Blood Flashcards
1
Q
What are the three main functions of blood?
A
Transportation, regulation, and protection
2
Q
What 5 things does the blood transport ?
A
oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients ,and hormones
3
Q
What 3 things are regulated in the blood?
A
PH, temperature, and osmolality(influence of water content in the blood)
4
Q
How does blood aid in protection?
A
Clotting mechanisms that stop blood loss via clotting and White cells travel in blood to fight microbes
5
Q
What 2 main things are generally in blood?
A
plasma(clear extracellular fluid) and formed elements (blood cells and platelets)
6
Q
If the osmolality of blood is incorrect what can it cause ?
A
High and Low blood pressure.
7
Q
How does filtration pressure work?
A
outward movement provided by blood pressure
8
Q
Inward movement of water into a blood vessel is determined by what ?
A
osmolality.
9
Q
Describe colloid osmotic pressure
A
contribution of plasma proteins to total osmotic pressure
10
Q
Define Hypoproteinemia
A
low blood protein concentration
11
Q
What two signs appear with Hypoproteinemia?
A
Edema(more fluid to tissues than absorbed), and Ascites(fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity)
12
Q
True or false males have more volume of blood then women?
A
True
13
Q
What are the 3 main forms elements in blood?
A
Erythrocytes(red blood cells), Leukocytes (white blood cells), and platelets.
14
Q
What happens to the blood if you centrifuge it?
A
It will separates the plasma from the cells
15
Q
What is hematocrit ? and what percentage should we have
A
% of total volume that are RBC , should be %45
16
Q
What is the “buffy coat” when the blood is centrifuged ?
A
White blood cells and platelets
17
Q
What are plasma proteins?
A
Proteins found and confined only in the blood
18
Q
What protein consists of 55% of proteins in the plasma and what is its function?
A
Albumin and its job is to maintain water balance in the blood.
19
Q
What protein carries antibodies from white blood cells?
A
Globulins , can be classified more
20
Q
What is Fibrinogen?
A
soluble precursor of fibrin that functions in the blood clotting mechanisms along with platelets.
21
Q
When blood clots what is the clear liquid resting on top?
A
Serum, plasma without the clotting factors(since the clotting factors were used)
22
Q
What protein is the only one to be produce by plasma?
A
Globulin, all others are produced in the liver
23
Q
What does plasma contain?
A
nitrogenous compounds, nutrients, O2, CO2, and electrolytes
24
Q
True or false sodium makes up 90% of the plasma cations?
A
True , it accounts for the blood osmolarity than any other solute.
25
Define hemopoiesis
blood cell production
26
Which of these stops producing blood cells are birth Spleen, liver, or thymus ?
Liver, the others remain involved in WBC production
27
Where does lymphoid hemopoiesis occur?
Lymphoid tissues like thymus, tonsils, lymph nodes, spleen, and payers patch in intestines.
28
What three things does red bone marrow produce?
RBC, WBC, and platelets.
29
true or false stem cells AKA hemocytoblasts multiply continuously and are capable of differentiating into multiple different cells (pluripotent)
True
30
Define Erythrocyte
RBC
31
Describe the cycle of increasing RBC when its low and is causing Hypoxia
RBC low --> Kidneys release Erythropoietin (EPO) --> stimulates Red bone marrow to enhance Erythropoiesis --> increases RBC count and able to carry oxygen more efficiently
32
What kind of cycle , negative or positive, for Erythrocyte Homeostasis ?
Negative feedback because after it returns to homeostasis it stops
33
What are some stimulus for Erythropoiesis?
low levels of O2, increase in exercise, and hemorrhaging
34
Describe the cycle of platelets regulation by Thrombopoietin (TPO) When a person is low on platelets.
Kidney and liver release TPO --> TPO stimulates production of megakaryocytes in bone marrow --> megakaryocytes create platelets that have TPO receptors --> TPO receptors on platelets bring down TPO levels in blood and inhibit the action of TPO on target cells . (liver and kidney no longer get the signal to create more TPO cause TPO levels are down.
35
True or false Platelets contain a thrombopoietin receptor that binds and removes thrombopoietin from circulation
True
36
What do colony stimulating factors do?
bind to receptor protiens on the surface of hemopoietic stem cells and cause them to proliferate and differentiate into a specific kind of blood cell
37
All blood cells originate from hemopoietic cells, what is this called and what are the 5 types they differentiate into?
hemopoisis, they differentiate into erythrocytes, granulocytes, monocytes, lymphnocytes, platelets
38
Describe Erythrocyte production starting with its committed cell, Proerythroblast
Proerythroblast has receptors for EPO --> Becomes Erythroblasts that multiply and synthesize hemoglobin --> nucleus degenerates and form reticulocytes (1.5% circulating RBC's) --> 3-5 days becomes erythrocyte
39
What conditions stimulates the acceleration of RBC production? HINT: reticulocyte count is high
Diseases where blood is destroyed prematurely, Spending extended amounts of time a high elevations, and Blood loss
40
Reticulocyte count is a blood test that measures what?
How rapidly immature RBC's are made by the bone marrow and released into the blood stream
41
How does the reticulocyte count help monitor treatment for anemia ?
A higher reticulocyte count indicates that iron replacement treatment or other treatment to reverse the anemia is effective.
42
True or False Newborns have a normal reticulocyte count of 2.5% to 6.5% and drops within two weeks
True, It is high because the new born in making them from scratch and once it gets to the desired amount the reticulocyte count goes down to the normal amount
43
What does a high reticulocyte count indicate ?
Increase production of RBC's by bone marrow (caused by bleeding), high elevation, and anemia that destroys RBC's (Hemolysis)
44
What does a low reticulocyte count indicate?
Decreased production of red blood cells by the bone marrow (Aplastic Anemia), Exposure to radiation, chronic infection, medication that damages bone marrow
45
Define Anemia
Decreased number of RBC's or Hemoglobin
46
Define Hypoxia
Cellular oxygen deficiency
47
Define Cyanosis
Bluish purple discoloration of skin as a result of hypoxia
48
What is needed in the stomach in order to absorb B12?
Intrinsic factor
49
True or False kidney cells that secrete EPO can detect low oxygen levels
True
50
Where is iron absorbed?
The small intestines (Duodenum)
51
True or False woman lose more iron than men ?
True
52
Dietary iron comes in 2 forms, Ferric (Fe+3) and Ferrous (Fe+2), which one are we able to absorb?
Ferrous (Fe+2)
53
What converts Fe+3 (Ferric) to absorbable Fe+2 (Ferrous)?
Stomach acid
54
How does Fe+2 (Ferrous) reach the blood stream where it is used by Bone marrow, Muscle, And cells?
It binds to Gastroferritin that transports it to the small intestines and then absorbed into the blood stream, There is binds to transferrin to travel to where its needed
55
True or False red blood cells are the only cell in the body that carries out anaerobic fermentation indefinitely
True
56
Why do RBC's have CAH (carbonic anhydrase)?
It is important in gas exchange, and is produces carbonic acid from CO2 and H20. Important in gas transport and PH balance in blood
57
When do we have hemoglobin F?
During fetal development, binds oxygen more tightly to extract oxygen from mothers blood stream
58
True or False Testosterone also enhances EPO synthesis
True
59
Define Jaundice
yellowish coloration of the eye and skin due to the increase in the blood concentration of bilirubin
60
How does UV light help treat Neonatal Juandice?
The ultraviolet light breaks down bilirubin into a form which the infant liver can process and excrete.
61
Where are RBC's broken down and recycled?
In your Spleen
62
Where does Bilirubin come from ?
Macrophages in the spleen remove iron from Heme and converts it to Biliverdin and that to Bilirubin
63
Whats wrong with the RBC's in an Anemic person ?:
RBC's are either too small or too few in number (heart and lung need to work harder)
64
What are some effects of Anemia ?
Tissue hypoxia and necrosis, low blood osmolarity, low blood viscosity
65
What are the 6 things accounted for in a CBC (complete blood count)?
RBC count, hematocrit, hemoglobin, WBC count, differential blood count, and platelet count
66
Define Hematocrit
Measure of RBC mass (how many RBC's are in the blood)
67
Define Hemoglobin test
a measure of how much hemoglobin protein is in the blood
68
Define Red blood cell count
measures the number of red blood cells presentin the blood
69
Define Red blood cell indices
additional measurements of red blood cells based on the relationship of these three test results
70
How do you compute the Mean corpuscular volume?
hematocrit divided by RBC and gives you theaverage volume of RBC
71
How does the MCV categorizes RBC's?
by size
72
What are microcytic RBC's?
small cells
73
What are macrocytic RBC"s ?
larger cells
74
What is anisocytosis? What is Poikilocytosis?
Variation in size in blood RBC's; Variation in shape
75
What are normocytic cells?
normal sized RBC's
76
What are cells called when they have a normal concentration of hemoglobin ? lower than normal concentration?
Normochromic, Hypochromic
77
True or False there is a physical limit to the amount of hemoglobin that can fit in a cell which is why there is no hyperchromic category
True
78
What is sickle-cell?
Hereditary Hb defect of African Americans. Their recessive allele modifies hemoglobin structure
79
True or False HbS is indigestible to malaria parasites when victim has sickle cell
True, HbS turns to gel in low oxygen concentrations
80
Define Thalassemia
hereditary Hb defectseen among people of Mediterraneanarea, deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin
81
Thalassemia is a ______ problem of too few globinssynthesized, whereas sickle-cell disease is a ______of synthesis of a non-functioning globin.
Thalassemia, Quantitative problem
| Sickle-cell is a Qualitative problem
82
Which Thalassemia, Major or Minor, can cause death if left untreated?
Major, death within a few years
83
What is leukopoiesis ?
White cell production
84
These 3 committed cells have receptors for colony-stimulating-factors that are released by mature WBC's in response to infection
B progenitors, T progenitors , and granulocyte colony-forming-units.
85
Which of the lymphocytes leave the bone marrow prematurely and matures in the thyroid?
T-cells
86
True or false circulating WBC's do not stay in the bloodstream?
True
87
Monocytes (wbc)will leave the bloodstream after 20 hours and become what? and after how long will they live?
They become macrophages and liver for several years !
88
Which of the granulocytes also known as "segs, PMNs, or polys" is the most abundant in blood and is raised during bacterial infections ?
Neutrophil can be 60-70%
89
Why are neutophils sometimes referred to as segs?
Because their nucleus appears to be segmented
90
What are immature neutrophils that have just been released to the bloodstream known to be called?
"bands" or "stabs"
91
Which of the granulocytes raise in count in parasitic infections or allergies?
Eosinophil
92
Which of the granulocyte is the least abundant and raise in count during chicken pox, sinusitis, and diabetes?
Basophil
93
Which of the Agranulocyte is kidney or horse shaped and raises in count in viral infections and inflammation ?
Monocyte
94
What Agranulocyte raises in DIVERSE infections and immune responses ? Can destroy cancer and provide immune memory
Lymphocyte
95
The Differential or "diff" test is reported in percentages. What is it measuring?
The percentage of each five types of WBC's
96
What are the 5 types of WBC's that the Diff gives you percentages for?
bands/ stabs (baby segs), Neutrophil (segs) , Eosinophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes.
97
What are the three granulocytes ?
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophil
98
What are the two agranulocytes ?
lymphacytes and monocytes
99
What is the normal value for the total WBC count ?
4,500-10,000
100
True or False Each differential always adds up to 100%.
True
101
What is Leukopenia? What causes it?Effects?
Low WBC . Caused by radiation, poisons, infectious disease. The effect is elevated risk of infection.
102
What is Leukocytosis? What causes is?
High WBC count . Caused by infectio, allergy and disease
103
What is Leukemia?
Cancer of hemopoietic tissue
104
True or false myeloid and lymphoid is uncontrolled WBC production.
True
105
What are some effects of leukemia?
anemia, impaired clotting, subject to infection , and normal blood cell % impaired.
106
What is important to remember about a patient taking corticosteriods that have an infection?
corticosteriods can mask sighns of leukocytosis (high WBC count) meaning their infection can worsen and only show a mini spike.
107
Hemocytoblast that develop receptors for thrombopoietin from the liver or kidney become ?
megakaryoblast that replicates DNA without dividing and grow really large and splits off to create cell fragments that create platelets
108
Define Polycythemia and what are the primary and secondary kind?
excess of RBC's . Primary due to cancer . Secondary due to dehydration, high altitude, emphysema , high altitude, and physical conditioning.
109
True or false RBC antigens(toxins) are called agglutinogens A & B
True
110
True or false Plasma antibodies are called agglutinins anti-A, anti-B
True
111
What blood type is the most common
Blood type 0
112
What blood type is the most rare
Blood type AB
113
True or false blood type A person has A agglutinogens, blood type B person has B agglutinogens, AB has both & blood type O has neither
True
114
True or False Agglutinins appear in the plasma 2-8 months after birth & at maximum concentration at 10 yr.
True
115
What is agglutination
clumping
116
Anti-D agglutinins are not normally present in blood except when ____.
individuals are exposed to Rh+ blood
117
Why women with RH- can have a normal 1st pregnancy but kill their second baby?
Cause their body will make agglutinins that will attack the baby if their blood is RH+.
118
What is given to RH- pregnant women to prevent antibody formation that will kill their baby .
RhoGAM , it binds to fetal agglutinogens
119
What is hemostasis
The control of bleeding
120
What are platelets
small fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm
121
What are the 3 main functions of Platelets
secrete clotting factors, growth factors for endothelial repair, and vasoconstrictors in broken vessels
122
What are the three general steps to hemostasis?
Vascular spasm, platelet plug in formation, and blood clotting.
123
Define the vascular spasm and how its triggered ?
prompt constriction of a broken vessel. It is triggered by pain receptors, injury to smooth muscle, and serotonin released by platelets
124
The inside of a blood vessel is coated with what platelet repellent to avoid clotting everywhere?
Prostacyclin
125
What is the platelet plug?
platelet pseudopods stick to damaged vessel and other platelets -->pseudopods contract and draw walls of vessel together
126
True or false platelets degranulate releasing a variety of substances
True , serorotonin. ADP, Thromboxane A2
127
Is the blood clotting a positive or negative feedback ? when does it stop?
Positive feedback cycle is active until break in vessel is sealed
128
In the blood there is a plasma protein called fibrinogen , what does it turn into that creates the framework for a clot?
insoluble fibrin threads
129
Procoagulants or clotting factors are found where?
in the plasma in its inactive state
130
What element is required for the coagulation in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?
Calcium
131
Fish Pop Through Fence is a neumonic for blood clotting, name the chemicals.
Factor X produces Prothrombin Activator--> Prothrombin Activator converts Prothrombin to Thrombin--> Thrombin converts Fibrinogen to Fibrin
132
How does clot retraction begin?
pseudopods of platelets contract condensing the clot
133
Platelet-derived growth factor is secreted by platelets & endothelial cells after a clot for what?
to stimulant for fibroblasts and smooth muscle to multiply & repair the damaged vessel
134
What does Fibrinolysis do after a clot?
Breaks down the fibrin
135
What is plasmin?
Clot buster , an enzyme that dissolves fibrin
136
Define thrombosis
abnormal clotting in unbroken vessel
137
Define embolism
unwanted clot traveling in a vessel
