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LECOM anatomy > anatomy clinical head > Flashcards

anatomy clinical head Flashcards

1
Q

when can CN 1 likely get damaged

A

in head trauma

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2
Q

where can CN 2 be damaged

A

in the optic canal, orbit and subarachnoid space

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3
Q

where can CN 3 be damaged

A

midbrain, subarachnoid space, cavernous sinus, orbit

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4
Q

what is ptosis and mydrasis signs of injury to

A

CN 3

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5
Q

where can CN 4 be damaged

A

in the midbrain, subarachnoid space, cavernous sinus, orbit

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6
Q

what are signs of injury to CN 4

A

vertical diplopia

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7
Q

what nerve is damaged with trigeminal neuralgia

A

CN 5

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8
Q

where can the trigeminal nerve be damaged (general)

A

pons and posterior cranial fossa

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9
Q

where can the ophthalmic nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

A

cavernous sinus, superior orbital fissure, branches in orbit and on face

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10
Q

where can the maxillary nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

A

cavernous sinus, foramen rotunda, branches in nasal cavity and face

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11
Q

where can the mandibular nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

A

foramen ovale, infratemporal fossa, branches ot mandible and face

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12
Q

where can cranial nerve 6 be damaged

A

pons, subarachnoid space/posterior fossa, cavernous sinus, orbit

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13
Q

what is cranial nerve 6 in direct contact with in the cavernous sinus

A

internal carotid artery

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14
Q

what are signs of injury to cranial nerve 6

A

horizontal diplopia, cannot abduct eye, esotropia

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15
Q

where can cranial nerve 7 be damaged

A

pons/medulla/posterior cranial fossa, temporal bone, on face (parotid surgery)

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16
Q

what nerve is damaged with bell’s palsy

A

CN 7

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17
Q

what does injury to CN 8 lead to

A

IL deafness, nystagmus, and dizziness

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18
Q

what nerves are impacted with vestibular schwannoma

A

CN 7, 8, 10 and 12

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19
Q

where can cranial nerve 10 be damaged

A

medulla/posterior fossa

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20
Q

what does CN XI arise from

A

neurons in C1-C4 spinal cord

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21
Q

what are the sensory ganglia in the head

A

trigeminal (CN 5), geniculate (CN 7), and superior and inferior (CN IX), superior and inferior (CN X)

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22
Q

parasympathetics in head

A

COPS- ciliary (CN 3), otic (CN 9), pterygopalatine (CN 7), submandibular (CN 7)

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23
Q

what nerves are involved with syndromes at the sphenoid fissure

A

3, 4, 5(2), 6

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24
Q

what nerves are involve in syndromes at the cavernous sinus

A

3, 4, 5(1), 6

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25
Q

what nerves are involved in syndromes at the retrosphenoidal space

A

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

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26
Q

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the apex of petrous bone

A

5, 6

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27
Q

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the internal auditory meatus

A

7, 8

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28
Q

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the jugular foramen

A

9, 10, 11

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29
Q

what nerves are involved ins syndromes occurring at the posterior lateral condylar space

A

9, 10, 11, 12

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30
Q

what nerves are involved with syndromes occurring at the retroparotid space

A

9, 10, 11, 12 and sympathetic chain

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31
Q

what does injury to the neck of the mandible endanger

A

facial and auriculotemporal ns

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32
Q

what does injury to the superior ramus of the mandible endanger

A

inferior alveolar and lingual ns

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33
Q

what results from elongation of the styloid process or calcification of the stylohyoid ligament

A

eagle syndrome

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34
Q

what nerve is endangered during parotidectomy

A

CN 7

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35
Q

what is the autonomic innervation of the parotid gland

A

CN 9

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36
Q

what provides sensory innervation to the parotid gland

A

CN 5

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37
Q

what is anisocoria

A

left-right asymmetry in the size of the pupils

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38
Q

what is the pupillary reflex in and out by

A

in by CN 2 and out by CN 3

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39
Q

what is the corneal reflex in and out by

A

in by CN 5 and out by CN 7

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40
Q

what is the tearing reflex in and out by

A

in by CN 5 and out by CN 7

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41
Q

what is the jaw-jerk reflex in and out by

A

in by CN 5 and out by CN 5

42
Q

what is the blink to startle reflex in and out by

A

in by CN 2 and out by CN 7

43
Q

what muscle of the larynx is NOT innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

cricothyroid muscle

44
Q

what provides sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal folds

A

internal laryngeal nerve

45
Q

what innervates the cricothyroid muscle

A

external laryngeal nerve

46
Q

what does injury to the external laryngeal nerve result in

A

monotonous speech

47
Q

what is an unsupported region along the posterior pharyngeal wall between the crico- and thyropharyngeus muscles

A

dehiscence of Killian

48
Q

what is a pouch of pharyngeal mucosa that emerges through the jillian’s dehiscence

