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Anatomy & physiology 102 > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main functions of blood?

A

Transportation, regulation, and protection

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2
Q

What 5 things does the blood transport ?

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients ,and hormones

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3
Q

What 3 things are regulated in the blood?

A

PH, temperature, and osmolality(influence of water content in the blood)

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4
Q

How does blood aid in protection?

A

Clotting mechanisms that stop blood loss via clotting and White cells travel in blood to fight microbes

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5
Q

What 2 main things are generally in blood?

A

plasma(clear extracellular fluid) and formed elements (blood cells and platelets)

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6
Q

If the osmolality of blood is incorrect what can it cause ?

A

High and Low blood pressure.

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7
Q

How does filtration pressure work?

A

outward movement provided by blood pressure

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8
Q

Inward movement of water into a blood vessel is determined by what ?

A

osmolality.

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9
Q

Describe colloid osmotic pressure

A

contribution of plasma proteins to total osmotic pressure

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10
Q

Define Hypoproteinemia

A

low blood protein concentration

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11
Q

What two signs appear with Hypoproteinemia?

A

Edema(more fluid to tissues than absorbed), and Ascites(fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity)

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12
Q

True or false males have more volume of blood then women?

A

True

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13
Q

What are the 3 main forms elements in blood?

A

Erythrocytes(red blood cells), Leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets.

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14
Q

What happens to the blood if you centrifuge it?

A

It will separates the plasma from the cells

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15
Q

What is hematocrit ? and what percentage should we have

A

% of total volume that are RBC , should be %45

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16
Q

What is the “buffy coat” when the blood is centrifuged ?

A

White blood cells and platelets

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17
Q

What are plasma proteins?

A

Proteins found and confined only in the blood

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18
Q

What protein consists of 55% of proteins in the plasma and what is its function?

A

Albumin and its job is to maintain water balance in the blood.

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19
Q

What protein carries antibodies from white blood cells?

A

Globulins , can be classified more

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20
Q

What is Fibrinogen?

A

soluble precursor of fibrin that functions in the blood clotting mechanisms along with platelets.

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21
Q

When blood clots what is the clear liquid resting on top?

A

Serum, plasma without the clotting factors(since the clotting factors were used)

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22
Q

What protein is the only one to be produce by plasma?

A

Globulin, all others are produced in the liver

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23
Q

What does plasma contain?

A

nitrogenous compounds, nutrients, O2, CO2, and electrolytes

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24
Q

True or false sodium makes up 90% of the plasma cations?

A

True , it accounts for the blood osmolarity than any other solute.

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25
Q

Define hemopoiesis

A

blood cell production

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26
Q

Which of these stops producing blood cells are birth Spleen, liver, or thymus ?

A

Liver, the others remain involved in WBC production

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27
Q

Where does lymphoid hemopoiesis occur?

A

Lymphoid tissues like thymus, tonsils, lymph nodes, spleen, and payers patch in intestines.

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28
Q

What three things does red bone marrow produce?

A

RBC, WBC, and platelets.

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29
Q

true or false stem cells AKA hemocytoblasts multiply continuously and are capable of differentiating into multiple different cells (pluripotent)

A

True

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30
Q

Define Erythrocyte

A

RBC

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31
Q

Describe the cycle of increasing RBC when its low and is causing Hypoxia

A

RBC low –> Kidneys release Erythropoietin (EPO) –> stimulates Red bone marrow to enhance Erythropoiesis –> increases RBC count and able to carry oxygen more efficiently

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32
Q

What kind of cycle , negative or positive, for Erythrocyte Homeostasis ?

A

Negative feedback because after it returns to homeostasis it stops

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33
Q

What are some stimulus for Erythropoiesis?

A

low levels of O2, increase in exercise, and hemorrhaging

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34
Q

Describe the cycle of platelets regulation by Thrombopoietin (TPO) When a person is low on platelets.

A

Kidney and liver release TPO –> TPO stimulates production of megakaryocytes in bone marrow –> megakaryocytes create platelets that have TPO receptors –> TPO receptors on platelets bring down TPO levels in blood and inhibit the action of TPO on target cells . (liver and kidney no longer get the signal to create more TPO cause TPO levels are down.

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35
Q

True or false Platelets contain a thrombopoietin receptor that binds and removes thrombopoietin from circulation

A

True

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36
Q

What do colony stimulating factors do?

