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LEC3 - REVIEW OF BASIC SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble
complexes that are visible

A

Precipitation

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2
Q

the most efficient Ig for precipitation

A

IgG

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3
Q

is the process by which particulate antigens aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody
is present.

A

Agglutination

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4
Q

most efficient in agglutination

A

IgM

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5
Q

antigens mainly found on
the surface of a particles. These particles can be
naturally or synthetically attached to a carrier
particle.

A

particulate antigen

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6
Q

IgG can also perform this but it needs to be
incubated at ____* C to enhance the agglutination
reaction

A

37

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7
Q

it is the visible aggregation of particles caused by combination with specific antibody

A

agglutination

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8
Q

Antibodies that produce such agglutination are often
called
____.

A

agglutinins

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9
Q

Agglutination involves a two-step process:
___ and ___

A

Sensitization and then Lattice Formation

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10
Q

Types of particles participating in agglutination
include ___

A

erythrocytes, bacterial cells, and inert carriers
such as latex particles.

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11
Q

Agglutination reactions can be classified into several
distinct categories:

A

o Direct agglutination
o Passive Agglutination
o Reverse Passive agglutination
o Agglutination Inhibition
o Coagglutination
o AHG-Mediated Agglutination

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12
Q

the most important category among the Agglutination reactions categories is the

A

AHG mediated agglutination

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13
Q

the initial interaction between antigen and antibody

A

sensitization

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14
Q

will there be a complex formed in sensitization?

A

none

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15
Q

is there a stability formed between the antigen and antibody interaction in sensitization stage?

A

alaws pa po

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16
Q

The first reaction involves antigen–antibody
combination through SINGLE antigenic determinants on
the particle surface

A

sensitization

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17
Q

a step of agglutination wherein it’s about the Initial binding. No complex formed

A

sensitization

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18
Q

Sum of interactions between antibody and multiple
antigenic determinants on a particle

A

Lattice formation or formation of large aggregates

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19
Q

Antibody must be able to bridge the gap between cells
in such a way that one molecule can bind to a site on
each of two different cells.

A

Lattice formation

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20
Q

Erythrocytes and bacterial cells have a slight negative
surface charge, and because like charges tend to
repel one another, it is difficult to bring such cells
together into lattice formation.

true or false

A

true

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21
Q

where there is a distance
between RBCs and bacterial cells

A

Zeta potential

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22
Q

a normal distance of rbc from each other and other cells that keeps them away from each other – repelling

A

25 nm apart

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23
Q

IgM with a potential valence of 10 is over _______
times more efficient in agglutination than is IgG with a
valence of 2

A

700

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24
Q

Wingspan of IgG is

A

15nm

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25
Since IgG is small, it is not able to connect antigen from different particle. Visible reactions with IgG often require the use of enhancement medium like
22% albumin, polyethylene glycol, Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS), incubating at 37C, adding of AHG reagent
26
commonly used enhancement medium. Also used in crossmatching
Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS)
27
an enhancement medium for IgG that removes water from the system. Removing water will lead to a high concentration of antibodies that will improve RBC sensitization.
polyethylene glycol
28
When using PEG, ___after 37C incubation is not required.
centrifugation
29
Most sensitive type of enhancement medium
polyethylene glycol
30
PEG is not applicable in samples that have elevated plasma protein (multiple myeloma pxs) because _______
precipitation of protein will occur instead of agglutination
31
TYPES OF AGGLUTINATION REACTION
 Direct Agglutination  Passive Agglutination  Reverse Passive Agglutination  Agglutination Inhibition  Coagglutination  AHG-Mediated Agglution
32
a type of agglutination reaction that occurs when antigens are found naturally on a particle.
Direct Agglutination
33
Direct Agglutination Can be done on ___ or ____
glass slides or test tubes
34
If an agglutination reaction involves red blood cells, it is called
Hemagglutination
35
Hemagglutination is routinely done at ___ without enhancement technique
room temperature
36
example of Hemagglutination
ABO blood typing
37
serological test where we are using known bacterial antigens
widal test weil felix test
38
used to test for the presence of unknown antibodies in the patient's serum
known bacterial antigen
39
40
a rapid screening test to help determine the possibility of typhoid fever
widal test
41
antigen used in widal test
Salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens
42
bacterial suspension used for weil-felix test
proteus spp as they have the same antigenic determinants
43
weil-felix test detects what infection
rickettsial infection
44
45
the abo testing we are conducting is usually at room temperature, please explain why?
because the antisera that we are using is mainly IgM in nature, which works at room temp or even colder temp
46
criteria of agglutination under slide method
weak agglutination strong agglutination
47
in tube method, what does negative stands for
smooth suspension
48
in tube method, what does 1+ stands for
barely discernable clumps
49
in tube method, what does 2+ stands for
numerous smaller clumps
50
in tube method, what does 3+ stands for
several large clumps
51
in tube method, what does 4+ stands for
one solid clump
52
in tube method, what does partial or complete hemolysis means?
positive reaction
53
Also known as the indirect agglutination
Passive agglutination
54
Reagent used in indirect or passive agglutination
antibodies attached to a carrier particle
55
what are we detecting in indirect agglutination
antigens
56
back in direct agglutination, what is the reagent used and what are we detecting
reagent is the bacterial antigen and we are detecting antibody
57
Carrier particles used in indirect agglutination
erythrocytes latex gelatin silicone bentonite charcoal
58
most commonly used carrier particles
latex
59
disadvantage of rbc in carrier particles
causes cross reaction with heterophile antibodies
60
in Reverse passive agglutination, we are detecting ___
antigens
61
Reverse passive agglutination reagent used is
Antibody attached to a carrier particle
62
Antibody is attached to a carrier particle to detect antigen
Reverse passive agglutination
63
criteria for Reverse passive agglutination, the carrier particle must be
Carrier particle should have the ability to absorb the Fc region of the antibody so that the Fab region are exposed to the environment finding specific antigen
64
example of test for Reverse passive agglutination
CRP latex agglutination reaction
65
example of test that uses Passive agglutination
Antistreptolysin O Rheumatoid factor Anti-nuclear Antibody test for SLE
66
a lack of agglutination as an indicator for a positive reaction
Agglutination inhibition
67
are based on competition between particulate (first reagent) and soluble antigens (patient sample) for limited antibody combining sites (second reagent),
Agglutination inhibition reactions
68
example of Agglutination inhibition reactions
classic pregnancy test ABO typing using saliva
69
ABO typing using saliva principle
Hemagglutination Inhibition
70
inhibitor agglutination is one of the carrier particle or a principle of ___
detector of secretor status
71
specimen used for detector of secretor status
saliva
72
what are the components we used for detector of secretor status
antisera + px saliva + known cells
73
indicator cells used for detector of secretor status
rbc
74
Coagglutination detects
antigen
75
uses bacteria as carrier particle for antibody
Coagglutination
76
it is basically reverse passive agglutination, but in ___it uses bacteria as the carrier particle
coagglutination
77
which bacteria us coaggulation uses as a carrier particle
(Staphylococcus aureus
78
Staphylococcus aureus in coagglutination has the structure called ____ which absorbs FC portion of the antibody
protein A
79
AHG-Mediated Agglutination is also known as
Coomb’s test
80
AHG means
anti human globulin
81
Detects nonagglutinating antibody by means of coupling with a second antibody
AHG-Mediated Agglutination
82
prinicple of AHG-mediated agglutination
sensitization of rbc
83
2 types of AHG-mediated agglutination
direct and indirect
84
direct ahg mediated agglutination is used in (in vivo, in vitro)
in-vivo
85
indirect ahg mediated agglutination is used in (in vivo, in vitro)
in vitro
86
what are we detecting in AHG mediated agglutination
incomplete, unknown, weakly reacting, and unidentified antibodies
87
involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible
Precipitation
88
s the process by which particulate antigens aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody is present
Agglutination
89
Measurement of precipitation by light scattering
 Turbidimetry  Nephelometry
90
Determination of Precipitation via Passive immunodiffusion techniques
 Radial Immunodiffusion  Ouchterlony Double Diffusion/Immunodiffusion
91
Determination of Precipitation via Immunoelectrophoretic technique
 Rocket Immunoelectrophoresis  Immunoelectrophoresis  Immunofixation Electrophoresis  Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis
92
are designed for antigens and antibodies that may be small in size or present in very low concentrations.
Labeled immunoassays
93
The presence of such antigens or antibodies is determined indirectly by using a _____ to detect whether or not specific binding has taken place.
labeled reactant
94
in labelled immunoassay, The substance to be measured is known as the _______
analyte
95
are bound by molecules that react specifically with them
Analytes
96
_______ have made possible rapid quantitative measurement of many important entities
Labeled immunoassays
97
Labeled immunoassays have made possible rapid quantitative measurement of many important entities such as ____
viral antigens
98
Classification of Labelled Immunoassay
 Radio Immunoassay (RIA)  Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)  Fluorescent Immunoassay
99
Common labeled antibodies – _________
monoclonal antibodies
100
monoclonal antibodies are discovered by
Discovered by Georges Köhler and César Milstein
101
Constant source of highly specific antibody
monoclonal antibodies
102
are unlabeled analytes that are made up in known concentrations of the substance to be measured.
Standards / calibrators:
103
They are used to establish a relationship between the labeled analyte measured and any unlabeled analyte that might be present in patient specimens
Standards / calibrators
104
once the reaction between antigen and antibody has taken place, there must be a partitioning step, or a way of separating reacted from unreacted analyte.
Separation methods
105
Separation methods example
Decantation, centrifugation, filtration, washing ste
106
the most common Separation methods used in most immunoassay when it comes to separation is
solid phase vehicle
107
what are the antigen and antibody reaction we need to take note of the
--physical absorption --specific binding takes place --complexes
108
purpose of washing rbc
removing unbound antibodies
109
why can't we use unwashed rbc
results to false negative result
110
how many times we need to wash rbc
3-4 times
111
percent of unwashed rbc
2-5%
112
The last step common to all immunoassays is
detection of the labeled analyte.
113
Most immunoassays used the change in absorbance measured by ______.
spectrophotometry
114
spectrophotometry examples
Enzyme immunoassay immunofluorescene radioimmunoassay
115
in radio immunoassay, in detecting radioactivity analytes. What test is associated?
scintillation counter
116
operational activity we need to establish in every test we are conducting before we run difference specimens
quality control
117

IMMUNOHEMATOLOGY (14 decks)

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