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Pathology II > LEC 7 - Bone > Flashcards

LEC 7 - Bone Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three cell types responsible in the maintaince and construction of bone?

A

Osteoblasts

Osteocytes

Osteoclasts

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2
Q

Where do osteoclasts orginate from?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells

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3
Q

What is the function of osteoclasts?

A

Responsible for bone resorption

Attach to mineralized bone surface

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4
Q

Where are osteocytes located?

A

Osteoblasts that have been surrounded bu mineralized osteoid

Occupying small clear spaces called lacunae

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5
Q

Where do osteoblasts arise from?

A

Mesenchymal cells

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6
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts?

A

Initiate mineralization

Produce matrix

Initiate resorption of the resorption by osteoclasts

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7
Q

What do osteocytes and osteoblasts control together?

A

Calcium homeostatisis

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8
Q

In what direction does bone grow?

A

In length by intersitial growth

Within metaphyseal growth plates

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9
Q

Describe: Endochondral ossification

A

Process in which bone desposited at mineralized longitudinal septa of the physes

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10
Q

How many zones are there in the physes?

A

3

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11
Q

What are the three physeal zones?

A

Resting

Proliferative

Hypertrophic

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12
Q

Describe: Resting Zone

A

Source cells for proliferative zone

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13
Q

Describe: Proliferative zone

A

Cell multiply

Accumulate glycogen

Produce matrix and become arranged in longitudinal columns

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14
Q

Describe: Hypertrophic zones

A

Chondrocytes secrete macromolecules to allow capillary invasion and initiate matrix calcification

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15
Q

What are the two sub-zones of hypertrophic zones?

A

Maturation

Degeneration

Calcification

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16
Q

How does growth of epihysis occur?

A

Endochondral ossification at articular-epiphyseal complexes

(AEC)

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17
Q

What is the AEC composed of?

A

Articular cartilage

Subajacent temporary growth cartilage

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18
Q

How does bone grow in width?

A

Intermembranous bone formation

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19
Q

What is the surfaces of bone covered by?

A

periosteom

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20
Q

What is periosteom made from?

A

Loosely attached membrane

Outer fibrous layer = structural support

Innter osteogenic layer = normal lamellar apossitional bone

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21
Q

What type of bone is laid down in response to injury?

A

Abnormal woven bone

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22
Q

What hormonal agents are released in response to insult on the bone?

A

Calcitrol

PTH

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23
Q

What are two examples of disruption of endochondral ossification?

A

Growth arrest lines

Growth retardation lattice

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24
Q

Describe: Growth arrest lines

A

Multiple nutrient deficiencies cause the growth plate to become narrow

Metaphyseal face of the plate can be sealed by layer of bone

= transverse trabeculation

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25
Q

Describe: Growth retardation lattice

A

Impairment of osteoclastic resporption of bone within primary trabeculae

= retention primary trabeculae

they then elongate because of continous EO

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26
Q

What does tension cause to the bone?

A

Resporption

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27
Q

What does compression cause to the bone?

A

Bone formation

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28
Q

Describe: Wolff’s Law

A

Ability of bone to change its shape and size to accomodate altered mechanical use

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29
Q

What happens with normal mechanical use?

A

Suppression of resorptive activity = maintaince of bone mass

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30
Q

What happens when there is a decrease in mechanical use of a bone?

A

Bone resorption = less mass

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31
Q

What happens with increased mechanical use of the bone?

A

Increased bone mass

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32
Q

Describe: Woven bone

A

Newly formed

Hypercellular bone deposited in reaction to injury

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33
Q

When is woven bone normal?

A

Young animals

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34
Q

When is woven bone pathologic?

A

Adult animals

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35
Q

What does woven bone look like in histiologically?

A

Collagen fibers randomly arranged

More numerous osteocytes

Osteocytes are larger

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36
Q

How does injured periosteum resond to injury?

A

Forms bone

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37
Q

What is reactive periosteal woven bone mostly made of?

