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Anatomy & physiology 102 > Lymphatic system > Flashcards

Lymphatic system Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lymphatic and immune system and what are there three functions ?

A

network of vessels and organs that penetrate nearly every tissue of the body. They aid in fluid recovery, immunity, and lipid absorption

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2
Q

What are the 4 components of the lymphatic system ?

A

lymph , lymphatic vessels, lymphatic tissue, and lymphatic organs

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3
Q

What are the functions of them ?

A

Lymph- recovered fluid, Lymphatic vessels- transports lymph, Lymphatic tissue- aggregates of lymphocytes and macrophages that populate many organs of the body, Lymphatic organs- encapsulated areas in which these cells are especially concentrated.

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4
Q

True or False, Interference with lymphatic drainage can

lead to severe edema.

A

True

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5
Q

True or False, The lymphatic system absorbs 2-4L a day and returns it to the blood stream

A

True

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6
Q

Define elephantiasis

A

rare disorder of the. lymphatic system caused by parasitic worms (transmitted by mosquitos) occurs most commonly in tropical areas causes inflammation of the limb

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7
Q

What are the three functions of the lymphatic system?

A

Fluid recovery, immunity, and lipid absorption

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8
Q

What causes the vessel blockage and extreme enlargement of the affected area, for example a leg, in people with elephantiasis ?

A

Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels

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9
Q

How is lymph different from plasma?

A

They’re both a clear colorless fluid but lymph has much less protein

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10
Q

What can be found in the lymph fluid?

A

lipids(if draining from the small intestine), Lymphocytes(macrophages), hormones,bacteria,
viruses, cellular debris, traveling cancer cells

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11
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are ___ at one end.

A

Closed

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12
Q

Why are lymphatic capillaries tied down , tethered to surrounding tissue by protein filaments?

A

To prevent the sac from collapsing

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13
Q

Why are the endothelial cells in lymphatic capillaries (they look like the walls of it )loosely overlapped?

A

The endothelial cells DONT have tight junctions. Their overlapping structure creates valve-like flaps that open when pressure is high to allow bacteria and cells to enter the capillary

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14
Q

What are the three layers of the larger lymphatic vessels?

A

Tunica interna, tunica media, and Tunica externa

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15
Q

Describe Tunica interna

A

endothelium and valves.

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16
Q

Describe Tunica media

A

elastic fibers and smooth muscle.

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17
Q

Describe tunica externa

A

Thin outer layer

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18
Q

How are Lymphatic vessels different from veins?

A

Their walls are thinner and their valves are closer together.

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19
Q

Describe the converging flow of lymph

A

Lymphatic capillaries, Collecting vessels, Six lymphatic trunks,Two collecting vessels, and Subclavian veins

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20
Q

What 5 places would you NOT fine lymphatic capillaries ?

A

CNS, cartilage, bone, cornea, and

bone marrow. They are closely associates with blood capillaries (they travel together for the most part )

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21
Q

collecting vessels travel alongside _______ and _____.

A

arteries and veins

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22
Q

collecting vessels course through many lymph nodes where what happens?

A

Bacteria are phagocytized , and immune cells monitor fluid for forieghn antigens.

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23
Q

Lymphatic trunks are formed form the ______ of collecting vessels.

A

Convergence

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24
Q

What do lymphatic trunks do? and what are the 6 major lymphatic trunks?

A

They drain major portions of the body .

Jugular, Subclavian, Bronchomediastinal, intercostal, Intestinal, and Lumbar(drain also lower limbs)

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25
Q

Lymphatic trunks converge to make what two ducts?

A

Right lymphatic duct, and thoracic duct .

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26
Q

What three trunks converge to make up the right lymphatic trunk? Where does it collect lymph from?

A

Right Jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal trunks. they receive drainage from right arm, right thorax, and head

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27
Q

True or false the thoracic ducts is larger and longer than the right lymphatic duct. Why?

A

True because of the Cisterna chili

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28
Q

The Cisterna chili is a part of what duct? and from where does it receives lymph?

A

Thoracic duct , its a prominent sac that receives

all lymph from below diaphragm, left arm, left side of head, neck and thorax

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29
Q

Each collecting duct drains into the ______ vein

A

subclavian

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30
Q

What is a sentinel lymph node biopsy ?

A

A test to determine if breast cancer has spread to the lymph ducts .

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31
Q

What do you call the 1st lymph node and what is its job?

A

Sentinel lymph node, helps sound the warning that the cancer has spread .

