Lecture 5- Fetal period Flashcards

1
Q

Placenta- What does the endometrium consist of that comes from mom

A

Epithelium & vascularized stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Placenta- what does from maternal stroma differentiate into

A

Decidua

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Placenta- What is the maternal part of the placenta

A

Decidual basalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Placenta- What is the fetal part of the placenta

A

The chorionic plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Placenta- what does the chorionic plate derive from

A

Cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast, and parietal extraembryonic mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the bilaminar disc composed of

A

Hypoblast, Epiblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the decidua basalis

A

Between the embryo and myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 parts of the placenta

A

Decidua basalis (maternal), villus chorion (fetal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does the placenta separate from the uterine wall

A

After delivery of the baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify red box on top only

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the endometrium called the decidua

A

When fibroblastic stromal cells of endometrium swell into decidual cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the area of the decidua basalis that is most intimately connected with the fetal parts

A

Decidual plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify bottom arrows

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the chorionic plate consist of

A

Parietal EEM, cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What projections from the chorionic plate increase surface area for exchange

A

Chorionic villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most mature developmental stage of a chorionic villus containing fetal capillaries derived from parietal EEM?

A

Tertiary villus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do chorionic villi anchor to

A

Chorionic plate and cytotrophoblast shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What covers the top part of the placenta

A

Cytotrophoblastic shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most efficient at gas transport

A

Fetal endothelium and syncytiotrophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the placental barrier block

A

Large complex molecules, peptide hormones, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the placental barrier allow to cross

A

Gas/nutrients/waste, steroid hormones, some antibodies, medications/ drugs (alcohol), viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can the passage of an Rh antigen cause

A

Hemolytic disease of newborn (erythroblastosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is it called when the placenta covers the cervix

A

Placenta previa

24
Q

How do you diagnose placenta previa

A

Ultrasound

25
What is placenta accreta?
Attachment to the myometrium
26
What is placenta increta
Invasion of the myometrium
27
What is placenta percreta
Growth through the uterus to adjacent organs of the body
28
Rate the placenta accretas in order from least to worst
Accreta, increta, percreta
29
What does the umbilical cord contain
1 vein (blood to fetus), 2 arteries (blood to placenta), stalk of yolk sac, allantois
30
By week 12 amnion and chorion contact and fuse into _____
Amniochorionic membrane (ACM)
31
Rate the placenta accretas in order from least to worst
Accreta, increta, percreta
32
Define PROM (premature rupture of the membranes)
Rupture of the ACM before uterine contractions begin
33
Define preterm PROM (PPROM)
ACM ruptures prior to 37 weeks of pregnancy. PPROM is a common cause of preterm labor
34
Define Polyhydramnios
Excessive amniotic fluid volume caused by GI malformations preventing fetus from swallowing
35
Define oligohydramnios
Low amniotic fluid volume linked to PROM or renal issues preventing urination
36
What causes increased occurrences of twinning
Increased maternal age, ARTs (assisted reproductive technologies)
37
Dizygotic twins are called what
Fraternal twins
38
Why do dizygotic twins have unique DNA
Because of the simultaneous shedding of 2 oocytes each fertilized by a different sperm
39
What are 2 characteristics of a dichorionic/ diamniotic (DCDA) twins
Each twin has their own chorion/ placenta and amnion
40
What kind of twins is this
Dizygotic
41
What is another term for monozygotic twins
Identical twins
42
Monozygotic twins originate from what
From single zygote that can split at various stages of development
43
What are characteristics of Dichorionic / diamnionic (DCDA)
▪ Split at two-cell stage, leading to two blastocysts ▪ Each twin has own chorion/placenta and amnion
44
What are characteristics of Monochorionic / diamnionic (MCDA)
Embryoblast (inner cell mass) splits into two ▪ Shared chorion/placenta but separate amnions ▪ Most common
45
What are characteristics of Monochorionic / monoamnionic (MCMA)
▪Early bilaminar disc splits ▪Shared chorion/placenta and amnion
46
Identify each set of twins
47
How many weeks is a full-term pregnancy
38 weeks fertilization age, (40 weeks gestational age, as determined by LNMP)
48
When does the rupture of fetal membranes occur
At full-term or during labor
49
What can a transabdominal ultrasound assess
Measures fetus, assess placenta, estimate fetal mass to test for intrauterine growth restriction (poor outcomes for fetus with very low weight)
50
What can a maternal serum screening assess
Triple screen test (must also confirm with amniocentesis) ▪ Organ defects ▪ Molar pregnancy ▪ Ectopic implantation ▪ Hormone deficiencies ▪ Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21)
51
Ultrasound- guided needle sampling is called what
Amniocentesis (amniotic fluid test)
52
What does US guided needle sampling (amniocentesis) test for
▪ Low risk to fetus ▪ Fluid contains fetal cells, proteins, hormones, metabolites that can be analyzed
53
What does maternal serum screening test-(Cell-free fetal DNA)
Sex of baby, downs syndrome
54
What does maternal serum screening test for
Sex of fetus, downs syndrome
55
What does an endoscopic (fetoscopy) exam test for
▪ Very invasive ▪ Reserved for extreme cases
56
What is one downside of a maternal serum screening (triple screen test)
Lots of false positives