A

zenker’s diverticulum

49
Q

what pharyngeal muscle is not innervated by CN 10

A

stylopharyngeus

50
Q

what innervates the stylopharyngess

A

CN 9

51
Q

what can enlargement of the palatine tonsils lead to

A

blockage of the oropharynx and results in dysphagia

52
Q

what tonsils are commonly enlarged in children, leading to “mouth breathing”

A

pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)

53
Q

what does surgical removal of the palatine tonsils endanger

A

external palatine vein, tonsillar artery, and CN 9

54
Q

what spaces are infected with ludwig’s angina

A

submandibular, sublingual and submental spaces

55
Q

what is the motor innervation to all glossal skeletal muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus

A

CN 7

56
Q

what innervates the palatoglossus

A

CN 10

57
Q

what provides general sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN 5

58
Q

what provides general sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN 9

59
Q

what provides special sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN 7

60
Q

what provides special sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN 9

61
Q

what provides special sensory to the root of the tongue

A

CN 10

62
Q

what provides autonomic innervation to the tongue

A

chords tympani (CN 7)

63
Q

where does lymph from the tip of the tongue drain

A

bilaterally to submental nodes

64
Q

where does the center of the body of the tongue drain lymph

A

inferior deep cervical nodes

65
Q

where des the right and left portions of the body of the tongue drain lymph

A

ipsilateral submandibular nodes

66
Q

what does the mastoid nodes drain

A

most of external ear, external meatus

67
Q

what does the parotid nodes drain

A

middle ear and external meatus

68
Q

what does the submandibular node drain

A

paranasal sinuses, oral cavity, tongue

69
Q

where does submental nodes drain

A

tip of tongue, median part of oral cavity and central part of lower lip

70
Q

what does the retropharyngeal nodes drain

A

auditory tube

71
Q

where does all lymph of the head converge on

A

deep cervical nodes

72
Q

what vein are the deep cervical nodes situated along

A

internal jugular vein

73
Q

what lymph nodes are included in level 1

A

submental, submandibular

74
Q

what is lymphadenopathy in level 1 associated with

A

disease of the oral cavity, upper respiratory infections, lymphomas, leukemia

75
Q

what lymph nodes are included in level 2

A

superior deep cervical

76
Q

what is lymphadenopathy in level 2 associated with

A

disease of oral cavity, pharynx

77
Q

what lymph nodes are included in level 3

A

nodes along the middle 1/3 of the internal jugular

78
Q

what lymph nodes are included in level 4

A

inferior deep cervical

79
Q

what is lymphadenopathy in level 4 associated with

A

disease of oral cavity and larynx

80
Q

what lymph nodes are included in level 5

A

posterior cervical and supraclavicular

81
Q

what is lymphadenopathy in level 5 associated with

A

infections of posterior scalp (posterior cervical) and abdnominal/thoracic neoplasia, thyroid and laryngeal cancer (supraclavicular nodes)

82
Q

what nodes are included in level 6

A

pre laryngeal and pretracheal

83
Q

what nodes are included in level 7

A

superior mediastinal

84
Q

where does the frontal sinus drain

A

middle meatus via frontonasal duct

85
Q

what can infections in the posterior ethmoidal sinus affect (nerve)

A

optic nerve

86
Q

where does the maxillary sinus drain

A

nasal cavity via hiatus semilunaris

87
Q

what is the maxillary sinus intimately related to

A

maxillary molars and superior alveolar nerve

88
Q

when is a subdural hemorrhage most common

A

shaken baby syndrome

89
Q

what artery is damaged with epidural hemorrhage

A

middle meningeal artery

90
Q

what is bleeding with a subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

arteries comprising the circle of willis

91
Q

what are the symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

headache, papilledema, diplopia/ophthalmoplegia, visual deficits, pupillary deficits, ptosis and/or meningitis

92
Q

what will aneurysms arising from the internal carotid within the cavernous sinus first impact

A

CN 6

93
Q

what is myopia

A

nearsightedness; focus of objects is in front of retina

94
Q

what is hyperopia

A

farsightedness; focus of objects is behind the retina

95
Q

what is opacity of the lens

A

cataract

96
Q

where do the axons forming CN 2 exit the eye

A

optic disc

97
Q

what is bulging of the optic disc from elevated intracranial pressure

A

papilledema

98
Q

what is the central artery of the retina

A

termal artery arising from the ophthalmic artery

99
Q

what causes tear production (nerve)

A

CN 7

100
Q

what nerve is affected when there is inflammation of the lacrimal gland causing pain

A

CN 5

101
Q

what is paralysis of the stapedius muscle resulting in increased perception of loudness

A

hyperacusis

102
Q

what nerve is injured with hyperacusis

A

CN 7

LECOM anatomy (20 decks)

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