A

Cartilage

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38
Q

What decides the production of cartilage from the injured periosteum?

A

Avalibility of oxygen

Low = cartilage predominates

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39
Q

What can happen to the cartilage once it is from in a low tension oxygen environment?

A

Endochondral ossification

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40
Q

What are the two paths that reactive woven bone can occur?

A

Remodeled lamellar bone

– or –

Removed by osteoclastic resorption

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41
Q

Describe: Osteophytes

A

New bone that occurs in response to joint injury/instability

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42
Q

What can occur with infectious inflammation of the periosteum?

A

Marked osteoclastic bone resorption at the periosteal surface

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43
Q

What is the problem with the articular cartilage responding to injury?

A

Minimal capacity of repair due to no blood supply

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44
Q

What happens with erosion of the cartilage?

A

Clusters of chondrocytes form

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45
Q

What happens if the erosion of the cartilage extends to the subchondral bone?

A

Mesenchymal cells access teh area and become quickly filled with vascular fibrous CT

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46
Q

What are the causes of sterile injury to the articular cartilage?

A

Trauma

Joint instability

Lubrication failure

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47
Q

What activates MMP’s?

A

Products of degenerating/reactive chondrocytes

– and –

Inflammatory cells

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48
Q

What is the function of MMP’s?

A

Digest the matrix

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49
Q

What is the mechanism by which the loss of proteoglycans lead to mechanical injury of the cartilage?

A

Alters hydraulic permeability

Abnormal joint lubrication

Increases susceptibility to mechanical injury

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50
Q

What does the surface of the articular cartilage look like when there is damage?

A

Surface is yellow-brown

Dull, slightly roughended appearance

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51
Q

Term: Fibrillation

A

Condensed + fray collagen ibers due to loss of proteoglycans

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52
Q

Term: Eburnation

A

Smooth + Shiny surface of subchondral bone after cartilage ulceration

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53
Q

How does the synovium respond to injury?

A

Villous hypertrophy + hyperplasia

Synoviocyte hypertrophy + hyperplasia

Pannus formation

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54
Q

Describe: Pannus

A

Fibrovascular + Histocytic tissue

Arises from synovial membranes

Spreads over articular cartilage

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55
Q

What is the mechanism by which pannus causes the fusion of joints?

A

Histocytes + Callagenases from fibroblasts

lead to lysis and destruction of underlying cartilage

Fibrous Tissues unite the surfaces = Fibrous ankyloses

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56
Q

Describe: Rickets

A

Affects bone and epiphyseal cartilage

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57
Q

Describe: Osteomalacia

A

Effects bones only

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58
Q

What is the cause of rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D + Phosphorus deficency

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59
Q

What is rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Failure of mineralization with subsequent bone deformaties + fractures

Growing skeleton = Rickets

Adult Skeleton = Osteomalacia

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60
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

Hypercalcemia

Stimulates secreation of parathyroid hormone

renal phosphorus loss is enhanced

Reduce the deposition of calcium further

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61
Q

What lesions are seen with rickets?

A

Diffuse, irregular thickened growth plates

Most common at the costo-chondral junctions

aka Rachitic rosary

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62
Q

What lesions are seen with osteomalacia?

A

Accumulation of microfractures or fractures

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63
Q

What lesions are seen in both rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Cortical bone can be softened

Increased depostion of osteoid in trabecular zone

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64
Q

Describe: Fibrous osteodystrophy

A

Increased, widespread osteoclastic resorption of bone

Replacement by primitive fibro-osseus tissue

= weak bones

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65
Q

What can cause primary fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

Pituitary adenoma

Carcinoma

Hyperplasa

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66
Q

What can cause secondary fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

(nurtritional or renal)

– and –

Pseudohyperparathyroidism

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67
Q

What is the pathogenesis of fibrous osteodystrophy caused by increased PTH?

A

promotes excretion of phosphorous + retention of calcium

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68
Q

What is the pathogenesis of fibrous osteodystrophy when caused by renal disease?

