major clinical: back, LL and UL Flashcards
what is an exaggerated over-curvature of thoracic area of vertebral column
kyphosis
what is the major feature of cervical vertebrae
transverse foramina
what is the ligament that connects internal surface of laminae of vertebrae
ligamentum flavum
what is the ligament that checks hyperextension of vertebral column
anterior longitudinal
what is the ligament that is most affected by whiplash
anterior longitudinal
what is the ligament which limits skull rotation
alar
what is the defective portion of vertebrae with spondylolisthesis in cervical area
pedicle
what is the defective portion of vertebrae with spondylolisthesis in lumbar region
pars interarticularis, lamina
what is the common direction of all superior articular facets of vertebrae
posterior
what is the structure in contact with posterior surface of dens
transverse ligament of atlas (part of cruciate)
what is the most commonly herniated IV disc
L4-5
what is the most common nerve compressed with herniated IV disc
L5
what is the spinal nerve affected by protrusion of the disc between C5/6
C6
what is the thoracic intercostal space located deep to triangle of auscultation
sixth
what is the vertebral level of lumbar puncture
L4
what is the roof of the sub occipital triangle
semispinalis capitis
what is the floor of sub occipital triangle
posterior arch of atlas; posterior atlanto-occipital membrane
what major vessel is within the sub occipital triangle
vertebral artery
what is the inferior extent of dura-arachnoid sac
SV2
what is the inferior extent of the spinal cord
LV2
what is the location of internal vertebral plexus
epidural space
what is the most frequently fractured bone in the body
clavicle
what is the most frequently dislocated carpal bone
lunate
what is the most frequently fractured carpal bone
scaphoid
what is the name of the fracture of the distal radius that produces a dinner fork appearance
colle’s fracture
what is the nerve injured with fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus
axillary
what is the nerve injured with fracture of shaft of humerus
radial
what is the nerve injured in wrist drop
radial
what is the muscle that is chief extensor at shoulder joint
deltoid
what muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve
deltoid and teres minor
what muscle initiates abduction of the arm
supraspinatus
what is the most commonly torn tendon of rotator cuff
supraspinatus
what 2 muscles rotate the scapula for full abduction of arm
trapezius and serratus anterior
what tendon courses through the shoulder joint
long head of biceps
what is the chief supinator of the hand
biceps brachii
what is the nerve injury that causes winged scapula
Long thoracic
what is the spinal levels of axillary nerve
C5 and C6
what are the spinal levels to muscles of the hand
C8 and T1
what is the dermatome of the thumb
C6
what is the nerve to the thenar compartment of the hand
recurrent branch of median
what is the innervation of adductor pollicis
ulnar (deep branch)
what is the innervation to all interosseous muscles of the hand
ulnar (deep branch)
what is the region affected by upper trunk injury of brachial plexus
shoulder
what is the region affected by lower trunk injury of brachial plexus
intrinsic hand muscles
what nerve is compressed with carpal tunnel syndrome
median
what nerve is affected by cubital tunnel syndrome
ulnar
paralysis of which muscles result in total claw hand
lumbricals
what are the boundaries of the femoral triangle
inguinal ligament, sartorial and adductor longus
what structure is immediately lateral to the femoral sheath
femoral nerve
what structure is immediately medial to the femoral artery in the femoral sheath
femoral vein
what are the contents of the femoral canal
deep inguinal lymph nodes
what is the medial boundary of the femoral ring
lacunar ligament
what structure courses throughout the entire length of the adductor canal
femoral artery and vein
what structures course only a portion of the adductor canal
saphenous nerve, nerve to vastus medialis, descending genicular vessels
what muscle forms the floor of the popliteal fossa
popliteus
what muscle is the chief flexor at the hip joint
iliopsoas
what muscle prevent pelvis from tilting when walking
gluteus medius
what muscle unlocks the knee joint
popliteus
what muscle is affected with foot slap
tibialis anterior
what are the chief inverters of the foot
tibialis anterior and posterior
what ligament checks the backward displacement of the femur on the tibia
anterior cruciate
what ligament with laxity is positive values maneuver
medial collateral
what is the most commonly injured ankle ligament
anterior talofibular
what ligament is stretched with flat foot
plantar calcaneonavicular (spring ligament)
what are the joints for movement of inversion and eversion of foot
subtalar and transverse tarsal
what is the major artery to the head of femur in adult
medial femoral circumflex
what is the nerve affected with fracture of head and neck of fibular
common fibular
what is the tendon affected with avulsion fracture of 5th metatarsal
