome complement.
Sexual reproduction and Meiosis
37
The consequence of random distribution of homologous chromosomes (8,388,608 possible combinations) together with the formation of Chiasmata among non-sister chromatids during Meiosis with DNA crossing over events
Genetic Diversity
38
A meiotic non-disjunction even leads to numerical chromosomal abnormalities in the
Zygote
39
What are two sexual differentiation and sex-chromosome anomalies resulting from non-disjunction events?
1. ) Turner Syndrome (45, X) | 2. ) Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)
40
Affects 4% of all conceptus. Characterized by cystic hygroma, gonadal dysgenesis, and short stature
Turner Syndrome
41
Affects 1 in 1,000 males, tall, hypogonadism, | gynecomastia, social dysfunctions. Mental Retardation associated with increasing numbers of X chromosomes in males
Klinefelter syndrome
42
Affects 1 in 7,500 births with Heart/ CNS/ Renal | abnormalities, growth restriction, Micrognathia, Omphalocele, Equinovarus, Clenched hands
Edwards syndrome (47, XX, +18)
43
Affects 1 in 20,000 births with IUGR, CL/P, CNS, Renal, | Heart, Omphalocele, Equinovarus, Polydactyly
Patau Syndrome (47, XY, +13)
44
The most common genetic cause of mental retardation
Down Syndrome (47, XX, +21)
45
Overexpression and interactions of multiple genes from chromosome 21 cause
Down Syndrome (47, XX, +21)
46
A translocation resulting in an even exchange of genetic information with no genetic information extra or missing
Balanced translocation
47
In a newborn, almond-shaped eyes with up slanting palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, small dysplastic ears, depressed nasal bridge with mid face hypoplasia, strabismus, and brushfield spots suggests
Down syndrome
48
Brachycephaly, i.e. round head shape w/flattened occiput and excess nuchal skin, hypotonia, atlantoaxial instability, joint laxity, shallow acetabular angle are also indicators of
Down Syndrome
49
Affects 1 in 15,000 liveborn with morbid obesity, short stature, hypogonadism, mental retardation, and hiyperphagia -Due to a paternal deficiency (deletion) of the 15q11-13 and imprinting of the maternal chromosome
Prader-Willi Syndrome
50
The affected have severe mental retardation, absent speech jerky gait, protruding tongue, and inappropriate laughter -Due to a maternal deficiency of the 15q11-13 loci (deletion) and imprinting of the paternal chromsome
Angleman Syndrome
51
No separation of sister chromatids; disjunction of homologues results in segregation of alleles
Meiosis I
52
There is no S phase in
Meiosis II
53
Nullisomic gametes yield -Lethal except for X chromosome
Monosomic zygotes
54
Disomic gametes yield -Lethal except for X, Y, and a few small autosomes (13, 18, 21)
Trisomic Zygotes
55
Create partial trisomy/monosomy syndromes
Balanced translocations
56
Imprinting will result in disease if the individual has
Uniparental Disomy (ex: Prader-Willi and Angleman syndromes)
57
Result from a uniparental disomy of chromosome 15
Prader-Willi and Angleman syndromes
58
Characterized by chromosomal synapse driven by DNA homology resulting in a quadrivalent arrangement with 16 possible segregations, of which only alternate segregation can lead to 2 balanced gametes (12%)
Balanced translocation
59
Phenotypically normal parents with pericentric inversion can have children with
deletions/duplications (5-10% risk)
60
Results in 4 chromosomes coming together in synapses in prophase I
Balanced translocation
61
All the cells in our body have 46 chromosomes, the purpose of meiosis is to create gametes that only have
23
62
In G-banding, the bright bands are the ones rich in
Genes
63
The most common mutations in humans
Chromosomal abnormalities
64
What percentage of 1st trimester spontaneous pregnancy losses have chromosomal abnormalities?
50%
65
If it occurs in the egg, nondisjunction is more common in
Meiosis I
66
If it occurs in the sperm, non-disjunction is more common in
Meiosis II
67
In females, meiosis-I begins early in intrauterine development and stops in the 4th stage of prophase I known as
Diplotene
68
Only 20% of the 6-7 million original oogonia survive as primary oocytes that are arrested in
Dictyotene (part of prophase I)
69
The polar body from meiosis I with 2 sister chromatids
1st Polar body
70
The polar body from meiosis II with 1 sister chromatid
2nd Polar body
71
When one cell line is normal and the other cell line is trisomic
Mosaic form
72
Phenotypically normal parents with pericentric inversions can have children with
Deletions/duplications
73
How many Barr bodies are there?
Barr bodies = # X-chromosomes - 1
74
A disorder that affects males because they do not have an extra X chromosome to compensate
Duchenne Muscular Distrophy
75
Duchenne muscular dystrophy should not appear in females unless there is a skewing of the
X inactivation centers
76
When 2 chromosomes are inherited from the same parent -enables AR diseases to appear when only one parent is a carrier
Uniparental Disomy
77
3% of all down syndrome cases result from parents that have a
Balanced translocation
78
The robertsonian translocation 45, XX, der(21;21) has a recurrence risk of
100%
79
The rate of down syndrome identification after 20 weeks of gestation is
1 in 2000
80
How many americans have down syndrome?
400,000
81
Free fetal DNA in maternal circulation can also be used for
Aneuploidy screening
82
Integrates image of fetus with biochemical maternal age
Sequential Integrated Screening Test
83
Step 1 of the sequential integrated screening test occurs in trimester 1 and step 2 in trimester 2. How efficient is the test for detecting down syndrome?
98%
84
a medical procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and fetal infections. The fetal DNA is examined for genetic abnormalities. -The most common reason to have this test is to determine whether a baby has certain genetic disorders or a chromosomal abnormality, such as Down syndrome.
Amniocentesis
85
A test made in early pregnancy to detect congenital abnormalities in the fetus. -A tiny tissue sample is taken from the villi of the chorion, which forms the fetal part of the placenta.
Chorionic Villous Sampling
86
What is the frequency for chromosomal abnormalities for: 1. ) Abnormal complement of sex chromosomes 2. ) Autosomal trisomy 3. ) Translocation (mostly balanced) 4. ) Total
1. ) 1/500 2. ) 1/700 3. ) 1/400 4. ) 1/150
87
What is the procedure related risk for US-guided diagnostic amniocentesis?
1 in 300
88
A recombination of an inversion creates an
Acentric/dicentric chromosome
89
Balanced translocations create
Partial monosomy/trisomy syndromes