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IMMUNOHEMATOLOGY > LEC3 - REVIEW OF BASIC SEROLOGY > Flashcards

LEC3 - REVIEW OF BASIC SEROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble
complexes that are visible

A

Precipitation

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2
Q

the most efficient Ig for precipitation

A

IgG

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3
Q

is the process by which particulate antigens aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody
is present.

A

Agglutination

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4
Q

most efficient in agglutination

A

IgM

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5
Q

antigens mainly found on
the surface of a particles. These particles can be
naturally or synthetically attached to a carrier
particle.

A

particulate antigen

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6
Q

IgG can also perform this but it needs to be
incubated at ____* C to enhance the agglutination
reaction

A

37

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7
Q

it is the visible aggregation of particles caused by combination with specific antibody

A

agglutination

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8
Q

Antibodies that produce such agglutination are often
called
____.

A

agglutinins

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9
Q

Agglutination involves a two-step process:
___ and ___

A

Sensitization and then Lattice Formation

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10
Q

Types of particles participating in agglutination
include ___

A

erythrocytes, bacterial cells, and inert carriers
such as latex particles.

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11
Q

Agglutination reactions can be classified into several
distinct categories:

A

o Direct agglutination
o Passive Agglutination
o Reverse Passive agglutination
o Agglutination Inhibition
o Coagglutination
o AHG-Mediated Agglutination

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12
Q

the most important category among the Agglutination reactions categories is the

A

AHG mediated agglutination

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13
Q

the initial interaction between antigen and antibody

A

sensitization

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14
Q

will there be a complex formed in sensitization?

A

none

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15
Q

is there a stability formed between the antigen and antibody interaction in sensitization stage?

A

alaws pa po

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16
Q

The first reaction involves antigen–antibody
combination through SINGLE antigenic determinants on
the particle surface

A

sensitization

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17
Q

a step of agglutination wherein it’s about the Initial binding. No complex formed

A

sensitization

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18
Q

Sum of interactions between antibody and multiple
antigenic determinants on a particle

A

Lattice formation or formation of large aggregates

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19
Q

Antibody must be able to bridge the gap between cells
in such a way that one molecule can bind to a site on
each of two different cells.

A

Lattice formation

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20
Q

Erythrocytes and bacterial cells have a slight negative
surface charge, and because like charges tend to
repel one another, it is difficult to bring such cells
together into lattice formation.

true or false

A

true

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21
Q

where there is a distance
between RBCs and bacterial cells

A

Zeta potential

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22
Q

a normal distance of rbc from each other and other cells that keeps them away from each other – repelling

A

25 nm apart

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23
Q

IgM with a potential valence of 10 is over _______
times more efficient in agglutination than is IgG with a
valence of 2

A

700

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24
Q

Wingspan of IgG is

A

15nm

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25
Q

Since IgG is small, it is not
able to connect antigen from different particle. Visible
reactions with IgG often require the use of
enhancement
medium like

A

22% albumin,
polyethylene glycol,
Low Ionic Strength Solution
(LISS),
incubating at 37C, adding of AHG reagent

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26
Q

commonly used enhancement medium.
Also used in crossmatching

A

Low Ionic Strength Solution
(LISS)

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27
Q

an enhancement medium for IgG that removes water from the
system. Removing water will lead to a high
concentration of antibodies that will improve
RBC sensitization.

A

polyethylene glycol

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28
Q

When using PEG, ___after 37C
incubation is not required.

A

centrifugation

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29
Q

Most sensitive type of enhancement
medium

A

polyethylene glycol

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30
Q

PEG is not applicable in samples that have
elevated plasma protein (multiple myeloma
pxs) because _______

A

precipitation of protein will
occur instead of agglutination

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31
Q

TYPES OF AGGLUTINATION REACTION

A

 Direct Agglutination
 Passive Agglutination
 Reverse Passive Agglutination
 Agglutination Inhibition
 Coagglutination
 AHG-Mediated Agglution

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32
Q

a type of agglutination reaction that occurs when antigens are found naturally on a
particle.

A

Direct Agglutination

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33
Q

Direct Agglutination

Can be done on ___ or ____

A

glass slides or test tubes

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34
Q

If an agglutination reaction involves red blood cells, it
is called

A

Hemagglutination

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35
Q

Hemagglutination is routinely done at ___ without enhancement technique

A

room
temperature

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36
Q

example of Hemagglutination

A

ABO blood typing

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37
Q

serological test where we are using known bacterial antigens

A

widal test
weil felix test

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38
Q

used to test for the
presence of unknown antibodies in the patient’s serum

A

known bacterial antigen

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39
Q
A
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40
Q

a rapid screening test to help determine
the possibility of typhoid fever

A

widal test

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41
Q

antigen used in widal test

A

Salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar)
antigens

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42
Q

bacterial suspension used for weil-felix test

A

proteus spp as they have the same antigenic determinants

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43
Q

weil-felix test detects what infection

A

rickettsial infection

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

the abo testing we are conducting is usually at room temperature, please explain why?

A

because the antisera that we are using is mainly IgM in nature, which works at room temp or even colder temp

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46
Q

criteria of agglutination under slide method

A

weak agglutination
strong agglutination

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47
Q

in tube method, what does negative stands for

A

smooth suspension

48
Q

in tube method, what does 1+ stands for

A

barely discernable clumps

49
Q

in tube method, what does 2+ stands for

A

numerous smaller clumps

50
Q

in tube method, what does 3+ stands for

A

several large clumps

51
Q

in tube method, what does 4+ stands for

A

one solid clump

52
Q

in tube method, what does partial or complete hemolysis means?

A

positive reaction

53
Q

Also known as the indirect agglutination

A

Passive agglutination

54
Q

Reagent used in indirect or passive agglutination

A

antibodies attached to a carrier particle

55
Q

what are we detecting in indirect agglutination

A

antigens

56
Q

back in direct agglutination, what is the reagent used and what are we detecting

A

reagent is the bacterial antigen and we are detecting antibody

57
Q

Carrier particles used in indirect agglutination

A

erythrocytes
latex
gelatin
silicone
bentonite
charcoal

58
Q

most commonly used carrier particles

A

latex

59
Q

disadvantage of rbc in carrier particles

A

causes cross reaction with heterophile antibodies

60
Q

in Reverse passive agglutination, we are detecting ___

A

antigens

61
Q

Reverse passive agglutination reagent used is

A

Antibody attached to a carrier particle

62
Q

Antibody is attached to a carrier particle to detect antigen

A

Reverse passive agglutination

63
Q

criteria for Reverse passive agglutination, the carrier particle must be

A

Carrier particle should have the ability to absorb the Fc region of the antibody so that the Fab region are
exposed to the environment finding specific antigen

64
Q

example of test for Reverse passive agglutination

A

CRP latex agglutination reaction

65
Q

example of test that uses Passive agglutination

A

Antistreptolysin O
Rheumatoid factor
Anti-nuclear Antibody test for SLE

66
Q

a lack of agglutination as an indicator for a positive reaction

A

Agglutination inhibition

67
Q

are based on
competition between particulate (first reagent) and
soluble antigens (patient sample) for limited antibody
combining sites (second reagent),

A

Agglutination inhibition reactions

68
Q

example of Agglutination inhibition reactions

A

classic pregnancy test
ABO typing using saliva

69
Q

ABO typing using saliva principle

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition

70
Q

inhibitor agglutination is one of the carrier particle or a principle of ___

A

detector of secretor status

71
Q

specimen used for detector of secretor status

A

saliva

72
Q

what are the components we used for detector of secretor status

A

antisera + px saliva + known cells

73
Q

indicator cells used for detector of secretor status

A

rbc

74
Q

Coagglutination detects

A

antigen

75
Q

uses bacteria as carrier
particle for antibody

A

Coagglutination

76
Q

it is basically reverse passive agglutination, but in ___it uses bacteria as the carrier particle

A

coagglutination

77
Q

which bacteria us coaggulation uses as a carrier particle

A

(Staphylococcus aureus

78
Q

Staphylococcus aureus in coagglutination has the structure called ____ which absorbs FC portion of the antibody

A

protein A

79
Q

AHG-Mediated Agglutination is also known as

A

Coomb’s test

80
Q

AHG means

A

anti human globulin

81
Q

Detects nonagglutinating antibody by means of coupling with a second antibody

A

AHG-Mediated Agglutination

82
Q

prinicple of AHG-mediated agglutination

A

sensitization of rbc

83
Q

2 types of AHG-mediated agglutination

A

direct and indirect

84
Q

direct ahg mediated agglutination is used in (in vivo, in vitro)

A

in-vivo

85
Q

indirect ahg mediated agglutination is used in (in vivo, in vitro)

A

in vitro

86
Q

what are we detecting in AHG mediated agglutination

A

incomplete, unknown, weakly reacting, and unidentified antibodies

87
Q

involves combining soluble antigen
with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes
that are visible

A

Precipitation

88
Q

s the process by which particulate
antigens aggregate to form larger complexes when a
specific antibody is present

A

Agglutination

89
Q

Measurement of precipitation by light scattering

A

 Turbidimetry
 Nephelometry

90
Q

Determination of Precipitation via Passive
immunodiffusion techniques

A

 Radial Immunodiffusion
 Ouchterlony Double Diffusion/Immunodiffusion

91
Q

Determination of Precipitation via
Immunoelectrophoretic technique

A

 Rocket Immunoelectrophoresis
 Immunoelectrophoresis
 Immunofixation Electrophoresis
 Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis

92
Q

are designed for antigens
and antibodies that may be small in size or present in
very low concentrations.

A

Labeled immunoassays

93
Q

The presence of such antigens or antibodies is
determined indirectly by using a _____ to
detect whether or not specific binding has taken
place.

A

labeled reactant

94
Q

in labelled immunoassay, The substance to be measured is known as the
_______

A

analyte

95
Q

are bound by molecules that react
specifically with them

A

Analytes

96
Q

_______ have made possible rapid
quantitative measurement of many important
entities

A

Labeled immunoassays

97
Q

Labeled immunoassays have made possible rapid
quantitative measurement of many important
entities such as ____

A

viral antigens

98
Q

Classification of Labelled Immunoassay

A

 Radio Immunoassay (RIA)
 Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)
 Fluorescent Immunoassay

99
Q

Common labeled antibodies – _________

A

monoclonal antibodies

100
Q

monoclonal antibodies are discovered by

A

Discovered by Georges Köhler and César
Milstein

101
Q

Constant source of highly specific antibody

A

monoclonal antibodies

102
Q

are unlabeled analytes that are made up in known
concentrations of the substance to be measured.

A

Standards / calibrators:

103
Q

They are used to establish a relationship between the
labeled analyte measured and any unlabeled analyte
that might be present in patient specimens

A

Standards / calibrators

104
Q

once the reaction between antigen and antibody has
taken place, there must be a partitioning step, or a
way of separating reacted from unreacted analyte.

A

Separation methods

105
Q

Separation methods example

A

Decantation, centrifugation, filtration, washing ste

106
Q

the most common Separation methods used in most immunoassay when it comes to separation is

A

solid phase vehicle

107
Q

what are the antigen and antibody reaction we need to take note of the

A

–physical absorption
–specific binding takes place
–complexes

108
Q

purpose of washing rbc

A

removing unbound antibodies

109
Q

why can’t we use unwashed rbc

A

results to false negative result

110
Q

how many times we need to wash rbc

A

3-4 times

111
Q

percent of unwashed rbc

A

2-5%

112
Q

The last step common to all immunoassays is

A

detection of the labeled analyte.

113
Q

Most immunoassays used the change in absorbance
measured by ______.

A

spectrophotometry

114
Q

spectrophotometry examples

A

Enzyme immunoassay
immunofluorescene
radioimmunoassay

115
Q

in radio immunoassay, in detecting radioactivity analytes. What test is associated?

A

scintillation counter

116
Q

operational activity we need to establish in every test we are conducting before we run difference specimens

A

quality control

117
Q
A

IMMUNOHEMATOLOGY (4 decks)

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