A

Loss of glomerular function

Inability to excrete P + Inadequate calcitriol production

Hyperphsohatemia

69
Q

What is the pathogenesis of fibrous osteodystrophy when caused by excess P or inadequate calcium?

A

Stimulation of osteocytic/osteoclastic bone resorption

Decrease bone mineralization

Replacement by fibrous CT

Weak bone structure

70
Q

What are the disorders of encochondral ossification?

A

Chondrodysplasias

Osteochondroses

71
Q

What are the different types of chondrodysplasias?

A

Primordial dwarfism

Spider lamb

72
Q

Describe: Chondrodysplasias

A

Disorders of bone growth

Result in primary lesions in growth cartilage

73
Q

What do chondrodysplasias result in?

A

Disporportionate dwarfism

74
Q

What breeds are presdisposed to disportionate dwarfism?

A

Dachshunds

Pekingese

Basset hounds

75
Q

What is the cause of chondrodysplasia resulting in disproportionate dwarfism?

A

Mutaiton in FGF4

Inapproriate activation of FGF3 receptor

Negative regulator of bone growth

76
Q

Describe: Primordial dwarfism

A

Limb length proportional to body length

77
Q

What causes primordial dwarfism?

A

Endocrine disease or malnutrion

78
Q

What are examples of dog breeds that have primordial dwarfism?

A

Miniature schnauzer

Miniature pinchers

79
Q

What lambs are at risk for spider lamb chondrodysplasia?

A

Suffolk

Hampshire

80
Q

What causes spider lamb chondrodysplasia?

A

Mutation in FGF3 receptor

Impairs inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation

Results in elongation of limbs and multiple centers of ossification in the epiphyses

81
Q

What are the three types of osteochondroses?

A

Latens

Manifesta

Dissecans

82
Q

Describe: Joint mouse

A

Cartilage or Osteochondral flap that has fractured/detached from articular surface

83
Q

Describe: Osteochondrosis latens

A

Well demarcated areas of necrosis of epiphyseal cartilage

Centered on necrotic blood vessels

84
Q

Describe: Osteochondrosis manifesta

A

retained necrotic epiphyseal cartilage

Seen grossly

85
Q

Describe: osteochondrosis dissecans

A

Lesion at AEC

Forms cleft in necrotic cartilage with subsequent fracture of articular cartilage

leads to joing mouse

86
Q

Term: Osteitis

A

Inflammation of bone

87
Q

Term: Periostitis

A

Inflammation of bone with involvement of medullary cavity

88
Q

Term: Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of bone with involvement of medullary cavity

89
Q

What are the three causes of infectious inflammation of bone?

A

Hematogenous bacteria

Fungi

Virus

90
Q

What is the bacterial form of infectious inflammation of bone most common in?

A

neonatal foals

food animals

91
Q

What are possible bacterial causes of infectious inflammation of the bone?

A

T. pyogenes

Strep/Staph

Salmonella

E. Coli

92
Q

What fungi can cause infectious inflammation of the bone?

A

Coccidioides immitis

Blastomyces dermatitidis

93
Q

What can coccidioides + blastomyces do to the bone?

A

Granulomatous to pyogranulomatous osteomylitis

94
Q

What viruses are known to cause infectious inflammation in the bone?

A

Swine fever

infectious canine hepatitis

95
Q

What does the viral form of infectious inflammation of the bone cause?

A

Endothelial damage

– and–

Ischemic necrosis

96
Q

What does distemper virus do to the bone?

A

Infect osteoclast

Disrupt bone modeling

Leads to growth retardation

97
Q

What does FeLV do to the bone?

A

Associated with myelosclerosis

98
Q

What can cause reactive bone formation?

