LIs For Mid-Semester Test Consolidation Flashcards

1
Q

Encephalitis causes

A
  • Infective (viral, bacterial, parasitic, fungal). Most are viral: herpes, Ross River, Murray River, rabies
  • Autoimmune (aetiology unknown)
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2
Q

Infectious encephalitis clinical features, over time

A
  • Initially, flu like: headache, fever, fatigue
  • Later: stiff neck, confusion, seizures, loss of consciousness
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3
Q

Autoimmune encephalitis clinical features

A
  • Memory loss
  • Seizures (like infectious)
  • Personality changes
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4
Q

Encephalitis investigations

A
  • Brain imaging
  • Lumbar puncture
  • EEG
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5
Q

Encephalitis complications

A

For months/years+ afterward:
- Memory problems
- Persistent fatigue
- Hearing/vision problems

Can also result in coma and death.

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6
Q

Cerebral abscess causes (what kinds of infection?)

A
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
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7
Q

Cerebral abscess clinical features

A
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Seizures
  • Nausea/vomiting
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8
Q

Cerebral abscess investigations

A
  • CT/MRI
  • Blood tests for infection (CBC, ESR, CRP)
  • Biopsy (rarer)
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9
Q

Cerebral abscess complications

A

Longer term:
- Neurological problems (e.g. memory, sensory, motor loss)

Can also result in death.

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10
Q

Stage vs grade of tumour — basic definitions

A
  • Grade: appearance of the tumour cells; how well differentiated?
  • Stage: size, location, and degree of spread.
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11
Q

What is the common grading system for tumour staging?

A
  • TNM; Tumour, Nodes, Metastases
  • Size/extent of tumour?
  • Presence/extent of lymph node involvement?
  • Presence/absence of metastases?
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12
Q

Recall the pnemonic for the different types of seizures

A

M CASTING (for mid-level actors):

M: Metabolic
C: Cortical malformation
A: Autoimmune
S: Stroke/vascular
T: Tumour
I: Infectious
N: Neurodegeneration
G: Genetic

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13
Q

Describe the vascular supply of the spinal cord. Where do each of these arteries originate?

A
  • Anterior spinal: originates from two vertebral arteries, near their join
  • Posterior spinal (2x): originates lower down the vertebral arteries
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14
Q

Which area of the spinal cord is supplied blood by which arteries?

A

Anterior 2/3: Anterior spinal artery
Posterior 1/3: Posterior spinal arteries

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15
Q

Explain how descending pathways from the brain can modulate spinal reflexes

A
  • Can modulate directly, or indirectly (i.e. by altering interneuron activity)
  • For instance, it can move your hand away from a hot object faster, or can inhibit reflexes when fine motor control is needed
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16
Q

How can proprioceptive feedback modulate reflexes?

A
  • Golgi tendons/muscle spindles have their own reflexes, remember?
  • They directly alter the activity of alpha motor neurons, influencing extrafusal muscle fibre contraction
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17
Q

What are the different kinds of intraocular muscle?

A
  • Pupillary sphincter
  • Pupillary dilator
  • Ciliary muscle
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18
Q

CN III anatomical course

A

Exits brainstem ventrally, just caudal to the mammillary bodies. Heads up to eye, exiting skull through superior orbital fissure.

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19
Q

CN IV anatomical course

A
  • Exits brainstem just caudal to the inferior colliculi
  • Decussates, and heads up the ventral aspect of the brainstem
  • Enters orbit via superior orbital fissure
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20
Q

CN VI anatomical course

A
  • Emerges from pons, and travels up the ventral aspect of the brainstem
  • Enters orbit through superior orbital fissure
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21
Q

CN V anatomical course

A
  • Exits brainstem at mid-pons level
  • Forms trigeminal ganglion, before branching off into V1, V2, and V3
  • V1: Opthalmic (superior orbital fissure)
  • V2: Maxillary (foramen rotunda)
  • V3: Mandibular (fossa ovalis)

(Note: motor components joins V3, which is why it is bigger and hence oval shaped)

(Three nuclei: mesencephalic, pontine, spinal)

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22
Q

CN VII anatomical course

A
  • Many, many brainstem nuclei
  • Emerges at pontomedullary junction
  • Exit skull via internal auditory meatus
  • Sensory and para. exit facial canal
  • Motor exits via stylomastoid foramen (what are its areas of the face?)
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23
Q

CN III function

A

Motor: Extraocular muscles (incl. levator palpebrae superioris; minus sup. oblique and lateral rectus)

Parasympathetic: Pupillary sphincter muscle (inner). Accommodation (ciliary muscle)

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24
Q

CN IV function

A

Motor: Controls contralateral superior oblique

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25
CN V Function
Motor: pterygoid, temporalis, mandible (mastication) Sensory: touch, temperature, pain, and proprioception of face, mouth, nasal cavity, and cranial dura
26
CN VI function
Motor: ipsilateral lateral rectus
27
CN VII function
Motor: muscles of facial expression (what are the five branches?) Parasympathetic: parotid glands Sensory: external auditory meatus, tympanic membrane, and external ear (pinna) Special sensory: taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
28
Explain the difference in patience presentation between bells palsy and stroke
Bell's Palsy: not able to move eyebrow, distal to decussation. Linked to nerve damage. Stroke: damage occurs within brain parenchyma, upstream from decussation. Ipsilateral lower facial motor loss. Worse.
29
CN III palsy
- Eye is down and out (two remaining muscles) - Pupil is dilated (no para. input) - Eyelid is drooped (no levator palpebrae superioris)
30
CN IV Palsy
- Eye is deviated upward inward (no superior olbique) - Compensatory head tilt away from affected eye
31
CN V Palsy
- Sensory loss in face, ant 2/3 of tongue, cranial dura - Motor loss in muscles of mastication (what are they?) - When mouth is opened, jaw deviates towards affect side
32
CN VI Palsy
- Eye is deviated inward (no lat. rectus) - Diplopia
33
CN VII Palsy
- Motor loss in face - Loss of salivation/tongue sensation if proximal to splitting of CN VII (parotid is preserved)
34
CN VIII Function
Special Sensory: Balance and hearing
35
CN IX Function
Motor: Minor role in elevating larynx and pharynx during swallowing Para.: Parotid glands Sensory: Anterior 2/3 of tongue Special Sensory: Taste of anterior 2/3 of tongue Visceral Sensory: Carotid bodies
36
CN X Function
Motor: Pharynx, soft palate, and larynx (speaking and swallowing) Para: Heart, GI tract, trachea Sensory: Larynx and laryngopharynx Special Sensory: Taste at root of tongue
37
CN XI Function
Motor: Upper Trapezius and SCM
38
CN XII Function
Motor: Extrinsic (positioning) and intrinsic (movement) muscles of tongue
39
CN VIII anatomical course
- Arises from vestibular nuclei and cochlear nuclei (bipolar) - Leaves skull at internal acoustic meatus - Cell bodies found in spiral (hearing) and vestibular (balance) ganglia; other pole synapses on cochlea/vestibular apparatus separately
40
CN IX/X anatomical course
- Arise from a series of many brainstem nuclei - Exit skull and connect with effector after leaving the skull through the jugular foramen
41
CN XI anatomical course
- Spinal portion arises from C1-C5 - Cranial portion joins CN X - Enters via foramen magnum; exits via jugular foramen
42
CN XII anatomical course
- Arises from hypoglossal nucleus in medulla - Exits skull via hypoglossal canal
43
CN VIII palsy
- Nystagmus - Tinnitus - Vertigo - Sensorineural hearing loss
44
Which nerves control the sensory/motor arms of the gag reflex
Sensory: CN IX Motor: CN X
45
CN IX/X palsy
Uvula deviates away from affected side when (say "aah")
46
Peripheral vs central vertigo
Peripheral: Inner ear/vestibular nerve Central: Brain/Brainstem
47
Causes of central vertigo
Vascular: - Posterior circulation stroke - Vertebrobasilar insufficiency (usually atherosclerotic) Other: - Multiple sclerosis - Tumour
48
Causes of peripheral vertigo
- Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo - Meniere's disease (triad; vertigo, tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss) - Vestibular neuronitis/labrynthitis
49
What are some causes for non-vertiginous dizziness?
Cardio: - MI - Arrhythmia - Aortic stenosis - Pulmonary embolism Neuro: - Normal pressure hydrocephalus (remember the lady who fell over while gardening?) Other: - Hypoglycaemia - Drug related
50
Describe the presenting features of Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Recurrent, brief attacks of positional vertigo.
51
Explain the pathophysiology of primary open angle glaucoma
- Increased resistance to outflow of aqueous humour from the trabecular meshwork - Increased intraocular pressure - Retinal ganglion cell death (and therefore optic neuropathy)
52
Explain the pathophysiology of acute angle closure glaucoma
- "Pupillary block" - Lens pushes out on iris, decreasing the angle of the trabecular meshwork - Decreased aqueous humour outflow - Increased intraocular pressure - Ganglion cell death (and therefore optic neuropathy)
53
What is the common thread amongst all "Glaucoma"s?
A group of diseases whereby vision is lost due to damage of the optic nerve.
54
Guillain Barre symptoms
- Classically: ascending weakness - Paraesthesia in fingers/hands/toes/feet - Respiratory issues (if resp muscles affected) - Facial weakness/sensory loss (remember: CNs are part of the peripheral nervous system) - Autonomic dysfunction
55
What are some possible causes of GBS?
- Viral infection (e.g. EBV) - Bacterial infection (e.g. camylobacter jejuni) - Vaccination - Surgery (?Molecular mimicry)
56
GBS investigations
- Lumbar puncture - EMG
57
GBS lumbar puncture results
Increased protein; normal white blood cell count.
58
GBS EMG findings
Abnormal nerve conduction (makes sense)
59
GBS treatment
- Intubation/ventilation if required - Plasmapheresis (filter out plasma, and therefore autoantibodies) - IvIg; introduction of healthy antibodies to dilute autoantibodies
60
Complications of GBS
- Respiratory muscle paralysis (respiratory failure/pneumonia) - DVT leading to PE (immobilization)
61
Broadly, describe prion diseases
- Prions are a type of protein that can trigger normal proteins to fold abnormally. - Prion diseases refer to the accumulation of these prions in the brain (e.g. CJD = Mad cow disease)
62
Describe the three classes of structural filaments in a neuron, and their functions
- Neurofilament (main structural protein) - Microtubule (cellular transport pathway) - Actin filament (regulates neuronal shape change)
63
What investigations do we perform in a patient who has lost consciousness?
- Bloods (EUC/LFT, creatinine; kidney, glucose; hypoglycaemia) - Blood gas (check for respiratory failure) - CXR - ECG (cardiac causes) - CT/MRI of head (tumour/stroke/herniation/haemorrhage etc.) - Lumbar puncture (infection) - Toxicology
64
Describe the role of SCI rehabilitation
- Return patient to highest level of function possible - Help assist with activities of daily living; as independent as possible - Support family, make adjustments to living environment
65
Only lesions proximal to the ___ can cause unilateral hearing loss. Why?
- Proximal to the cochlear nuclei - This is because, once the nerves reach the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei, projections are bilateral
66
What are the dorsal cochlear projections responsible for? Describe the pathway.
- Responsible for quality of sound - Cochlear nerve synapses on dorsal cochlear nuclei - Crosses at pontine tegmentum, and ascends in lateral lemniscus (not medial, which is DCML) - Synapses on inferior colliculus - Passes through brachium of inferior colliculus, and heads to MGN of thalamus - Then to primary auditory cortex
67
What are the ventral cochlear projections responsible for? Describe the pathway.
- Responsible for timing of sound - Cochlear nerve synapses at ventral cochlear nuclei - Fibres continue bilaterally (some crossing at trapexoid body) to superior olivary nucleus (remember climbing fibres? they're just downstairs in the inf. olivary nucleus) From here, pathway is same as dorsal: - Lateral lemniscus to inferior colliculus - IC brachium to MGN of thalamus - Primary auditory cortex
68
Draw the direct/consensual light reflex pathway
https://lh3.googleusercontent.com/proxy/f5wJ0AZeLB_wsTHeLiliVVh3QjE2KM35XjnUfxIqlJlz8W1GwExUEu-2eh-xyCnbOLw4r7OwSepAfbmYhoXhhL-JqvmH7GtvVMOWYcoKXz4NMyu0loP-AAiwYs3lIReq_eJKpixgzKcf4VbB
69
What is another name for the piriform cortex?
Primary olfactory cortex!