A

bind to receptor protiens on the surface of hemopoietic stem cells and cause them to proliferate and differentiate into a specific kind of blood cell

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37
Q

All blood cells originate from hemopoietic cells, what is this called and what are the 5 types they differentiate into?

A

hemopoisis, they differentiate into erythrocytes, granulocytes, monocytes, lymphnocytes, platelets

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38
Q

Describe Erythrocyte production starting with its committed cell, Proerythroblast

A

Proerythroblast has receptors for EPO –> Becomes Erythroblasts that multiply and synthesize hemoglobin –> nucleus degenerates and form reticulocytes (1.5% circulating RBC’s) –> 3-5 days becomes erythrocyte

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39
Q

What conditions stimulates the acceleration of RBC production? HINT: reticulocyte count is high

A

Diseases where blood is destroyed prematurely, Spending extended amounts of time a high elevations, and Blood loss

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40
Q

Reticulocyte count is a blood test that measures what?

A

How rapidly immature RBC’s are made by the bone marrow and released into the blood stream

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41
Q

How does the reticulocyte count help monitor treatment for anemia ?

A

A higher reticulocyte count indicates that iron replacement treatment or other treatment to reverse the anemia is effective.

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42
Q

True or False Newborns have a normal reticulocyte count of 2.5% to 6.5% and drops within two weeks

A

True, It is high because the new born in making them from scratch and once it gets to the desired amount the reticulocyte count goes down to the normal amount

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43
Q

What does a high reticulocyte count indicate ?

A

Increase production of RBC’s by bone marrow (caused by bleeding), high elevation, and anemia that destroys RBC’s (Hemolysis)

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44
Q

What does a low reticulocyte count indicate?

A

Decreased production of red blood cells by the bone marrow (Aplastic Anemia), Exposure to radiation, chronic infection, medication that damages bone marrow

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45
Q

Define Anemia

A

Decreased number of RBC’s or Hemoglobin

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46
Q

Define Hypoxia

A

Cellular oxygen deficiency

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47
Q

Define Cyanosis

A

Bluish purple discoloration of skin as a result of hypoxia

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48
Q

What is needed in the stomach in order to absorb B12?

A

Intrinsic factor

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49
Q

True or False kidney cells that secrete EPO can detect low oxygen levels

A

True

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50
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

The small intestines (Duodenum)

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51
Q

True or False woman lose more iron than men ?

A

True

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52
Q

Dietary iron comes in 2 forms, Ferric (Fe+3) and Ferrous (Fe+2), which one are we able to absorb?

A

Ferrous (Fe+2)

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53
Q

What converts Fe+3 (Ferric) to absorbable Fe+2 (Ferrous)?

A

Stomach acid

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54
Q

How does Fe+2 (Ferrous) reach the blood stream where it is used by Bone marrow, Muscle, And cells?

A

It binds to Gastroferritin that transports it to the small intestines and then absorbed into the blood stream, There is binds to transferrin to travel to where its needed

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55
Q

True or False red blood cells are the only cell in the body that carries out anaerobic fermentation indefinitely

A

True

56
Q

Why do RBC’s have CAH (carbonic anhydrase)?

A

It is important in gas exchange, and is produces carbonic acid from CO2 and H20. Important in gas transport and PH balance in blood

57
Q

When do we have hemoglobin F?

A

During fetal development, binds oxygen more tightly to extract oxygen from mothers blood stream

58
Q

True or False Testosterone also enhances EPO synthesis

A

True

59
Q

Define Jaundice

A

yellowish coloration of the eye and skin due to the increase in the blood concentration of bilirubin

60
Q

How does UV light help treat Neonatal Juandice?

A

The ultraviolet light breaks down bilirubin into a form which the infant liver can process and excrete.

61
Q

Where are RBC’s broken down and recycled?

A

In your Spleen

62
Q

Where does Bilirubin come from ?

A

Macrophages in the spleen remove iron from Heme and converts it to Biliverdin and that to Bilirubin

63
Q

Whats wrong with the RBC’s in an Anemic person ?:

A

RBC’s are either too small or too few in number (heart and lung need to work harder)

64
Q

What are some effects of Anemia ?

