MCQP Flashcards

1
Q

A dog is presented at the surgery with alopecia around the eyes and muzzle without obvious pruritis. Which mite do you suspect?

  1. Otodectes cynotis
  2. Demodex canis
  3. Sarcoptes scabei
  4. Cheyletiella yasguri
A

Demodex canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A puppy is presented at the surgery with pruritis around the ears . Which mite do you
suspect?

  1. Otodectes cynotis
  2. Demodex canis
  3. Sarcoptes scabei
  4. Cheyletiella yasguri
A

Otodectes cynotis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The larval stage of Toxocara canis that is infective is…
1. Fourth stage larvae - L4
2. Third stage larvae - L3
3. Second stage larvae - L2
4. First stage larvae - L1

A

Second stage larvae - L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the proper name for hookworm?
1. Uncinaria stenocephala
2. Trichuris vulpis
3. Toxacaris leonina
4. Oslerus osleri

A

Uncinaria stenocephala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lice can be divided into 2 types - sucking or biting. Which of the following is a sucking louse?
1. Ctenocephalides felis
2. Linognathus setosus
3. Trichodectes canis
4. Dipylidium Canium

A

Linognathus setosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trombicula autumnalis can cause clinical disease in some cats and dogs. Which stage of its life
cycle is parasitic?
1. Larva
2. Nymph
3. Adult
4. All of above

A

Larva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An intermediate host is always required by which of the following parasites?
1. Toxocara canis
2. Giardia
3. Toxacaris leonina
4. Taenia hydatigena

A

Taenia hydatigena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The parasite that typically causes intense pruritus and may live in the hair follicle is
1. Demodex canis
2. Trichodectes cani
3. Cheyletiella yasguri
4. Sarcoptes scabiei

A

Cheyletiella yasguri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The egg of which parasite are glued to the hair shafts of its host?
1. Ctenocephalides felis
2. Sarcoptes scabiei
3. Otodectes cynotis
4. Linognathus setosus

A

Linognathus setosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Toxoplasma can be transmitted from one host to another via all of the following routes except:
1. Via meat from an intermediate host containing the organism
2. Via the milk from queen to kitten
3. Via food contaminated by cat faeces
4. Via the placenta and afterbirth of aborted lambs.

A

Via the milk from queen to kitten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The lungworm of dogs is:
1. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
2. Oslerus osleri
3. Trichuris vulpis
4. Uncinaria stenocephala

A

Oslerus osleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pruritis and excessive epidermal scaling can be produces by which non-burrowing mite?
1. Cheyletiella
2. Notoedres
3. Sarcoptes
4. Otodectes

A

Cheyletiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Visceral larva migrans in man is caused by which parasite?
1. Toxocara canis
2. Toxacaris leoninum
3. Toxoplasma gondii
4. Echinococcus granulosus

A

Toxocara canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A paratenic host is best defined by which of the following statements?
1. The host in which a parasite has to undergo part of its lifecycle before it can reinfest the final
host.
2. A host that carries an organism and sheds it intermittently.
3. The animal in which the adult or reproductive phase of the parasite occurs
4. A host that carries an immature parasite in its tissues

A

A host that carries an immature parasite in its tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It has to be eaten by the final host for the parasite to complete its life cycle. The whipworm of
dogs is:
1. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
2. Oslerus osleri
3. Trichuris vulpis
4. Uncinaria stenocephala

A

Uncinaria stenocephala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the correct worming regime for a pregnant dog
1. Every 1 months
2. Every 3 months
3. from day 40 of pregnancy to 2 days post whelping
4. Every 6 months

A

From day 40 of pregnancy to 2 days post whelpin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the correct worming regime for a kittens
1. Every month
2. From 3 weeks until weaning
3. Every 6 months
4. from 2 weeks then every 2 weeks until 12 weeks

A

From 2 weeks old, then every 2 weeks - until they reach 12 weeks old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which Stage in the lifecycle of the flea is the most resistant to eradication
1. Egg
2. Larva
3. Adult Flea
4. Pupa

A

Pupa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If a client noticed fleas on her pet what treatment would you recommend
1. Flea treatment only
2. Flea treatment and Environmental treatment
3. Flea, Environmental and tapeworm treatment
4. Environmental treatment only

A

Flea, Environmental and tapeworm treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A client tells you she is pregnant and she has heard about Toxoplasmosis and are there any
precautions she should take. Would you suggest
1. Don’t clean out the cats litter tray
2. Don’t eat raw meat
3. A only
4. A & B

A

A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give the definition of disease.

A

A disease is any disorder that causes dysfunction of the body.
Infectious disease is caused by a pathogenic organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List 5 routes by which disease may leave the body

A

Saliva (licking, bites)
Nasal (sneezing )
or
ocular discharge
Sputum ( coughing)
Urine
Faeces
Skin
Vomit
Blood
Venereal contact
In milk

23
Q

What is a cadaver and how may it be a source of infection.

A

A dead body.
It may be a source of infection because the animal died of a n infectious disease and the pathogen remain active and alive in the dead tissue
Or
Pathogenic organisms may incubate in the decaying tissue

24
Q

List the 6 routes by which a pathogenic organism may reach a new
host.

A

Direct Contact
Indirect Contact
Through the air (Aerosols ) Contaminated food and water
Carriers
Vectors

25
Q

Fomites provide what type of contact for the transmission of disease
and name a disease which may be spread by this route.

A

Indirect

Campylobacter
Cheytiella mites
Crytosporosis
leptospirosis
Ringworm
Roundworm
Salmonella
Toxoplasmosis

26
Q

Name 3 diseases that are frequently spread by contaminated food and
water

A

E. coli
Salmonella
Campylobacter

27
Q

Name and describe the types of carriers of disease.

A

Healthy carrier.
Animal never exhibits any clinical signs of the pathogen being present but passes it to others at any time.

Convalescent carrier.
This animal will have had the disease but will have recovered from it. The animal is, however able to transmit pathogenic micro-organisms for some time after recovery. It may also release pathogens periodically during stressful times in its life.

28
Q

What are vectors?

A

A Living organism that carries pathogenic organisms

29
Q

Describe the difference between Biological and Mechanical Vectors

A

Biological vectors.
Act as an intermediate host in the life cycle of a pathogen. Some of the pathogens development occurs within the intermediate host before it is eaten by the definitive host (Ie cat flea is an intermediate host of the larval form of Dipylidium canium)

Mechanical Hosts/vectors.
Play no role in the pathogens development and simply transfer the disease from one animal to another. There are 2 types: TRANSPORT & PARAENTIC HOST.

30
Q

Describe the difference between Transport and Parentic Vectors

A

Transport vectors.
Cary the infection to another animal without becoming
infected themselves. They maintain the viability of the organism. (Ie the cat
flea carries the virus Feline Panleuopenia and the rickettsia
Haemobartonella)

Parentic vectors.
Must be eaten by the final host for the pathogen to
continue its lifecycle and spread. The microrganism lives in the Paentic
host’s tissues but there is no further development. ( Eg Cats eating raw
lamb infected with Toxoplasma gondii)

31
Q

What are the routes via which a disease may enter the body and give
an example of a different pathogen that uses each route.

A

Mouth
* Salmonella
* E. Coli
* Campyolbacter

Inhalation
* Aspergilliosis
* Cat Flu

Through the surface of the skin
* FeLV
* FIV

Through mucus membranes
* Chlamydia is carried in the conjunctival surface.
* Candida ablicans be transferred through the Mucous membranes of the mouth and the vagina.
* Bordetella bronchiseptica enters and infects the mucous membranes of the respiratory system.

Congenital route
* Toxocara canis
* FeLV
* FIV
* Feline Panleucopenia.

32
Q

What is the infectious agent of Rabies?

A

Rabies virus

33
Q

What is the reservoir of Rabies?

A

Dogs, Foxes or other mammals

34
Q

What is the portal of exit for Rabies?

A

Saliva

35
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Rabies?

A

Direct contact

36
Q

What is the portal of entry for Rabies?

A

Via:
Bites,
Open wounds
&
Mucous membranes

37
Q

What is the susceptible host for Rabies?
And what are the symptoms/affects?

A

Susceptible hosts:
Dogs, other mammals, or humans.

Effects:
Neurological signs, behavioural changes, convulsions, coma or death

38
Q

Explain the transmission of Rabies, making reference to the ‘Chain
of Infection’

Your answer should include the following and discussion on effect
on hosts

A

Infectious agent
Rabies virus

Reservoir
Dogs, foxes or other mammals

Portal of Exit
Via saliva

Mode of Transmission
Direct contact

Portal of Entry
Dog, other mammals, human. Effect – neurological signs, behavioural change, convulsions, coma, death

39
Q

What is the infectious agent for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

40
Q

What is the reservoir of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Cat

41
Q

What is the portal of exit for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Oocytss in faeces

42
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Infection
via
Intermediate hosts

43
Q

What is the portal of entry for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Ingestion

44
Q

What is the susceptible host for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Humans

45
Q

Explain the transmission of toxoplasmosis , making reference to
the ‘Chain of Infection’

A

Infectious agent
Toxoplasma Gondii

Resevoir
Cat

Portal of Exit
Oocysts in faeces

Mode of transmission
Infection via intermediate hosts

Portal of Entry
Ingestion

Susceptible host
Humans

46
Q

Describe the isolation and barrier nursing procedures that should be used to prevent the spread of Toxoplasmosis.

(5 marks)

A
  1. One named nurse, or contact with patient after other patients
  2. Wear appropriate PPE, gloves, apron, disposable covershoes
  3. Contaminated PPE, consumables, newspapers etc in separate clinical waste
  4. Appropriate hand washing with soap/antiseptic and water
  5. Personal hygiene – don’t touch face/mouth with hands
  6. Use footbath with appropriate disinfectant (most are effective)
  7. Soak contaminated vetbeds in disinfectant prior to boil wash
  8. Use bowl, utensils, cleaning equipment etc only in isolation
  9. Clearly identify isolated area and communicate to other staff
47
Q

Describe the process for decontaminating with disinfectant the kennel that has housed a cat with toxoplasmosis.

(5 marks)

A
  1. Prepare all equipment and PPE (particularly gloves)
  2. Place animal in secure area
  3. Remove vet beds and newspapers – soiled bed, disinfected and washed, soiled newspapers to clinical waste
  4. Remove gross soiling and organic material
  5. Clean all parts of kennel with detergent/disinfectant
  6. Rinse with clean water
  7. Disinfect all kennel at correct dilution rate
  8. Leave for appropriate contact time
  9. Rinse/dry
  10. Remove PPE and dispose
  11. Wash hands
48
Q

What is a fomite?

A

An inanimate object that has the potential to hold/carry disease-producing organisms

49
Q

What is an Nosocomial Infection?
And how else is it reffered to as?

A

An infection, caused by a pathogenic organism, that is aquired during patient hospitalization
+
Also called Hospitalized Acquired Infection (HAI)

50
Q

What is a Zoonosis?
&
Who are the susceptible hosts?

A

A disease caused by a pathogenic organism, that can be transmissible to humans
+
Humans (primarly/in reference to)
But also includes animals

51
Q

What is disinfection?

A

The process used to reduce the number of pathogenic organisms in the environment
+
To a level considered ‘safe’
Usually, using a disinfectant (A chemical solution that inactivates pathogenic organisms)

52
Q

What is Sterilization?

A

The process used to destroy all
living tissues, microbial life/micro-organisms with the potential to cause disease.

53
Q

What is the difference between Sterilization & Disinfection?

A