Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 CK > May8th > Flashcards

May8th Flashcards

1
Q

What is seen on ECG in posterior Mi?

A

ST depression in leads V1-V3, ST elevation in leads I and aVL (LCX); ST depressions in leads I and aVL (RCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When do you seen congenital heart block?

A

Primarily in neonatal lupus - presents with bradycardia, erythematous annular rashes on scalp and periorbital region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infant with central cyanosis and single S2 heart sound?

A

Transposition of great arteries or truncus arteriosus (truncus arteriosis is associated with DiGeorge and has a systolic ejection murmur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What cardiac defect is commonly seen in trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)?

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Central cyanosis with 24 hours of life, single S2 and narrow mediastinum on XR

A

Transposition of the great vessels; note: can have a murmur (PDA or VSD), but may not if have PFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Whta is the MOA of tamsulosin in treating renal calculi?

A

Tamsulosin is an alpha 1 antagonist that relaxes ureteral muscle and decreases intraureteral pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is bethanechol?

A

Cholingergic agent used to treat urinary retention or atonic bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is oxybutynin? What is it used for?

A

Anticholinergic; inhibits cholinergic input during bladder filling; improves bladder capacity; used to treat overactive bladder (detrusor instability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Angiodysplasia is associated with what diseases?

A

Advanced renal disease, von Willebrand diease, and aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the pathophysiology of flail chest?

A

> /= 3 contiguous ribs fracture in >/= 2 locations —> flail chest segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is felodipine?

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the features of sleep terrors?

A

Panicked scream, terror, autonomic arousal, unresponsive to comfort; little to no dream recall; most common in children ages 2-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Caroid pulse with dual upstroke in young African American male with FH of sudden cardiac death in brother

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy / HOCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the genetic inheritance of Friedreich ataxia?

A

Autosomal recessive trinucleotide repeat (GAA) - abnormality in frataxin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is minimal change disease treated?

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the cardiovascular consequences of acromegaly?

A

Concentric myocardial hypertrophy; mitral and aortic regurg; CVD is leading cause of death in patients with acromegaly

17
Q

What are the indications for delivery in PPROM?

A

> /= 34 weeks gestation, patients <34 weeks gestation with signs of infection or fetal compromise

18
Q

What antibodies are seen in primary biliary cholangitis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

19
Q

What bone is most commonly fractured in an epidural hematoma?

A

Sphenoid bone

20
Q

What is the pathophysiology of HUS?

A

Preceding diarrheal illness, resulting in Shiga toxin release —> endothelial damage —> thrombocytopenia / platelet activation —> microthrombi formation —> MAHA

21
Q

What is the most common cause of AA amyloidosis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

22
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis causes what kind of amyloidosis?

A

AA

23
Q

Why does supplemental oxygen not improve cyanosis or pulse ox in methemoglobin?

A

Methemoglobinemia results in ferric Hgb, which has poor oxygen affinity

24
Q

What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia?

A

Methylene blue; acts as an electron acceptor for NADPH

25
Q

What is dimercaprol used for?

A

Lead poisoning

26
Q

What is fomepizole used for?

A

Treatment of ethylene glycol or methanol ingestion; inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

27
Q

What is the treatment for cholinergic toxicity?

A

Pralidoxime + atropine

28
Q

How is cyanide toxicity treated?

A

Hydroxocobalamin or sodium thiosulfate; can use nitrites to induce methemoglobinemia

29
Q

How does cyanide inhibit the ETC?

A

Inhibits cytochrome oxidase A3; binds ferric iron, inhibiting reduction to ferrous iron and blocking ATP from oxidative phosphorylation

Step 2 CK (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions