Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LECOM anatomy > major clinical: back, LL and UL > Flashcards

major clinical: back, LL and UL Flashcards

1
Q

what is an exaggerated over-curvature of thoracic area of vertebral column

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the major feature of cervical vertebrae

A

transverse foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the ligament that connects internal surface of laminae of vertebrae

A

ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the ligament that checks hyperextension of vertebral column

A

anterior longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the ligament that is most affected by whiplash

A

anterior longitudinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the ligament which limits skull rotation

A

alar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the defective portion of vertebrae with spondylolisthesis in cervical area

A

pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the defective portion of vertebrae with spondylolisthesis in lumbar region

A

pars interarticularis, lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the common direction of all superior articular facets of vertebrae

A

posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the structure in contact with posterior surface of dens

A

transverse ligament of atlas (part of cruciate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most commonly herniated IV disc

A

L4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most common nerve compressed with herniated IV disc

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the spinal nerve affected by protrusion of the disc between C5/6

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the thoracic intercostal space located deep to triangle of auscultation

A

sixth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the vertebral level of lumbar puncture

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the roof of the sub occipital triangle

A

semispinalis capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the floor of sub occipital triangle

A

posterior arch of atlas; posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what major vessel is within the sub occipital triangle

A

vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the inferior extent of dura-arachnoid sac

A

SV2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the inferior extent of the spinal cord

A

LV2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the location of internal vertebral plexus

A

epidural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the most frequently fractured bone in the body

A

clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the most frequently dislocated carpal bone

A

lunate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the most frequently fractured carpal bone

A

scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the name of the fracture of the distal radius that produces a dinner fork appearance

A

colle’s fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the nerve injured with fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus

A

axillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the nerve injured with fracture of shaft of humerus

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the nerve injured in wrist drop

A

radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the muscle that is chief extensor at shoulder joint

A

deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve

A

deltoid and teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what muscle initiates abduction of the arm

A

supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the most commonly torn tendon of rotator cuff

A

supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what 2 muscles rotate the scapula for full abduction of arm

A

trapezius and serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what tendon courses through the shoulder joint

A

long head of biceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the chief supinator of the hand

A

biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the nerve injury that causes winged scapula

A

Long thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the spinal levels of axillary nerve

A

C5 and C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the spinal levels to muscles of the hand

A

C8 and T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the dermatome of the thumb

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the nerve to the thenar compartment of the hand

A

recurrent branch of median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the innervation of adductor pollicis

A

ulnar (deep branch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the innervation to all interosseous muscles of the hand

A

ulnar (deep branch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the region affected by upper trunk injury of brachial plexus

A

shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the region affected by lower trunk injury of brachial plexus

A

intrinsic hand muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what nerve is compressed with carpal tunnel syndrome

A

median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what nerve is affected by cubital tunnel syndrome

A

ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

paralysis of which muscles result in total claw hand

A

lumbricals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the boundaries of the femoral triangle

A

inguinal ligament, sartorial and adductor longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what structure is immediately lateral to the femoral sheath

A

femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what structure is immediately medial to the femoral artery in the femoral sheath

A

femoral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the contents of the femoral canal

A

deep inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the medial boundary of the femoral ring

A

lacunar ligament

53
Q

what structure courses throughout the entire length of the adductor canal

A

femoral artery and vein

54
Q

what structures course only a portion of the adductor canal

A

saphenous nerve, nerve to vastus medialis, descending genicular vessels

55
Q

what muscle forms the floor of the popliteal fossa

A

popliteus

56
Q

what muscle is the chief flexor at the hip joint

A

iliopsoas

57
Q

what muscle prevent pelvis from tilting when walking

A

gluteus medius

58
Q

what muscle unlocks the knee joint

A

popliteus

59
Q

what muscle is affected with foot slap

A

tibialis anterior

60
Q

what are the chief inverters of the foot

A

tibialis anterior and posterior

61
Q

what ligament checks the backward displacement of the femur on the tibia

A

anterior cruciate

62
Q

what ligament with laxity is positive values maneuver

A

medial collateral

63
Q

what is the most commonly injured ankle ligament

A

anterior talofibular

64
Q

what ligament is stretched with flat foot

A

plantar calcaneonavicular (spring ligament)

65
Q

what are the joints for movement of inversion and eversion of foot

A

subtalar and transverse tarsal

66
Q

what is the major artery to the head of femur in adult

A

medial femoral circumflex

67
Q

what is the nerve affected with fracture of head and neck of fibular

A

common fibular

68
Q

what is the tendon affected with avulsion fracture of 5th metatarsal

A

fibularis brevis

69
Q

what is the innervation of adductor magnus

A

obturator, tibial portion of sciatic

70
Q

what is the nerve affected with tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

tibial

71
Q

what is the cutaneous innervation to medial side of foot

A

saphenous (L4)

72
Q

what is the cutaneous innervation to lateral side of foot

A

sural (S1)