A

Tissue hypoxia and necrosis, low blood osmolarity, low blood viscosity

65
Q

What are the 6 things accounted for in a CBC (complete blood count)?

A

RBC count, hematocrit, hemoglobin, WBC count, differential blood count, and platelet count

66
Q

Define Hematocrit

A

Measure of RBC mass (how many RBC’s are in the blood)

67
Q

Define Hemoglobin test

A

a measure of how much hemoglobin protein is in the blood

68
Q

Define Red blood cell count

A

measures the number of red blood cells presentin the blood

69
Q

Define Red blood cell indices

A

additional measurements of red blood cells based on the relationship of these three test results

70
Q

How do you compute the Mean corpuscular volume?

A

hematocrit divided by RBC and gives you theaverage volume of RBC

71
Q

How does the MCV categorizes RBC’s?

A

by size

72
Q

What are microcytic RBC’s?

A

small cells

73
Q

What are macrocytic RBC”s ?

A

larger cells

74
Q

What is anisocytosis? What is Poikilocytosis?

A

Variation in size in blood RBC’s; Variation in shape

75
Q

What are normocytic cells?

A

normal sized RBC’s

76
Q

What are cells called when they have a normal concentration of hemoglobin ? lower than normal concentration?

A

Normochromic, Hypochromic

77
Q

True or False there is a physical limit to the amount of hemoglobin that can fit in a cell which is why there is no hyperchromic category

A

True

78
Q

What is sickle-cell?

A

Hereditary Hb defect of African Americans. Their recessive allele modifies hemoglobin structure

79
Q

True or False HbS is indigestible to malaria parasites when victim has sickle cell

A

True, HbS turns to gel in low oxygen concentrations

80
Q

Define Thalassemia

A

hereditary Hb defectseen among people of Mediterraneanarea, deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin

81
Q

Thalassemia is a ______ problem of too few globinssynthesized, whereas sickle-cell disease is a ______of synthesis of a non-functioning globin.

A

Thalassemia, Quantitative problem

Sickle-cell is a Qualitative problem

82
Q

Which Thalassemia, Major or Minor, can cause death if left untreated?

A

Major, death within a few years

83
Q

What is leukopoiesis ?

A

White cell production

84
Q

These 3 committed cells have receptors for colony-stimulating-factors that are released by mature WBC’s in response to infection

A

B progenitors, T progenitors , and granulocyte colony-forming-units.

85
Q

Which of the lymphocytes leave the bone marrow prematurely and matures in the thyroid?

A

T-cells

86
Q

True or false circulating WBC’s do not stay in the bloodstream?

A

True

87
Q

Monocytes (wbc)will leave the bloodstream after 20 hours and become what? and after how long will they live?

A

They become macrophages and liver for several years !

88
Q

Which of the granulocytes also known as “segs, PMNs, or polys” is the most abundant in blood and is raised during bacterial infections ?

A

Neutrophil can be 60-70%

89
Q

Why are neutophils sometimes referred to as segs?

A

Because their nucleus appears to be segmented

90
Q

What are immature neutrophils that have just been released to the bloodstream known to be called?

A

“bands” or “stabs”

91
Q

Which of the granulocytes raise in count in parasitic infections or allergies?

A

Eosinophil

92
Q

Which of the granulocyte is the least abundant and raise in count during chicken pox, sinusitis, and diabetes?

A

Basophil

93
Q

Which of the Agranulocyte is kidney or horse shaped and raises in count in viral infections and inflammation ?

A

Monocyte

94
Q

What Agranulocyte raises in DIVERSE infections and immune responses ? Can destroy cancer and provide immune memory

A

Lymphocyte

95
Q

The Differential or “diff” test is reported in percentages. What is it measuring?

A

The percentage of each five types of WBC’s

96
Q

What are the 5 types of WBC’s that the Diff gives you percentages for?

A

bands/ stabs (baby segs), Neutrophil (segs) , Eosinophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes.

97
Q

What are the three granulocytes ?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophil

98
Q

What are the two agranulocytes ?

A

lymphacytes and monocytes

99
Q

What is the normal value for the total WBC count ?

A

4,500-10,000

100
Q

True or False Each differential always adds up to 100%.

A

True

101
Q

What is Leukopenia? What causes it?Effects?

A

Low WBC . Caused by radiation, poisons, infectious disease. The effect is elevated risk of infection.

102
Q

What is Leukocytosis? What causes is?

A

High WBC count . Caused by infectio, allergy and disease

103
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

Cancer of hemopoietic tissue

104
Q

True or false myeloid and lymphoid is uncontrolled WBC production.

A

True

105
Q

What are some effects of leukemia?

A

anemia, impaired clotting, subject to infection , and normal blood cell % impaired.

106
Q

What is important to remember about a patient taking corticosteriods that have an infection?

A

corticosteriods can mask sighns of leukocytosis (high WBC count) meaning their infection can worsen and only show a mini spike.

107
Q

Hemocytoblast that develop receptors for thrombopoietin from the liver or kidney become ?

A

megakaryoblast that replicates DNA without dividing and grow really large and splits off to create cell fragments that create platelets

108
Q

Define Polycythemia and what are the primary and secondary kind?

A

excess of RBC’s . Primary due to cancer . Secondary due to dehydration, high altitude, emphysema , high altitude, and physical conditioning.

109
Q

True or false RBC antigens(toxins) are called agglutinogens A & B

A

True

110
Q

True or false Plasma antibodies are called agglutinins anti-A, anti-B

A

True

111
Q

What blood type is the most common

A

Blood type 0

112
Q

What blood type is the most rare

A

Blood type AB

113
Q

True or false blood type A person has A agglutinogens, blood type B person has B agglutinogens, AB has both & blood type O has neither

A

True

114
Q

True or False Agglutinins appear in the plasma 2-8 months after birth & at maximum concentration at 10 yr.

A

True

115
Q

What is agglutination

A

clumping

116
Q

Anti-D agglutinins are not normally present in blood except when ____.

A

individuals are exposed to Rh+ blood

117
Q

Why women with RH- can have a normal 1st pregnancy but kill their second baby?

A

Cause their body will make agglutinins that will attack the baby if their blood is RH+.

118
Q

What is given to RH- pregnant women to prevent antibody formation that will kill their baby .

A

RhoGAM , it binds to fetal agglutinogens

119
Q

What is hemostasis

A

The control of bleeding

120
Q

What are platelets

A

small fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm

121
Q

What are the 3 main functions of Platelets

A

secrete clotting factors, growth factors for endothelial repair, and vasoconstrictors in broken vessels

122
Q

What are the three general steps to hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug in formation, and blood clotting.

123
Q

Define the vascular spasm and how its triggered ?

A

prompt constriction of a broken vessel. It is triggered by pain receptors, injury to smooth muscle, and serotonin released by platelets

124
Q

The inside of a blood vessel is coated with what platelet repellent to avoid clotting everywhere?

A

Prostacyclin

125
Q

What is the platelet plug?

A

platelet pseudopods stick to damaged vessel and other platelets –>pseudopods contract and draw walls of vessel together

126
Q

True or false platelets degranulate releasing a variety of substances

A

True , serorotonin. ADP, Thromboxane A2

127
Q

Is the blood clotting a positive or negative feedback ? when does it stop?

A

Positive feedback cycle is active until break in vessel is sealed

128
Q

In the blood there is a plasma protein called fibrinogen , what does it turn into that creates the framework for a clot?

A

insoluble fibrin threads

129
Q

Procoagulants or clotting factors are found where?

A

in the plasma in its inactive state

130
Q

What element is required for the coagulation in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

A

Calcium

131
Q

Fish Pop Through Fence is a neumonic for blood clotting, name the chemicals.

A

Factor X produces Prothrombin Activator–> Prothrombin Activator converts Prothrombin to Thrombin–> Thrombin converts Fibrinogen to Fibrin

132
Q

How does clot retraction begin?

A

pseudopods of platelets contract condensing the clot

133
Q

Platelet-derived growth factor is secreted by platelets & endothelial cells after a clot for what?

A

to stimulant for fibroblasts and smooth muscle to multiply & repair the damaged vessel

134
Q

What does Fibrinolysis do after a clot?

A

Breaks down the fibrin

135
Q

What is plasmin?

A

Clot buster , an enzyme that dissolves fibrin

136
Q

Define thrombosis

A

abnormal clotting in unbroken vessel

137
Q

Define embolism

A

unwanted clot traveling in a vessel

Anatomy & physiology 102 (13 decks)

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