A

Fracture repair

Chronic osteomyelitis

DJD

99
Q

Term: Exostosis

A

Nodular benign bony growth projecting outward from surface of bone

100
Q

Term: Enthesophyte

A

Calcification of tendon or ligament at the point of its insertions

101
Q

Term: Hyperostosis

A

Increased diameter of bone and implies uniform thickening on periosteal surface rather than nodularity

102
Q

Term: Enostosis

A

Bony growth within medullary cavity

Originates from cortical-endosteal surface

= Medullary cavity obliteration

103
Q

What are the characteristics of hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

Progressive, bilateral, periosteal new bone formation in diaphyseal regions of distal limbs

Secondary reaction to primary lesion

104
Q

What are the characteristics of osteochonromas?

A

Eccentric masses loacted adjacen to physes

105
Q

What are osteochondromas?

A

Multiple cartilaginous exostoses

Reflect a defect in skeletal development

106
Q

What does osteochondromas look like microscopically?

A

Outer cap of hyaline cartilage

Undergo endochondral ossification that give rise to trabecular bone

107
Q

What are the three types of bone cysts?

A

Subchondral

Simple

Aneurysmal

108
Q

Describe: Subchrondral cysts

A

Sequela to osteochondrosis (failure of EO)

– and –

DJD (herniation of synovial fluid)

109
Q

Describe: Simple cysts

A

Contain clear, colorless, seroanguious fluid

Wall composed of dense fibrous tissue + Woven bone

110
Q

Term: Aneurysmal cyst

A

Filled with blood

Not lined by endothelium

111
Q

What are common bones that are sites of secondary bone neoplasms, in dogs?

A

Rib shafts

Vertebral bodies

Humeral/Femoral metaphyses

112
Q

In cats where do secondary neoplasms of the bone tend to go?

A

Appendicular skeleton

113
Q

Where do pulmonary carcinomas tend to go in a cat?

A

Digits

114
Q

What predispose an animals to pathologic fractures?

A

osteoporosis

osteomyelitis

bone neoplasia

115
Q

By what method are fractures of the growth plate classified?

A

Salter-Harris

116
Q

What does a grade V to VI fracture mean?

A

Crush growth plate

117
Q

What does a grade III to IV fracture mean?

A

Cross growth plate

118
Q

What does grade I and II fracture mean?

A

Only involve hypertrophied layers of cartilage

and/or

Primary bone trabeculae

119
Q

What predisposes an animal to fractures of the trabecular bone?

A

Inflammation

Necrosis

120
Q

Term: Infractions

A

Fractures without external deformation of the cortex

121
Q

Term: Closed fracture

A

Skin is unbroken

122
Q

Term: Open fracture

A

skin is broken

bone is exposed to exterior

123
Q

Term: Comminuted

A

Bone is shattered in several small pieves

124
Q

Term: Avulsed

A

Caused by traction of a ligament

125
Q

Term: Greenstick

A

One cortex of the bone is broken and the other is bent

126
Q

Term: transverse or spiral fracture

A

Depending on orientation of the fracture line, whatever it looks like

127
Q

Describe: Stable fracture repair

A

Immobilization of fractured ends to give relative stability

but NOT surgically fixed

128
Q

What is the first step in stable fracture repair?

A

Macrophages + Platelets in:

Blood clot

Proliferating osteogenic tissue

Produce growth factors which stimulate proliferation of repir tissue

aka woven bone

129
Q

What are the growth factors secreted by the macrophages + platelets in the first stage of stable fracture repair?

A

Bone Morphogenic proteins

TGF-B

PDGF

130
Q

What forms granulation tissue in stable fracture repair?

A

Undifferenitiated mesenchymal cells penetrate area

131
Q

Where do the undifferentiated mesenchymal cells come from in stable fracture repair?

A

Periosteum

Endosteum

Medullary cavity

132
Q

What is the outcome of the granulation tissue in stable fracture repair?

A

Cartilage

– and –

Bone metaplasia

133
Q

What are the final stages of stable fracture repair?

A

Primary callus formation (woven bone)

Secondary callus formation forms when woven bone is replaced by lamellar bone

134
Q

Describe: Rigid fracture repair

A

Surgical intervention that involves the application of devices to keep the bone ends in contact with each other for fracture stability during the repair process

135
Q

What is the process of healing in rigid fracture repair?

A

Direct osteonal bridging of teh fracture

136
Q

What do osteoclasts do during rigid fracture repair?

A

Osteoclasts forming channels for new osteons will jump fracture line

New osteons with will knit the bone ends together without formation of callus

137
Q

What are the five complications of fracture healing?

A

Inadequate blood supply

Instability

Infection

Malnutrition

Associated with implants

138
Q

What happens with fracture healing when there is an inadequate blood supply?

A

Hyaline cartilage will form

– or –

Necrosis if anoxia is present

139
Q

What can cause instability during fracture healing?

A

Mechanical tension + compression

Developments fibrous CT

if there is excessive movement

140
Q

What are the problems associated implants in fracture repair?

A

Too large

Blood supply damage

Bacterial growth

141
Q

What happens when a fracture implant is too big?

A

Deprive the bone of normal mechanical forces

Leads to atrophy of disuse

142
Q

What animals are at risk for arthrogryposis?

A

Cattle

Sheep

143
Q

What is arthrogryposis?

A

Congenital contracture of a joint

Normally bilateral

144
Q

What are the etiologies that can cause arthrogryposis?

A

Damage to the CNS

– or –

Fetal paralysis caused by maternal intoxications

145
Q

What viral infections can lead to arthrogryposis?

A

Akabane virus

Bluetongue virus

146
Q

What can toxins can cause fetal paralysis?

A

Lupine plants - Anagyrine

Poison hemlock - Coiine

147
Q

Who is hip dysplasia a major problem for?

A

Dogs

148
Q

Describe: Hip dysplasia

A

Biomechanical disease

Joint laxity of the hip = instability

149
Q

What does hip dysplasia result in?

A

Chronic subluxation

Severe secondary DJD

150
Q

Describe: DJD

A

Disease of synovial joints

151
Q

What can cause DJD to occur?

A

traumatic injury to the articular cartilage

inflammation of synovium

Abnormalities in conformation/jt. stability

152
Q

What are most cases of DJD secondary to?

A

Osteochondrosis

153
Q

What is the three cellular reasons for degeneration of intervertebral discs?

A

Loss of water + proteoglycans

Hypocellularity

Increase collagen content

154
Q

Where are cellular changes that lead to degeneration of the intervertebral disks occur?

A

Nucelus pulposus + Weakened annulus fibrosus

155
Q

What happens to the IVD once cellular abnormalites occur?

A

Concentric/radial fissures in annulus

Leads to buldging or herniation of nucleus pulposus material

156
Q

What occurs because of instability in the IVD?

A

Development of osteophytes at margins of vertebral margins

– – or –

Adjacent disks

157
Q
A
158
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): Erysipleothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Pigs

Septicemia leading to synovial joint + IVD lesions

159
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): trueperella pyogenes

A

Cattle + Pigs

Suppurative arthritis

160
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): Haemophilus parasuis

A

Piglets

8 to 16 weeks

Polyarthritis

161
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): Borrelia burdogferi

A

Dog + Cattle + Horses

Arthrtis

Lyme disease

162
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): Mycoplasma hyorhinis

A

Pigs

Weaning

Fibrinous polyarthritis

163
Q

Infectious arthritis (animal + presentation): Mycoplasma bovis

A

Cattle

Fibrinous to pyogranulomatous arthritis

164
Q

What are viral causes of arthritis?

A

Caprine arthritis

Encephalitis virus

165
Q

What disease is responsible for noninfectious arthritis?

A

Crystal deposition disease

166
Q

What are the characterizations of crystal deposition disease?

A

Deposition of minerals such as urates + calcium phosphates

within articular cartilage +/- soft tissue joints

167
Q

What speices lack the urease enzyme?

A

Primates

Birds

Reptiles

168
Q

What does uriase do?

A

Promotes oxidation of uric acid

169
Q
A

Pathology II (20 decks)

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