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32
Q

True or false Lymph flows at lower pressure and speed than veins.

A

True

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33
Q

How is the flow of lymph created?

A

Primarily by rhythmic contractions of lymphatic vessels but also by skeletal muscle pump, and pulsations of arteries that squeeze the lymph vessels

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34
Q

True or false exercise significantly increases lymphatic

return.

A

True

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35
Q

What are Natural killer cells? (NK)cells

A

Large lymphocytes that attack and destroy bacteria , transplanted tissue, and host cells infected with a virus or cancer.

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36
Q

NK cells are responsible for immune ______.

A

Surveillance

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37
Q

What are T lymphocytes and what do they depend on?

A

They are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus and depend on thymic hormones

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38
Q

What are B lymphocytes ? Where do they mature?

A

plasma cells that secrete antibodies and mature in bone marrow

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39
Q

True or false macrophages develop from monocytes that emigrated from the bloodstream.

A

True

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40
Q

True or false macrophages are also antigen presenting cells

A

True

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41
Q

What are Dendritic cells?

A

Branches APC (antigen presenting cell) that are found in the epidermis, mucous membrane, and lymphatic organs) They engulf forieghn matter by receptor-mediated endocytosis rather than phagocytosis

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42
Q

What are reticular cells and what do they do?

A

branched stationary cells that contribute to the ct framework of lymphatic organs and Act as APCs in the thymus

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43
Q

What are the two groups a T lymphocyte can be categorized as ? What are their jobs?

A

Cytotoxic T cells (TCD8) kill infected cells and T helper cells (TCD4) support the action of cytotoxic T cells, and B lymphocytes

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44
Q

Define lymphatic tissue

A

Aggregates(many combined ) of lymphocytes in C.T of mucous membranes and various organs,

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45
Q

Define Diffuse lymphatic tissue, and where they are prevalent

A

lymphocytes are scattered rather than densely clustered, prevalent in body passages that are open to the exterior such as respiratory , digestive, urinary, and reproductive tract.

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46
Q

Diffuse lymphatic tissue is found in mucous membranes and is also called _____.

A

Mucosa Associated Lymphatic Tissue (MALT)

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47
Q

During an infection what do dendritic cells do?

A

They recognize parts of bacteria and viruses as forieghn (antigens)

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48
Q

Mature, antigen bearing dendritic cells leave the site of infection and migrate where?

A

To draining lymph nodes via blood/lymph

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49
Q

Where do antigen bearing dendritic cells present the processed antigens to other immune cells , B and T lymphocytes

A

within the lymph nodes

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50
Q

What happens when B lymphocytes become activated and how do they get activated?

A

They start to produce antibodies against the antigens. They are found in the lymph nodes (where the APC go to present antigens)

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51
Q

What do Cytotoxic T cells (TCD8) do?

A

They kill infected cells

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52
Q

What do T helper cells (TCD4) do?

A

They support the action of cytotoxic T cells and B lymphocytes (Kill infected cells)

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53
Q

Define lymphatic nodules

A

dense oval masses of lymphocytes (come in & go as pathogens invade tissue)

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54
Q

Where are lymphatic nodules most commonly found?

A

Constantly found in the lymph nodes, tonsils, and appendix

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55
Q

Define Peyer’s patches and where they can be found

A

Permanent congregation, clusters of lymphocytes found at the junction of small to large intestines

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56
Q

Lymphatic organs have well defined anatomical sites and a partial _____ capsule that separates the lymphatic tissue from surrounding tissue

A

C.T

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57
Q

What 2 things are part of the primary lymphatic organs?

A

Red bone marrow and thymus.

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58
Q

Where are the primary sites where T and B Lymphocytes become immunocompetent? (able to recognize antigen)

A

The primary are found either in the red bone marrow or thymus

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59
Q

What 3 things are part of the secondary lymphatic organs? Why are they considered secondary?

A

Lymph nodes, tonsils, and spleen , because they are populated with immunocompetent lymphocytes FROM the primary organs

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60
Q

True or False the secondary lymphatic organs are populated with immunocompetent lymphocytes from the primary organs ?

A

True

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61
Q

What 2 functions does the lymph node provide?

A

cleanse the lymph and acts as a site for T and B cell activation as a result of foreign antigens

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62
Q

True or False, Lymph nodes are the only organs that filter lymph ?

A

True

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63
Q

Define Hilum in regards to a lymph node

A

indented area where blood vessels enter or leave

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64
Q

What encloses the Hilum ?

A

A fibrous capsule with trabeculae that partially divide the interior into compartments in the lymph node

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65
Q

What is the subcapsular space, in regards to a lymph node and what does it contain?

A

Clear space between capsule and parenchyma that contains reticular fibers, macs, and dendritic cells

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66
Q

The parenchyma of a lymph node divided into what 2 layers ?

A

Medulla (deep) and cortex (superficial)

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67
Q

What does the cortex of a lymph node consist of ?

A

Lymphatic nodules

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68
Q

Where do B cells multiply and differentiate into plasma cells ?

A

Germinal Center in the nodules of a lymph node

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69
Q

True or False, when fighting a pathogen, nodules acquire a light-staining germinal center

A

True

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70
Q

The medulla of a lymph node consists of a branching network of medullary cords that consist of what 5 things?

A

Branching network of medullary cords are composed of lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, reticular cells, and reticular fibers

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71
Q

True or False, As lymph percolate (filter) through the node, %99 of impurities are removed before it leaves the node

A

True

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72
Q

Where can the Cervical lymph node group be found? From where does the lymph that the cervical lymph node monitors come from?

A

Deep and superficial group in the neck. Monitors lymph coming from the head and neck

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73
Q

Where can the Axillary lymph node group be found?

From where does the lymph that the axillary lymph node monitors come from?

A

Concentrated in the armpit and receives lymph from upper limb and female breasts

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74
Q

From where does the Thoracic node monitor lymph from?

A

Receives lymph from the lungs, airway, and mediastinum

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75
Q

Where does the Abdominal node monitor lymph from?

A

monitors lymph from the urinary and reproductive systems

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76
Q

Where does the Intestinal node monitor lymph from?

A

monitors lymph from digestive tract

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77
Q

Where does the Inguinal node receive lymph from?

A

Receives lymph from entire lower limb

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78
Q

Where does the Popliteal node receive lymph from?

A

back of knee

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79
Q

Define Lymphadenitis

A

Swollen node due to challenge from foreign antigen

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80
Q

What is a Lymphadenopathy ?

A

Lymph node disease

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81
Q

What are tonsils and what are they for ?

A

Patches of lymphatic tissue located at the entrance to the pharynx, guards against ingested and inhaled pathogens

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82
Q

True or False Pathogens get into crypts (deep pits) on the tonsils and encounter lymphocytes

A

True

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83
Q

What are the three pairs of tonsils and their locations?

A
  1. Palatine tonsils: pair at posterior of mouth, most often infected 2. Lingual tonsils: pair at the root of tongue 3. Pharyngeal tonsils: single medial tonsil on wall of pharynx behind nasal cavity
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84
Q

True or False, Palatine tonsils are most often infected with streptococcus

A

True

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85
Q

Name the function of the Thymus

A

Contains developing lymphocytes and secrets hormones to regulate their (the lymphocyte) activity

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86
Q

Name 2 hormones that the Thymus secretes

A

Thymopoietin and Thymosins

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87
Q

True or False, the Thymus is large in a fetus but shrinks as we grow older

A

True

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88
Q

True or Flase, The thymus is both a lymphatic and endocrine organ

A

True

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89
Q

The Thymus is the site of ____ -cell development

A

T-cells

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90
Q

(skipped beginning of slide 54 ) Define the blood Thymic barrier

A

Blood vessels are covered with epithelial reticular cells to form a perivascular connective tissue sheath to keep foreign antigens from getting into the cortex.

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91
Q

True or false there are no reticular fibers in the thymus

A

True

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92
Q

What part of the thymus is T cell maturation occurring?

A

Cortex of the thymus

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93
Q

True or false we do not know the function of thymic(hassall)corpuscles cell in the thymus

A

True , the cells are in the medulla

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94
Q

The reticular epithelial cells in the thymus produce several signalling molecules that promote T cell development and action. What does the molecule interleukin do?

A

its involved in the survival, development, and homeostasis of B, T, and NK cells

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95
Q

The reticular epithelial cells in the thymus produce several signalling molecules that promote T cell development and action. What does the cytokine(aids in cell communication) molecule, interferon do?

A

its released in response to viral infection, activates NK cells, and macrophages

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96
Q

What kind of T cells are found in the cortex of the thymus?

A

immature T lymphocytes

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97
Q

What kind of T cells are found in the medulla of the thymus?

A

larger mature T lymphocytes going through the final selection stage.

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98
Q

What will you find in the parenchyma (working part) of the spleen ? what is it commonly known as ?

A

sinuses filled with erythrocytes “red pulp” and lymphocytes, macrophages; surrounds small branches of splenic artery “white pulp”

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99
Q

What does the parenchyma(working part) of the spleen do?

A

blood production in fetus , blood reservoir, RBC disposal, And immune reactions:filters blood and quick to detect antigens

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100
Q

What are the two major functions of the spleen in the body ?

A

Destruction of old RBC and is a major site for mounting the immune response

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101
Q

True or false The spleen behaves similar to a lymph node but instead of filtering the lymphatic fluid it filters the blood.

A

True

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102
Q

The spleen is highly vascular and vulnerable to trauma and infection , therefore it can rupture fatally . What is usually preformed since it is difficult to repair?

A

splenectomy

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103
Q

people can live without a spleen but may be prone to more______.

A

infections

104
Q

Innate (natural ) immunity AKA nonspecific resistance consists of what lines of defense?

A

First, and second line of defense

105
Q

What consists of the 1st line of defense ?

A

intact skin, mucous membranes and their secretions, and normal microbiota “external barriers”

106
Q

What consists of the 2nd line of defense?

A

Phagocytic white blood cells(leukocytes and macrophages) , inflammation, fever, and antimicrobial substances “immune surveillance”

107
Q

What consists of the 3rd line of defense ?

A

Specialized lymphocytes:B cells and T cells and antibodies. They result from prior exposure and protect only against a particular pathogen “provides future protection”

108
Q

adaptive immunity AKA specific resistance consists of what line of defense?

A

3rd line of defense

109
Q

What does the Antimicrobial chemical, lactic in the skin help with ?

A

a component of perspiration-inhibits growth

110
Q

How do mucous membranes (external barrier 1st defense ) help?

A

stickiness of mucus-ensnares microbes, Flushed from upper GI tract by saliva and lower urinary tract by urine, lysozyme: enzyme destroys bacterial cell walls in tears and saliva

111
Q

Define tissue gel and where it is found.

A

viscous barrier of hyaluronic acid-difficult for microbes to migrate through. Can be found in subepithelial areolar tissue

112
Q

Define hyaluronidase

A

enzyme used by pathogens to loosen gel to a thinner consistency for easier migration (snake venom )

113
Q

Describe what neutrophils do

A

They phagocytize bacteria by creating a “killing zone”meaning they degranulate and discharge lysosomes into tissue fluids that release toxins creating a “respiratory burst” everything around it dies such as the neutrophils , bacteria, and surrounding tissue.

114
Q

`True or false eosinophils are found especially in mucous membranes

A

True

115
Q

describe what eosinophils do

A

They phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, ALERGENS, and inflammatory chemicals. They as well release chemical toxins, promote actions of basophils and mast cells, and secrete enzymes that limit histamine and other inflammatory chemicals.

116
Q

Describe what basophils do

A

They aid in mobility and action of white blood cells by the release of histamine (vasodialator) which increase of blood flow of WBC to get to the tissue faster and heparin (anticoagulant) prevents phagocytes from moving

117
Q

T cells, B cells, and NK cells are what kind of cells

A

lymphocytes

118
Q

monocytes are circulating _____ to macrophages

A

precursor

119
Q

What is the macrophage (lymphoid-macrophage)system. What cells consist of it?

A

all the bodies phagocytic cells except leukocytes.They include wandering macrophages and fixed macrophages

120
Q

wandering macrophages are part of the macrophage (lymphoid-macrophage)system, what do they do?

A

they’re called histiocytes as well and move throughout the C.T seeking pathogens

121
Q

Fixed macrophages are part of the macrophage (lymphoid-macrophage)system, what do they do?

A

theyre fixed in place and only phagocytize pathogens that come to them.

122
Q

What are 4 fixed macrophages and their locations?

A

Dendritic cells are found in epidermis, lymphatic organs and cavities exposed to environment, Microglia-in the CNS,Alveolar macrophages-in the lungs, Hepatic macrophages-in the liver

123
Q

Interferons give off what two effects? What are they ?

A

polypeptides secreted by cells invaded by viruses they can give off the antiviral effect, and the anticancer effect. (kills cancer cells )

124
Q

Describe the antiviral effect given off by interferons

A

They’re are generalized in protection and diffuse to neighboring cells and stimulates them to produce anitvirus proteins. They as well activate NK cells and macrophages

125
Q

What do NK cells do in general?

A

patrol the body for pathogens or diseased host cells

126
Q

True or false NK cells Attack transplanted tissues, virus infected cells, cancer cells

A

True

127
Q

NK cells release what two proteins and how do they work together?

A

They release perforins and granzymes . The perforins create a hole in the membrane and the granzymes enter via pore and destroy cellular enzymes and induce Apoptsis (self cell death)

128
Q

define the complement system

A

The complement system is a biochemical cascade which helps clear pathogens from an organism consisting of a number of small proteins found in the blood, normally circulating as inactive zymogens.(inactivated enzyme)

129
Q

True or false the complement system “biochemical cascade” belongs to the innate immune system

A

True its part of the larger immune system and does not change

130
Q

True or False The complement system can be recruited and brought into action by the adaptive immune system

A

True

131
Q

The complement system is activated by what 3 pathways?

A

Classical, alternative, and lectin

132
Q

What are the three mechanisms of action for the complement system ?

A

enhanced inflammation (stimulates the release of inflammatory chemicals), Opsonization (promotes phagocytosis), and cytolysis(membrane attack complex =MAC attack)

133
Q

Describe opsonization

A

enhancemnet of phagocytosis by coating with C3b

134
Q

Describe inflammation

A

increase of blood vessel permeability and chemotactic attraction of phagocytes C3A

135
Q

Describe Cytolysis

A

loss of cellular contents through trans-membrane channel formed by membrane attack complex C5-C9

136
Q

What do mast cells secrete ?

A

Histamine

137
Q

The complement system is activated by 3 pathways. The classical pathway requires ___ to get started and creates a _____ on the surface of a pathogen

A

an antibody (thus part of specific immunity ), creates antigen-antibody complex

138
Q

What are the 4 steps to the classical pathway?

A

1st you need an antibody, 2nd an antibody binds to an antigen and forms an antigen-antibody complex, 3rd once the complex is formed binding sites for C1 (ticks) are formed , 4th C1 binds to the site setting off amplifying enzyme reaction cascade

139
Q

What two pathways of the complement system are considered to be non specific?

A

Alternative and Lectin

140
Q

The alternative pathway is initiated when C3 is ______ activated in the blood to C3a and C3b. What causes its activation?

A

spontaneously, When it combines with part of a bacteria or virus

141
Q

How can the alternative pathway be inhibited?

A

It can be quickly deactivated on the surface of host cells that have specialized membrane proteins that inhibit the complement activation

142
Q

Describe the Lectin pathway

A

Plasma proteins capable of binding carbohydrates of microbial cell walls and setting off the complement cascade

143
Q

Mast cells and basophils secrete histamine that acts as a _______ to MACS and neutrophils

A

Chemoattractant (attracts certain type of cell with chemicals )

144
Q

Define opsinins

A

proteins that coat microbials and serve as binding sites for easier phagocyte attachment

145
Q

Define inflammation

A

A defensive response to tissue injury

146
Q

How does inflammation help

A

limits spread of pathogens(then destroys them ) , removes debris, and initiates tissue repair

147
Q

What are the Cardinal (most important) signs of inflammation and what causes them?

A
  1. redness(erythema) caused by hyperemia (↑blood flow)
  2. swelling(edema) caused by ↑capillary permeability and filtration
  3. heat caused by hyperemia
  4. pain caused by inflammatory chemicals (bradykinin, prostaglandins) secreted by damaged cells, pressure on nerves
148
Q

Chemical mediators are also called ________.

A

Cytokines

149
Q

Define Cytokine.

A

small proteins that act locally (paracrine, autocrine) to alter the physiological behavior of surrounding cells. Small protein hormones that stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions such as cell growth and differentiation

150
Q

What are 4 examples of Cytokines ?

A

Interferons, interleukins, tumor necrosis factor, and chemotactic factors

151
Q

What are the 3 major processes of inflammation ?

A
  1. MOBILIZATION of the body’s defense 2.CONTAINMENT and destruction of pathogens
  2. Tissue CLEANUP AND REPAIR
152
Q

What is secreted by damaged cells, mast cells, basophils, lymphocytes, macrophages, and platelets?

A

Bradykinin, Histamine, and Leukotrienes

153
Q

During inflammation Bradykinin, Histamine, and Leukotrienes stimulate vasodilation which leads to hyperemia. How does vasodilation promote the mobilization processes for inflammation ?

A

Increases heat, therefore increases metabolic rate that promotes cell multiplication and healing.

154
Q

What 2 major things in the mobilization portion of inflammation happen as a result of the chemicals Bradykinin, Histamine, and Leukotrienes secreted by damaged cells?

A
  1. Vasodilation that leads to hyperemia (the heat raises metabolic rate and promotes cell multiplication and healing), dilutes toxins, provides O2, nutrients, and waste removal
  2. Raises permeability of blood capillaries allowing blood cells and chemicals into the tissue
155
Q

What are the 4 ways Leukocyte deploy to the damages area in order to aid in inflammation through containment and construction ?

A
  1. Margination 2. Diapedesis (emigration) 3. Chemotaxis 4.Phagocytosis
156
Q

Define Margination (Leukocyte deployment)

A

Leukocytes adhere to blood vessel walls via selectins (adhesion molecules produced by endothelial cells)

157
Q

Define Diapedesis (Leukocyte deployment)

A

Leukocytes squeeze between endothelial cells into tissue space

158
Q

Define Chemotaxis (Leukocyte deployment)

A

Leukocytes are attracted to inflammatory chemicals

159
Q

Define Phagocytosis (Leukocyte deployment)

A

Processes by which a cell engulfs a solid particle, Neutrophils are quickest to respond

160
Q

What Leukocyte is the first responder in bacterial infection ?

A

Neutrophils, they release Bradykinin and Leukotriens (attract more leukocytes to the area of inflammation)

161
Q

True or False Activated macrophages and T-cells secrete colony-stimulating factors which promote the production of more Leukocytes by the red bone marrow ?

A

True

162
Q

Monocytes play a major role in ______ repair, How?

A

Tissue repair, they engulf bacteria, damage host cells, and dead neutrophilis. Act as APC cells

163
Q

Monocytes play a major role in ______ repair, How? (tissue cleanup and repair)

A

Tissue repair, they engulf bacteria, damage host cells, and dead neutrophilis. Act as APC cells

164
Q

Define pus

A

dead macs, neutrophils, liquefied tissue and debris

165
Q

Define abscess

A

accumulatied of pus in a tissue cavity

166
Q

Define blister

A

pus collection between epidermis and dermis

167
Q

Define edema and how it contributes to the lymphatic system

A

contributes to tissue cleanup. Swelling compresses veins to reduce venous return .Forces open lymphatic valves to promote lymphatic drainage of bacteria, dead cells, proteins, and tissue debris

168
Q

___ are the primary agents of cleanup

A

macrophages

169
Q

Some tissues cannot be replaced, then fibroblasts form _____tissue

A

scar

170
Q

How does our body use a fever as a defense mechanism ?

A

promotes interferon activity , accelerating metabolic rate and tissue repair, and inhibits pathogen reproduction

171
Q

What does pyrogen secreted by macrophages stimulate?

A

The anterior hypothalamus to secrete PGE (prostaglandin) which resets the bodys thermostat higher.

172
Q

What two characteristics separate specific immunity from non specific?

A

Specificity (immunity directed against a particular pathogen )and memory (once re-exposed to the same pathogen the body is primed and ready to react quicker)

173
Q

Define humoral immunity . Is it part of specific or non specific immunity?

A

Antibodies, not cells, directly attack pathogen(not effective against intracellular pathogens ). Part of specific immunity

174
Q

Define cellular immunity . Is it part of specific or non soecific immunity?

A

employ lymphocytes that directly attack and destroy. Is effective against intracellular pathogens and is part of the specific immunity

175
Q

Define Antigen

A

macromolecules that elicit an immune response in the body

176
Q

What are 3 things an antigen can be?

A

proteins, polysaccharides, and conjugates of lipids (lipoproteins) (glycolipids)

177
Q

What are the two general types of antigens?

A

Antigens that enter the body from the environment and antigens that are generated within the cells

178
Q

How would antigens enter the body from the external environment ?

A

Inhaled , ingested, and introduces beneath the skin (splinter or an injected vaccine )

179
Q

How are antigens generated within a cell?

A

1 proteins encoded by the genes of viruses that have infected a cell
2 aberrant proteins that are encoded by mutant genes; such as mutated genes in cancer cells

180
Q

What’s considered to be the most numerous lymphatic organs? (just one type )

A

Lymph nodes

181
Q

The initial immune response to any antigen REQUIRES that the antigen be recognized by_________.

A

T lymphocytes (T cell)

182
Q

Define exogenous antigens

A

inhaled, ingested, or injected antigens are (eaten )taken up by APC’s

183
Q

What are the APC’s that engulf exogenous antigens ?

A

phagocytic cells (dendritic cells, and macrophages) and B lymphocytes (produce antibodies against antigens)

184
Q

True or false macrophages are APC’s

A

True

185
Q

How do macrophages engulf the antigens ?

A

Endocytosis

186
Q

Macrophages will engulf an exogenous antigen where an endosome carries it and fuses with a lysosome that will degrade the antigen into fragments. What happens to these fragments?

A

The antigengic peptides(antigen fragments) are then displayed at the surface of the cell nestled within a class two Histocompatibility molecule (badge? )

187
Q

Via what do CD4 (helper T cells ) recognize antigens on macrophages?

A

Class II histocompatibility molecule (badge)

188
Q

MHC-1 molecules are built into the plasma membranes of all ____ cells except RBC’s

A

Body

189
Q

MHC-2 molecules appear on the surface of _____

A

APC’s

190
Q

Inactive helper t cells recognize exogenous antigen fragments associates with _____ molecules at the surface of an APC

A

MHC 2 moleculses

191
Q

What’s the prime trigger for T cell proliferation

A

a cytokine , interleukin

192
Q

True or false memory cells are inactive until they com in contact with the same antigen once more

A

True

193
Q

MHC1 are on all nucleated cells except _____ cells and bind to _____ receptors of killer T cell.

A

RBC’s, CD8

194
Q

MHC 2 are on only _____ cells and bind to the _____ receptor on helper T cells

A

APC’s , CD4

195
Q

MHC1 is endogenous and MHC2 is _____

A

exogenous

196
Q

exogenous antigens (inhaled, ingested, or injected) are taken up by _____

A

APC’s such as macrophages and B lymphocytes

197
Q

True or false a B lymphocyte can be classified as an APC

A

true

198
Q

B lymphocytes process antigen by the class ______ for presentation

A

TWO

199
Q

How do B cells engulf an antigen?

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

200
Q

What is another name for a B cell receptor? (hint: they’re anchored to the plasma membrane )

A

antibodies

201
Q

How is a hocyte a APC? where does it display the antigen ?

A

it is considered an APC cause it displays antigens at the cell surface in the groove of a class 2 histocompatibility molecule.

202
Q

If a macrophage has a class 2 MHC molecule with an antigen on it what will bind to it ?

A

CD4 T cells (helper)

203
Q

If a B cell has a class 2 MHC molecule with an antigen on it what will bind to it? What will that do?

A

CD8 T cells (cytotoxin), costimulation will occur

204
Q

What happens to the B cell when its stimulated by the helper t cell with cytokine interleukin ?

A

The B cell will grow into a clone of cells called plasma cells

205
Q

True or false Antibodies are synthesized receptors (BCR’s) with identical bonding sites for the epitope but with out the transmembrane tail

A

True

206
Q

True or false the binding of a T cell to an APC by itself is not enough to activate the T cell and turn it into an effector

A

True T cell must not only bind to an epitope but also receive a second signal from the APC (interleukin )

207
Q

Define endogenous antigens

A

antigens that are generated within the cell

208
Q

How are endogenous antigens found by specific immunity ?

A

A normal cell will degrade it into fragments and display the epitope on a MHC class 1 where CD8 T cells will recognize them

209
Q

Define active immunity

A

body makes its own antibodies or t cells against a pathogen (involving memory cells )

210
Q

Define passive immunity

A

Body acquires antibodies from another person or animal

211
Q

Define Natural active immunity

A

production of ones own antibodies, or t cells as a result of natural exposure to an antigen

212
Q

Define Artificial active immunity

A

production of ones own antibodies or t cells as a result of vaccination

213
Q

Define natural passive immunity

A

temporary immunity resulting from acquiring antibodies produced from another person . Ex. fetus acquire from mother

214
Q

Define Artificial passive immunity

A

immunity resulting form injection of an imine serum obtained from another person

215
Q

Define Antigen

A

Foreign molecules that can trigger an immune response

216
Q

Define epitope

A

part of an antigen that is recognized as foreign and can stimulate an immune response (one antigen can have several epitopes)

217
Q

Define haptens

A

molecules too small to cause a reaction in till they can bind host macromolecules that can trigger a response

218
Q

What is an example of a haptens?

A

penicillin , it creates a protein that causes a massive release of histamine resulting in anaphylactic shock

219
Q

True or false antibodies have to heavy and two light chains in a “Y” shape

A

True

220
Q

Where can you fine antibodies(immunoglobulins) ?

A

body secretions, blood plasma, and some leukocytes membranes

221
Q

What are the 5 antibody classes?

A

Iga, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM

222
Q

Describe IgA monomer found in plasma

A

found in secretions (saliva, mils, tears )and prevents adherence to epithelial , passive immunity yo newborns

223
Q

Describe monomer IgD monomer

A

Involved in B cell activation , its a receptor on b membrane

224
Q

Describe monomer IgE

A

involved in allergic reactions. Found in skin tonsils and mucous membranes , stimulates histamines , and attracts eosinophils

225
Q

IgG

A

Anti-A and B foe ABo blood group . BCR predominant in 1st immune response

226
Q

Define somatic recombination

A

DNA shuffles and forms new combinations of base sequences to produce antibody genes

227
Q

True or false NKC Is a non-specific effector cell that can kill tumor cells and virus infected cells

A

True

228
Q

How is an NK cells unlike a cytotoxic t cell?

A

They do not need to recognize a specific antigen before being activated

229
Q

how are NK cells inhibited from killing a normal host cell?

A

they notice MHCself molecule on it

230
Q

How are NK cells and cytotoxic cells alike

A

They kill the same way (production of proforming protiens, enzymes, and toxic cytokines)

231
Q

How are microbes and tumers that down regulate MHC class 1 molecules get killed?

A

They are killed by NK cells because the T cells have no way of connecting to them

232
Q

Where were T lymphocytes “birthed”

A

Red bone marrow as undifferentiated stem cells

233
Q

Where do T lymphocytes mature ? How?

A

Thymus , Reticulo-endothelial cells secret thymosins to stimulate these T cells to produce surface antigen receptors . they then are immunocompetent

234
Q

True or false T cells are trained to recognize self from non self via MHC proteins

A

True

235
Q

Define clonal deletion

A

self-reactive cells are eliminated by macrophages

236
Q

Define anergy

A

cells that are non-reactive to self move on to medulla for further training

237
Q

Define naive lymphocytes

A

immunocompetent but have not encountered foreign antigen

238
Q

True or false Naive lymphocytes leave the thymus and colonize the various lymphatic tissues

A

True

239
Q

True or false helper T cells Plays a key role in humoral and nonspecific immunity

A

True

240
Q

Define Cytokines

A

short-acting soluble mediators of the immune system

241
Q

Only Killer T Cells directly attack enemy cells

A

True

242
Q

What are the 5 lethal hits a Killer T can do

A

Release perforin, a protein inserts into enemy plasma membrane, creates holes2. Lymphotoxinrelease: kills target cell by destroying DNA(protection from viral or cancer DNA)3. Tumor necrosis factor: kills cancer cells in 2-3 days4. Migration-inhibiting factorand Macrophage activating factor: lymphokines keeps macrophages in the area5. Release of interferon

243
Q

What do suppressor T cells do?

A

As pathogen disappears, slows down immune reaction

244
Q

True or false B cells Fight extracellular pathogens-not infected cells

A

True

245
Q

True or false without Helper T cells neither branch of immunity can be successful

A

True

246
Q

Define hypersensitivity (allergy )

A

Excessive immune reaction against antigens that most people tolerate

247
Q

Define Alloimmunity

A

Tissues transplanted from another person

248
Q

Define asthma

A

local inflammatory reaction to inhaled allergens

249
Q

Define Anaphylactic shock

A

immediate and severe wide spread acute hypersensitivity to allergens like bee stings, peanuts, shell fish,

250
Q

What happens to the body during anaphylactic shock

A

bronchiolar constriction, dyspnea, vasodilation, circulatory shock, death

251
Q

Why does epinephrine help anaphylactic shocks?

A

Dilates bronchioles, increase CO, and restores blood pressur

252
Q

Why does Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

To block effects of Histamine on the bronchial smooth muscle

253
Q

Whats type 1 hypersesitivity?

A

immediate , most common

254
Q

Whats type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

Transfusion and drug reactions, are an example

255
Q

Type 3 chypersensitivity ?

A

Widespread antigen-antibody complexingthat precipitate beneath the endotheliumof he blood vessels or other tissuesComplexes trigger intense inflammation and tissue destructio

256
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity

A

cell mediated reaction 12 to 72 hour delay

257
Q

What are the first symptoms of AIDs ?

A

flulike chills and fever and

Anatomy & physiology 102 (13 decks)

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