73
Q

what is the cutaneous innervation of heel

A

tibial

74
Q

what is the cutaneous innervation to dorsal aspect of web between toes 1 and 2

A

deep fibular

75
Q

what is the cutaneous innervation of most of dorm of foot

A

superficial fibular

76
Q

what is the major dermatome to big toe

A

L4

77
Q

what is the dermatome to small toe

A

S1

78
Q

what is the spinal level of patellar reflex

A

L4

79
Q

what is the spinal level of achilles reflex

A

S1

80
Q

what would locking of the knee when walking suggest

A

meniscus injury

81
Q

what is the major injury triad with lateral impact to knee

A

medial collateral, medial meniscus and ACL

82
Q

what type of articulation is the atlanto-occipital articulation

A

synovial, condyloid

83
Q

_____ results from trauma directed (usually from above) through the skull and occipital condyles onto the atlas, bursting the arch; the spinal cord is typically spared from injury

A

jefferson’s (burst) fracture

84
Q

_______ is inflammation of vertebral joints and ligaments especially in the lumbar region; affected segments fuse and results in pain and stiffness in vertebral column

A

ankylosing spondylitis

85
Q

what is the innervation of the Z joints

A

dorsal rami

86
Q

what level does the dural sac end

A

S2

87
Q

____ is fracture or compromise of the pars interartciularis

A

spondylolysis

88
Q

_______ is dislocation or slippage of vertebral column between adjacent vertebra

A

spondylothesis

89
Q

what is the dermatome for the middle finger

A

C7

90
Q

what is the dermatome for the 5th finger

A

C8

91
Q

what is the dermatome for the medial forearm and arm (distal arm)

A

T1

92
Q

what structures are in danger of injury when the clavicle is fractured?

A

supra scapular VAN, supraclavicular n, brachial plexus, subclavian n

93
Q

what would posterior dislocation of the glenohumeral point possibly damage (artery)

A

compress the posterior circumflex humeral artery

94
Q

______ is a fracture of the 5th metacarpal

A

boxer’s fracture

95
Q

_______ is pain/tenderness in the palm or wrist caused by hairline fracture of the hook of hamate

A

golfer’s wrist

96
Q

what is the most commonly fractured carpal bone

A

scaphoid

97
Q

what is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone

A

lunate

98
Q

where is axillary artery most likely to be compressed

A

anterior to terms major against the proximal humerus

99
Q

where is the brachial artery most likely to be compressed

A

against the distal humerus

100
Q

Erb’s palsy results from damage to what part of the brachial plexus

A

upper trunk

101
Q

what is the tell-tail sign for erb’s palsy

A

waiter’s tip

102
Q

what is the tell tail sign for klumpke’s palsy

A

claw hand

103
Q

what part of the brachial plexus is damaged in klumpke’s palsy

A

lower trunk

104
Q

what nerve is damaged in ape hand

A

median

105
Q

what nerve runs through the carpal tunnel

A

median

106
Q

what is included in the cubital fossa

A

tendon of biceps, brachial artery, median nerve

107
Q

____ is damage to extensor expansion; results in flexion of middle and extension of distal phalange

A

boutonniere deformity

108
Q

_____ is a partial avulsion of extensor tendon; flexion of distal phalanx

A

mallet finger

109
Q

_____ is stenosing tenosynovitis involving flexor tendon; results in “clicking” during flexion/extension

A

trigger finger

110
Q

what nerve is affected in meralgia paresthetica

A

lateral femoral cutaneous

111
Q

what is the dermatome for skin over the inguinal ligametn

A

L1

112
Q

what is the dermatome for the proximal, anterolateral thigh

A

L2

113
Q

what is the dermatome for distal, anteromedial thigh

A

L3

114
Q

what is the dermatome for anteromedial leg, medial malleolus

A

L4

115
Q

what is the dermatome for dorsum of foot, second digit

A

L5

116
Q

what is the dermatome for lateral malleolus, fifth digit

A

S1

117
Q

what is the dermatome for posterior thigh

A

S2

118
Q

_____ is used to assess the integrity of the achilles tendon

A

thompson test

119
Q

what is the first part of the quadriceps to atrophy when there is knee joint disease

A

vastus medialis

120
Q

if there is infections that spread deep to the investing fascia of the psoas major muscle, where might this spread into if it goes inferiorly and what is this called

A

psoas abscess and it may spread to the inguinal region and proximal thigh

121
Q

what direction do most hip dislocations occur in

A

posterior

122
Q

what is another name for runner knee

A

patellofemoral syndrome

123
Q

what is another name for pre patellar bursitis and what is it

A

housemaid’s knee: swelling between the skin and patella

124
Q

where does subcutaneous infra patellar bursitis occur

A

between the skin and tibial tuberosity

125
Q

what do eversion injuries of the ankle affect

A

deltoid ligament and may avulse the medial malleolus

126
Q

what action causes a pott fracture

A

forceful eversion

127
Q

what fractures are involved in a cotton fracture/ trimalleolar fracture

A

fractures of the medial malleolus, fibula (lateral malleolus) and posterior lip of the inferior articular surface of the tibia

128
Q

____ is lateral deviation of the great toe

A

hallux valgus

129
Q

what muscle and ligament are involved in medial longitudinal arch of foot collapse

A

tibialis posterior and plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament

LECOM anatomy (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions