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MSK - 3rd year > Learning Topic Review Q's > Flashcards

Learning Topic Review Q's Flashcards

LEARNING TOPICS 1. Behavioural Science: Psychological Aspects of Pain (1-12) 2. Pathology: Pathology of non-neoplastic diseases of Bone (13-33) 3. Nuclear Medicine: The Bone Scan (34-36) 4. Microbiology: Fungal Infections of the musculoskeletal system in immunocompromised patients (37-50) 5. Epidemiology/Prevention: Epidemiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis (51-56) 6. Pathology: Non-neoplastic diseases of Skeletal Muscle (57-78)

1
Q

Which of the following pain types is described as maladaptive?

a. acute
b. prechronic
c. chronic

A

c. chronic

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2
Q

T/F: prechronic pain is described as the transition between acute to chronic pain

A

false, its the critical time in which the patient heals OR proceeds to chronic pain

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3
Q

Which of the following pain types is induced when a patient undergoes surgery?

a. acute
b. prechronic
c. chronic

A

a. acute

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4
Q

Which of the following is often used by children?

a. 0-10 rating scale
b. face scale
c. visual analog scale

A

b. face scale

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5
Q

Which is the most reliable indicator of pain?

a. electromyography
b. physiological measures
c. behavioral observation

A

c. behavioral observation

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6
Q

Which of the following would recover from pain faster?

a. a person who takes a sick day to lay in bed and heal
b. a person who would carry on with their regular lives

A

b. a person who would carry on with their regular lives

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7
Q

Which of the following is believed to increase pain perception?

a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement

A

a. positive reinforcement

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8
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses hypnosis to relieve pain?

a. behavioral method
b. cognitive method
c. respondent method

A

c. respondent method

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9
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses Socratic questions to relieve pain?

a. behavioral method
b. cognitive method
c. respondent method

A

b. cognitive method

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10
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses reinforcements to relieve pain?

a. behavioral method
b. cognitive method
c. respondent method

A

a. behavioral method

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11
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses exercise to relieve pain?

a. behavioral method
b. cognitive method
c. respondent method

A

a. behavioral method

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12
Q

Which of the following methods is used when a patient uses attention diversion to relieve pain?

a. behavioral method
b. cognitive method
c. respondent method

A

b. cognitive method

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13
Q

Which of the following arises from the mononuclear phagocytic system?

a. osteoblasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts

A

c. osteoclasts

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14
Q

Which is randomly organized in an irregular manner?

a. woven bone
b. spongy
c. compact bones

A

a. woven bone

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15
Q

Which of the following causes fatal anemia?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

b. Osteopetrosis

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16
Q

Which of the following is characterized by a blue sclera?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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17
Q

Which of the following is characterized by excessive callus formation?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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18
Q

Which of the following is caused by a mutation in the short arm of chromosome 4?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

a. Achondroplasia

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19
Q

Which of the following is characterized by thick bones?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

b. Osteopetrosis

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20
Q

Which of the following is causes blindness and deafness?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

b. Osteopetrosis

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21
Q

Which of the following is caused by mutation of FGFR3?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

a. Achondroplasia

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22
Q

Which of the following results in disordered remodeling?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

d. Paget’s disease

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23
Q

Which of the following is caused by osteoclast dysfunction?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Rickets
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Paget’s disease

A

d. Paget’s disease

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24
Q

Which of the following is caused by a defect in the function of osteoclasts?

a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
d. Rickets

A

b. Osteopetrosis

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25
Q

After taking a biopsy from a patient, his bone appears to be porous. What’s the most likely disease?

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Rickets
c. Osteoporosis
d. Paget’s disease

A

c. Osteoporosis

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26
Q

After taking a biopsy from a patient, his bone appears to have a mosaic pattern. What’s the most likely disease?

a. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Rickets
c. Osteoporosis
d. Paget’s disease

A

d. Paget’s disease

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27
Q

Which is associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism?

a. parathyroid adenoma
b. parathyroid hyperplasia
c. parathyroid hypoplasia

A

b. parathyroid hyperplasia

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28
Q

Which is due to estorgen deficiency?

a. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
b. Senile osteoporosis

A

a. Postmenopausal osteoporosis

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29
Q

Which is associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?

a. parathyroid adenoma
b. parathyroid hyperplasia
c. parathyroid hypoplasia

A

a. parathyroid adenoma

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30
Q

Which occurs in men and women?

a. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
b. Senile osteoporosis

A

b. Senile osteoporosis

occurs due to increase in age

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31
Q

Bone has a wedge-shaped pale yellow infarct. Which is most likely?

a. Osteoporosis
b. AVN
c. Osteonecrosis

A

c. Osteonecrosis

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32
Q

How do you treat femoral AVN?

A

arthroplasty (prosthetic replacement of the femoral hip)

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33
Q

Which of the following can be caused by sickle cell anemia?

a. Osteoporosis
b. AVN
c. Osteonecrosis

A

c. Osteonecrosis

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34
Q

Which of the following only sees bone structural changes when they increase or decrease 50%?

a. radiograph
b. scintillation camera
c. radiotracers

A

a. radiograph

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35
Q

Which phase of the multiphase bone scan indicates the presence of a bony reaction?

a. Flow phase
b. Blood pool
c. Delayed image

A

c. Delayed image

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36
Q

Which of the following would have a negative delayed image?

a. cellulitis
b. osteomyelitis

A

a. cellulitis

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37
Q

biopsy specimens shows acutely branched septate hyphae. Which organism is most likely to be found?

a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis
e. Aspergillosis

A

e. Aspergillosis

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38
Q

Which of the following organisms can be diagnosed using serum or urine tests?

a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis
e. Aspergillosis

A

b. Histoplasmosis

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39
Q

Synovial fluid examination showed cloudy or frankly purulent fluid with high protein and WBC count. broad-based budding cells can also be seen. Which is most likely?

a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis
e. Aspergillosis

A

c. Blastomycosis

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40
Q

Which of the following organisms can be diagnosed using India ink examination or agglutination test?

a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis
e. Aspergillosis

A

d. Cryptococcosis

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41
Q

Microscopic examination of the infected tissue shows endosporulating spherules with granulomatous inflammatory changes. Which is most likely?

a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Cryptococcosis
e. Aspergillosis

A

a. Coccidioidomycosis

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42
Q

Which is the most frequent fungal pathogen seen in intravenous drug abusers?

a. Candidiasis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Aspergillus
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Blastomyces dermatitidis
f. Cryptococcus neoformans

A

a. Candidiasis

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43
Q

Which of the following is associated with a sterile immune complex arthritis (desert rheumatism)?

a. Candidiasis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Aspergillus
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Blastomyces dermatitidis
f. Cryptococcus neoformans

A

b. Coccidioides immitis

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44
Q

Which of the following can be diagnosed by demonstrating budding yeast cells with pseudohyphae?

a. Candidiasis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Aspergillus
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Blastomyces dermatitidis
f. Cryptococcus neoformans

A

a. Candidiasis

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45
Q

Which TWO are associated with necrotizing granulomas?

a. blastomycosis
b. coccidioidomycosis
c. histoplasmosis

A

b. coccidioidomycosis
&
c. histoplasmosis

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46
Q

Which causes Tenosynovitis?

a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Aspergillus
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

b. Sporothrix schenckii

&Candida & Coccidioides immitis

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47
Q

Which is associated with pyogenic granulomas?

a. coccidioidomycosis
b. histoplasmosis

A

b. coccidioidomycosis

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48
Q

A neonate with a low birth weight aquired bone and joint disease. Which is the most likely cause?

a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Aspergillus
d. Candidiasis

A

d. Candidiasis

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49
Q

Which is associated with pyogranuloma?

a. blastomycosis
b. histoplasmosis

A

a. blastomycosis

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50
Q

Which organism is inhaled as spores and may cause nodular and ulcerative skin lesions?

a. Candidiasis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

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51
Q

Which of the following can you conclude form the fact that the incidence of RA is decreasing but the prevalence is increasing?

a. RA can be spread
b. we cured RA
c. people with RA are dying more
d. people with RA are surviving longer

A

d. people with RA are surviving longer

Prevalence= Incidence X Duration

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52
Q

What drugs have been developed for RA patients that decrease mortality?

A

disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDS)

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53
Q

Who is affected more by RA?

a. teen boys
b. women
c. men
d. 2-year-olds

A

b. women

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54
Q

Which of the following cause RA?

a. bacterial infections
b. viral infections
c. both
d. neither

A

d. neither

these are triggers! not everyone with a viral illness will develop RA

55
Q

Who has a very high risk of developing RA when they smoke?

A

Genetically susceptible individuals

Those with positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies.

56
Q

What stops out the primary prevention of RA?

A

limited knowledge on its etiology

57
Q

Describe the pattern of normal human muscle fibers

A

mosaic pattern (checkerboard)

58
Q

Which of the following is where nerves, blood vessels, and muscle spindles are located

a. epimysium
b. endomysium
c. perimysium

A

c. perimysium

59
Q

Which of the following is a sign of neurogenic muscular atrophy?

a. target fibers
b. angular fibers
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

they’re two names of the same thing!

60
Q

Five-year-old presents with a waddling gait & enlarged calves. His parents are both healthy. What’s the diagnosis

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis

A

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)

1/2 of the cases are sporadic; it’s also X linked

61
Q

Which of the following is a neuromuscular disease that leads to varying degrees of skeletal muscle weakness affecting muscles of the eyes, face, and swallowing?

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis

A

b. myasthenia gravis

62
Q

Which is known as type 5 glycogen storage disease?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. McArdle’s disease

A

d. McArdle’s disease

63
Q

Which of the following is characterized by facial rash?

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis

A

d. dermatomyositis

64
Q

In which of the following are the patients most likely to die due to cardio-respiratory failure before age 2?

a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Pompe’s disease
d. McArdle’s disease

A

c. Pompe’s Disease

65
Q

Which is known as type 2 glycogen storage disease?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. McArdle’s disease

A

a. Pompe’s Disease

66
Q

In which of the following are the patients most likely to die young due to respiratory insufficiency?

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis

A

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy

67
Q

Which of the following enzymes are low in Pompe’s Disease patients?

a. alpha glucosidase
b. acid maltase
c. both
d. neither

A

c. both

they’re different names for the same thing!!

68
Q

Which of the following is an indicator of proximal weakness?

a. anti-dystrophin antibody presence
b. gowers maneuver
c. mosaic pattern muscle fibers
d. high creatine kinase

A

b. gowers maneuver

69
Q

You suspect that a patient has duchenne muscular dystrophy, what tests do you run?

A

1- a blood test for common deletions

2- stain muscle with anti-dystrophin antibody presence

70
Q

Perifascicular atrophy is a characteristic of

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis
e. pompe’s Disease
f. central core disease

A

d. dermatomyositis

71
Q

A female patient comes in with pain and aching in muscles, Proximal weakness, and Elevated creatinine kinase. No rash or myofibers atrophy is present. Which is more likely?

a. duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. myasthenia gravis
c. polymyositis
d. dermatomyositis

A

c. polymyositis

eliminate dermatomyositis because no rash or Perifascicular atrophy, those the only differences between them

72
Q

Which of the following is due to a RYR1 gene mutation?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. McArdle’s disease

A

c. Central core disease

73
Q

Which of the following is maternally passed?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease

A

b. Mitochondrial myopathy

74
Q

Which of the following is autosomal dominant?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. Dermatomyositis

A

c. Central core disease

75
Q

Which of the following are positive for Ragged Red Fibers?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. Dermatomyositis

A

b. Mitochondrial myopathy

76
Q

Which of the following lacks oxidative enzymes?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. dermatomyositis
e. polymyositis

A

c. Central core disease

77
Q

Which of the following diseases has a strong association with malignant hyperthermia?

a. Pompe’s Disease
b. Mitochondrial myopathy
c. Central core disease
d. Dermatomyositis
e. Polymyositis

A

c. Central core disease

78
Q

Which muscle type does Central core disease affect?

a. type 1
b. type 2

A

a. type 1

slow twitch

79
Q

Why is a lupus screening test not recommended?

A

no cost-effective tests or sufficiently accurate tests are available

80
Q

Which gene is most associated with SLE?

a. HLA-S9
b. HLA-A9
c. HLA-B8
d. HLA-G8

A

c. HLA-B8

81
Q

What is the TREX-1 gene and what happens if it’s defective?

A

Encodes repair enzymes that degrades DNA. A defective TREX-1 gene is associated with SLE

82
Q

T/F: most new SLE cases are linked to familial clustering

A

F, most new cases are sporadic

83
Q

Why is most likely to get SLE?

a. 18 y/o boy
b. 18 y/o black girl
c. 18 y/o white girl

A

b. 18 y/o black girl

84
Q

Which if the following country types have the greatest burden of OA?

a. developing countries
b. developed countries

A

a. developing countries

85
Q

The sole use of which of the following methods leads tp the over estimation of the burden of disease for OA?

a. symptoms
b. radiological changes
c. pathological changes

A

b. radiological changes

they’re not always accompanied by symptoms

86
Q

Which of the following more commonly causes gout?

a. high uric acid production
b. high uric acid consumption
c. body has problems removing it

A

c. body has problems removing it

87
Q

Which of the following was concluded by recent studies?

a. smokers have a lower prevalence for OA
b. smokers have a higher prevalence for OA

A

a. smokers have a lower prevalence for OA

(this is probably because they dont live as long, so they dont get OA from age, or because they’re more skinny, which puts less pressure on the knees)

88
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for gout?

a. solid organ transplants
b. the medication used for the transplants
c. both

A

c. both

89
Q

Which is false about OA?

a. having a healthy weight is the best prevention method
b. taking vitamin supplements is another prevention method
c. having protection from injury is another prevention method

A

b. taking vitamin supplements is another prevention method

no evidence of this

90
Q

Which NSAID is often used for gout treatment?

a. prednisone
b. aspirin
c. colchicine
d. indomethacin

A

c. indomethacin

91
Q

Which is used for patients who cannot have NSAIDs?

a. naproxen
b. aspirin
c. febuxostat
d. indomethacin
e. prednisone

A

e. prednisone

92
Q

Which of the following makes gout worse?

a. naproxen
b. aspirin
c. febuxostat
d. indomethacin
e. prednisone

A

b. aspirin

93
Q

Why shouldn’t we give aspirin to gout patients?

A

it inhibits uric acid secretion

94
Q

Which of the following has side effects of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat
c. colchicine
d. indomethacin
e. prednisone

A

c. colchicine

95
Q

Which of the following are Xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat
c. colchicine
d. indomethacin
e. prednisone

A

a. allopurinol
&
b. febuxostat

96
Q

Which of the following is safer to use in patients with kidney transplants?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat

A

b. febuxostat

metabolized in the liver

97
Q

Which of the following inhibit uric acid reabsorption?

a. indomethacin
b. probenecid
c. febuxostat
d. pegloticase

A

b. probenecid

98
Q

Which of the following uric acid reabsorption inhibitors causes urinary stones or uric acid deposition?

a. losartan
b. probenecid

A

b. probenecid

A isn’t on the drug list. uricosuric drugs excrete uric acid so it can build up and cause stone formation

99
Q

Which of the following disrupts granulocyte migration to the joint?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat
c. colchicine
d. indomethacin
e. prednisone

A

c. colchicine

by binding to tubulin and becoming a mitotic prison

100
Q

Which of the following is an analog of hypoxanthine?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat

A

a. allopurinol

101
Q

Which of the following can have side effects of gastrointestinal disturbances?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat

A

a. allopurinol

102
Q

Which of the following is a non-purine inhibitor of XO?

a. allopurinol
b. febuxostat

A

b. febuxostat

103
Q

What is the function of urate oxidase? and why is it important?

A

its an enzyme that converts uric acid to allantoin. its important because allantoin is much more excretable in the urine.

104
Q

A technician lab tests the urine of a disobedient patient and finds allantoin. What can you conclude?

A

That’s not human urine because we don’t have urate oxidase, which makes allantoin. (so the patient gave us animal urine. I don’t know why I made a whole story either…)

105
Q

Patient comes with preserved joint motion and tenderness upon palpitation. Is it likely that he has arthritis?

A

No

106
Q

Patient comes with monoarticular joint pain and constitutional symptoms (fever, malaise). Whats a likely diagnosis?

A

infectious arthritis

107
Q

Patient comes with monoarticular joint pain and a limited range of motion. Whats a likely diagnosis?

A

bursitis, tendinitis, or muscle injury

108
Q

When is the use of computed tomography appropriate?

A

joint aspirations of difficult to access places ex/ hips, sacroiliac, sternoclavicular joints

109
Q

Patient comes with bloody synovial fluid and no evidence of trauma. What tests should you order?

A

prothrombin (PT), partial tissue thromboplastin time (PTT), platelet count, and bleeding time

110
Q

Patient comes with refractory monoarthritis, you suspect an atypical agent. What tests should you order?

A 
synovial biopsy
(to diagnose tuberculosis, fungus, and sarcoidosis)
111
Q

Which of the following is most commonly reported?

a. upper back pain
b. lower back pain

A

b. lower back pain

112
Q

Whats FALSE about back pain?

a. stress may induce it
b. smoking may induce it
c. it occurs to more men than women
d. whole-body vibrations induce it
e. regular exercise may prevent it

A

c. it occurs to more men than women

113
Q

What forms a border between the intervertebral disks and the neural canal?

A

PLL

114
Q

Why do 95% of lumbar disc herniations occur at the L4-5 and L5-S1 levels?

A

because PLL thins as it runs inferiorly from L1 to S1

115
Q

Which vertebral ligament may thicken and cause spinal stenosis with age?

A

ligamentum flavu

116
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1-L2

117
Q

Which pain fibers supply structures in the lumbosacral region?

A

posterior rami and sinuvertebral nerves

118
Q

Which vertebral structures have no pain receptors?

A

nucleus pulposus and inner annular fibers

119
Q

What percent of disc patients are asymptomatic?

A

20% to 30% (this is because there are no pain receptors in some areas)

120
Q

Which of the following is exacerbated by sitting, bending, coughing, and straining?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Sciatica
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome
e. Spinal Stenosis

A

g. Sciatica

121
Q

Which of the following is relieved by sitting down?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Sciatica
d. Herniated Disk
e. Spinal Stenosis

A

e. Spinal Stenosis

122
Q

A patient with a history of osteoporosis comes in after a minor fall complaining of muscle spasms in the back. What’s more likely?

a. Spinal Stenosis
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Sciatica

A

b. Fracture

123
Q

Patient comes in saying that they have pain going downhill but not uphill. Whats most likely?

a. Spinal Stenosis
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Sciatica

A

a. Spinal Stenosis

124
Q

Which of the following is relieved by lying in a supine position?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Sciatica
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome
e. Spinal Stenosis

A

c. Sciatica

125
Q

Patient comes in with back pain, which doesn’t get better after rest, and fever but no neurologic symptoms. Which is most likely?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome

A

a. Spinal Infection

1/2 of patients has no neurologic symptoms, and 1/2 of patients have no fever.

126
Q

Which of the following doesn’t have relieving factors, and any motion exacerbates the symptoms?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome

A

c. Herniated Disk

127
Q

Which of the following has a high mortality rate?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome

A

a. Spinal Infection

128
Q

Patient comes in complaining of pain and lack of sensation over the buttocks and upper posterior thighs. Rectal exam also showed decreased sphincter tone. Whats more likely?

a. Spinal Stenosis
b. Malignancy
c. Sciatica
d. Cauda Equina Syndrome

A

d. Cauda Equina Syndrome

diagnose via MRI

129
Q

Patient comes in with chronic back pain thats worse at hight and weightloss. Which is likely?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Malignancy

A

d. Malignancy

130
Q

Which vertebral malignancy is more common?

a. primary
b. metastatic

A

b. metastatic

131
Q

Patient complains that when they walk for too long or use their arm, they go numb for 15 minutes before sensation returns. They also have back pain, what’s the diagnosis?

a. Spinal Infection
b. Fracture
c. Herniated Disk
d. Spinal Stenosis

A

d. Spinal Stenosis

Vascular claudication is the numbness after use; pseudoclaudication is when it lasts for more than 5 minutes

132
Q

Which is true?

a. positive SLR test usually means a person has sciatica
b. a negative SLR test usually means a person doesn’t have sciatica
c. both
d. neither

A

b. a negative SLR test usually means a person doesn’t have sciatica

(sensitivity of 80% but a specificity of 40%, so the negative test accurate)

133
Q

How do you diagnose a patient with a suspected spinal infection?

A

MRI

MSK - 3rd year (19 decks)

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