fibularis brevis
what is the innervation of adductor magnus
obturator, tibial portion of sciatic
what is the nerve affected with tarsal tunnel syndrome
tibial
what is the cutaneous innervation to medial side of foot
saphenous (L4)
what is the cutaneous innervation to lateral side of foot
sural (S1)
what is the cutaneous innervation of heel
tibial
what is the cutaneous innervation to dorsal aspect of web between toes 1 and 2
deep fibular
what is the cutaneous innervation of most of dorm of foot
superficial fibular
what is the major dermatome to big toe
L4
what is the dermatome to small toe
S1
what is the spinal level of patellar reflex
L4
what is the spinal level of achilles reflex
S1
what would locking of the knee when walking suggest
meniscus injury
what is the major injury triad with lateral impact to knee
medial collateral, medial meniscus and ACL
what type of articulation is the atlanto-occipital articulation
synovial, condyloid
_____ results from trauma directed (usually from above) through the skull and occipital condyles onto the atlas, bursting the arch; the spinal cord is typically spared from injury
jefferson’s (burst) fracture
_______ is inflammation of vertebral joints and ligaments especially in the lumbar region; affected segments fuse and results in pain and stiffness in vertebral column
ankylosing spondylitis
what is the innervation of the Z joints
dorsal rami
what level does the dural sac end
S2
____ is fracture or compromise of the pars interartciularis
spondylolysis
_______ is dislocation or slippage of vertebral column between adjacent vertebra
spondylothesis
what is the dermatome for the middle finger
C7
what is the dermatome for the 5th finger
C8
what is the dermatome for the medial forearm and arm (distal arm)
T1
what structures are in danger of injury when the clavicle is fractured?
supra scapular VAN, supraclavicular n, brachial plexus, subclavian n
what would posterior dislocation of the glenohumeral point possibly damage (artery)
compress the posterior circumflex humeral artery
______ is a fracture of the 5th metacarpal
boxer’s fracture
_______ is pain/tenderness in the palm or wrist caused by hairline fracture of the hook of hamate
golfer’s wrist
what is the most commonly fractured carpal bone
scaphoid
what is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone
lunate
where is axillary artery most likely to be compressed
anterior to terms major against the proximal humerus
where is the brachial artery most likely to be compressed
against the distal humerus
Erb’s palsy results from damage to what part of the brachial plexus
upper trunk
what is the tell-tail sign for erb’s palsy
waiter’s tip
what is the tell tail sign for klumpke’s palsy
claw hand
what part of the brachial plexus is damaged in klumpke’s palsy
lower trunk
what nerve is damaged in ape hand
median
what nerve runs through the carpal tunnel
median
what is included in the cubital fossa
tendon of biceps, brachial artery, median nerve
____ is damage to extensor expansion; results in flexion of middle and extension of distal phalange
boutonniere deformity
_____ is a partial avulsion of extensor tendon; flexion of distal phalanx
mallet finger
_____ is stenosing tenosynovitis involving flexor tendon; results in “clicking” during flexion/extension
trigger finger
what nerve is affected in meralgia paresthetica
lateral femoral cutaneous
what is the dermatome for skin over the inguinal ligametn
L1
what is the dermatome for the proximal, anterolateral thigh
L2
what is the dermatome for distal, anteromedial thigh
L3
what is the dermatome for anteromedial leg, medial malleolus
L4
what is the dermatome for dorsum of foot, second digit
L5
what is the dermatome for lateral malleolus, fifth digit
S1
what is the dermatome for posterior thigh
S2
_____ is used to assess the integrity of the achilles tendon
thompson test
what is the first part of the quadriceps to atrophy when there is knee joint disease
vastus medialis
if there is infections that spread deep to the investing fascia of the psoas major muscle, where might this spread into if it goes inferiorly and what is this called
psoas abscess and it may spread to the inguinal region and proximal thigh
what direction do most hip dislocations occur in
posterior
what is another name for runner knee
patellofemoral syndrome
what is another name for pre patellar bursitis and what is it
housemaid’s knee: swelling between the skin and patella
where does subcutaneous infra patellar bursitis occur
between the skin and tibial tuberosity
what do eversion injuries of the ankle affect
deltoid ligament and may avulse the medial malleolus
what action causes a pott fracture
forceful eversion
what fractures are involved in a cotton fracture/ trimalleolar fracture
fractures of the medial malleolus, fibula (lateral malleolus) and posterior lip of the inferior articular surface of the tibia
____ is lateral deviation of the great toe
hallux valgus
what muscle and ligament are involved in medial longitudinal arch of foot collapse
tibialis posterior and plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament
