anatomy clinical head Flashcards by Anna Woods

when can CN 1 likely get damaged

in head trauma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can CN 2 be damaged

in the optic canal, orbit and subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can CN 3 be damaged

midbrain, subarachnoid space, cavernous sinus, orbit

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is ptosis and mydrasis signs of injury to

CN 3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can CN 4 be damaged

in the midbrain, subarachnoid space, cavernous sinus, orbit

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what are signs of injury to CN 4

vertical diplopia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerve is damaged with trigeminal neuralgia

CN 5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can the trigeminal nerve be damaged (general)

pons and posterior cranial fossa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can the ophthalmic nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

cavernous sinus, superior orbital fissure, branches in orbit and on face

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can the maxillary nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

cavernous sinus, foramen rotunda, branches in nasal cavity and face

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can the mandibular nerve of the trigeminal nerve be damaged

foramen ovale, infratemporal fossa, branches ot mandible and face

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can cranial nerve 6 be damaged

pons, subarachnoid space/posterior fossa, cavernous sinus, orbit

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is cranial nerve 6 in direct contact with in the cavernous sinus

internal carotid artery

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what are signs of injury to cranial nerve 6

horizontal diplopia, cannot abduct eye, esotropia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can cranial nerve 7 be damaged

pons/medulla/posterior cranial fossa, temporal bone, on face (parotid surgery)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerve is damaged with bell’s palsy

CN 7

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what does injury to CN 8 lead to

IL deafness, nystagmus, and dizziness

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerves are impacted with vestibular schwannoma

CN 7, 8, 10 and 12

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where can cranial nerve 10 be damaged

medulla/posterior fossa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what does CN XI arise from

neurons in C1-C4 spinal cord

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what are the sensory ganglia in the head

trigeminal (CN 5), geniculate (CN 7), and superior and inferior (CN IX), superior and inferior (CN X)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

parasympathetics in head

COPS- ciliary (CN 3), otic (CN 9), pterygopalatine (CN 7), submandibular (CN 7)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerves are involved with syndromes at the sphenoid fissure

3, 4, 5(2), 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerves are involve in syndromes at the cavernous sinus

3, 4, 5(1), 6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerves are involved in syndromes at the retrosphenoidal space

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the apex of petrous bone

5, 6

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the internal auditory meatus

7, 8

what nerves are involved in syndromes occurring at the jugular foramen

9, 10, 11

what nerves are involved ins syndromes occurring at the posterior lateral condylar space

9, 10, 11, 12

what nerves are involved with syndromes occurring at the retroparotid space

9, 10, 11, 12 and sympathetic chain

what does injury to the neck of the mandible endanger

facial and auriculotemporal ns

what does injury to the superior ramus of the mandible endanger

inferior alveolar and lingual ns

what results from elongation of the styloid process or calcification of the stylohyoid ligament

eagle syndrome

what nerve is endangered during parotidectomy

CN 7

what is the autonomic innervation of the parotid gland

CN 9

what provides sensory innervation to the parotid gland

CN 5

what is anisocoria

left-right asymmetry in the size of the pupils

what is the pupillary reflex in and out by

in by CN 2 and out by CN 3

what is the corneal reflex in and out by

in by CN 5 and out by CN 7

what is the tearing reflex in and out by

in by CN 5 and out by CN 7

what is the jaw-jerk reflex in and out by

in by CN 5 and out by CN 5

what is the blink to startle reflex in and out by

in by CN 2 and out by CN 7

what muscle of the larynx is NOT innervated by recurrent laryngeal nerve

cricothyroid muscle

what provides sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal folds

internal laryngeal nerve

what innervates the cricothyroid muscle

external laryngeal nerve

what does injury to the external laryngeal nerve result in

monotonous speech

what is an unsupported region along the posterior pharyngeal wall between the crico- and thyropharyngeus muscles

dehiscence of Killian

what is a pouch of pharyngeal mucosa that emerges through the jillian's dehiscence

zenker's diverticulum

what pharyngeal muscle is not innervated by CN 10

stylopharyngeus

what innervates the stylopharyngess

CN 9

what can enlargement of the palatine tonsils lead to

blockage of the oropharynx and results in dysphagia

what tonsils are commonly enlarged in children, leading to "mouth breathing"

pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)

what does surgical removal of the palatine tonsils endanger

external palatine vein, tonsillar artery, and CN 9

what spaces are infected with ludwig's angina

submandibular, sublingual and submental spaces

what is the motor innervation to all glossal skeletal muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus

CN 7

what innervates the palatoglossus

CN 10

what provides general sensory to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

CN 5

what provides general sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

CN 9

what provides special sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

CN 7

what provides special sensory to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

CN 9

what provides special sensory to the root of the tongue

CN 10

what provides autonomic innervation to the tongue

chords tympani (CN 7)

where does lymph from the tip of the tongue drain

bilaterally to submental nodes

where does the center of the body of the tongue drain lymph

inferior deep cervical nodes

where des the right and left portions of the body of the tongue drain lymph

ipsilateral submandibular nodes

what does the mastoid nodes drain

most of external ear, external meatus

what does the parotid nodes drain

middle ear and external meatus

what does the submandibular node drain

paranasal sinuses, oral cavity, tongue

where does submental nodes drain

tip of tongue, median part of oral cavity and central part of lower lip

what does the retropharyngeal nodes drain

auditory tube

where does all lymph of the head converge on

deep cervical nodes

what vein are the deep cervical nodes situated along

internal jugular vein

what lymph nodes are included in level 1

submental, submandibular

what is lymphadenopathy in level 1 associated with

disease of the oral cavity, upper respiratory infections, lymphomas, leukemia

what lymph nodes are included in level 2

superior deep cervical

what is lymphadenopathy in level 2 associated with

disease of oral cavity, pharynx

what lymph nodes are included in level 3

nodes along the middle 1/3 of the internal jugular

what lymph nodes are included in level 4

inferior deep cervical

what is lymphadenopathy in level 4 associated with

disease of oral cavity and larynx

what lymph nodes are included in level 5

posterior cervical and supraclavicular

what is lymphadenopathy in level 5 associated with

infections of posterior scalp (posterior cervical) and abdnominal/thoracic neoplasia, thyroid and laryngeal cancer (supraclavicular nodes)

what nodes are included in level 6

pre laryngeal and pretracheal

what nodes are included in level 7

superior mediastinal

where does the frontal sinus drain

middle meatus via frontonasal duct

what can infections in the posterior ethmoidal sinus affect (nerve)

optic nerve

where does the maxillary sinus drain

nasal cavity via hiatus semilunaris

what is the maxillary sinus intimately related to

maxillary molars and superior alveolar nerve

when is a subdural hemorrhage most common

shaken baby syndrome

what artery is damaged with epidural hemorrhage

middle meningeal artery

what is bleeding with a subarachnoid hemorrhage

arteries comprising the circle of willis

what are the symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombosis

headache, papilledema, diplopia/ophthalmoplegia, visual deficits, pupillary deficits, ptosis and/or meningitis

what will aneurysms arising from the internal carotid within the cavernous sinus first impact

CN 6

what is myopia

nearsightedness; focus of objects is in front of retina

what is hyperopia

farsightedness; focus of objects is behind the retina

what is opacity of the lens

cataract

where do the axons forming CN 2 exit the eye

optic disc

what is bulging of the optic disc from elevated intracranial pressure

papilledema

what is the central artery of the retina

termal artery arising from the ophthalmic artery

what causes tear production (nerve)

CN 7

what nerve is affected when there is inflammation of the lacrimal gland causing pain

CN 5

what is paralysis of the stapedius muscle resulting in increased perception of loudness

hyperacusis

what nerve is injured with hyperacusis

CN 7