Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK - 3rd year > Biochemistry Review Q's > Flashcards

Biochemistry Review Q's Flashcards

LECTURES 1. Muscle Biochemistry (1-27) SEMINARS: 1. Proteoglycan & Biochemistry of Joints (28-44) 2. Mitochondrial genome: Biogenesis & Defects (45-60)

1
Q

Which of the following sources of ATP do you use when you suddenly run from class because of a fire alarm?

a. aerobic
b. anaerobic

A

b. anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is chicken meat white?

a. no fat
b. no ATP
c. no mitochondria

A

c. no mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following muscles is used by a long-distance runner?

a. largest diameter muscles
b. fast-twitch
c. slow-twitch

A

c. slow-twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is used by muscles at rest?

a. fatty acids
b. glucose
c. glycogen

A

a. fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following muscles is used by a weight lifter?

a. smallest diameter muscles
b. fast-twitch
c. slow-twitch

A

b. fast-twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Inhibition of glucose utilization is strongest at which level?

a. PFK-1
b. PFK-2
c. PDH

A

c. PDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What inhibits PFK-1?

a. citrate accumulation
b. acetyl-CoA
c. NADH

A

a. citrate accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What’s a commonly used as a measure of kidney function?

a. creatinine
b. citrate
c. carnitine

A

a. creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the body do when the ATP is high?

a. inhibits malonyl coA
b. inhibits carnitine transferase I
c. inhibits carnitine transferase II

A

b. inhibits carnitine transferase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which enzyme is directly inibited by high ATP levels?

a. creatine phosphate
b. adenylate kinase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following provides an ATP molecule?

a. creatine phosphate
b. creatine kinase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

b. creatine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following carries a high energy phosphate from the mitochondria to myosin filaments?

a. creatine phosphate
b. creatine kinase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

a. creatine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is ATP-CP Anaerobic Energy Pathway used?

a. 40-minute walk
b. short sprint

A

b. short sprint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following provides an ATP molecule using two ADP molecules?

a. adenylate kinase
b. creatine kinase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

a. adenylate kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following activates glycogen phosphorylase b?

a. AMP
b. Ca+2
c. cAMP
d. epinephrine

A

a. AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is used to fuel fast-twitch muscle fibers?

a. anaerobic glycolysis
b. aerobic glycolysis

A

a. anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What activates fatty acid oxidization?

a. higher melonyl coA
b. higher acetyl coA carboxylase
c. AMP

A

c. AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following inhibits phosphoprotein phosphatase?

a. AMP
b. Ca+2
c. cAMP
d. epinephrine

A

c. cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following bind to calmodulin to activate phosphorylase kinase?

a. AMP
b. Ca+2
c. cAMP
d. epinephrine

A

b. Ca+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following would happen to glycogen stores overnight?

a. they decrease by 30%
b. they decrease by 80%
c. they stay the same

A

c. they stay the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is used to eliminate nitrogen?

a. cori cycle
b. glucose alanine cycle

A

b. glucose alanine cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is used for high-intensity exercises?

a. carbohydrates
b. fatty acids

A

a. carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by glucagon?

a. liver
b. muscle
c. both
d. neither

A

a. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Glycogen degradation of which area is activated by AMP?

a. liver
b. muscle
c. both
d. neither

A

b. muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following makes a higher number of ATP molecules?

a. anaerobic glycolysis
b. oxidative phosphorylation

A

b. oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following has a higher amount of glycolytic enzymes?

a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers
b. slow-twitch glycolytic fibers

A

a. fast-twitch glycolytic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is used to recycle lactate?

a. cori cycle
b. glucose alanine cycle

A

a. cori cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following GAG types is longer?

a. chondroitin sulfate
b. keratan sulfate

A

a. chondroitin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are core proteins linked to hyaluronic acid?

a. linker protein
b. covalent bond

A

a. linker protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are large aggregates of proteoglycan found?

a. synovial fluid
b. pericellular matrix
c. intracellular matrix
d. extracellular matric

A

c. intracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is used to treat/modify the joint damage caused by osteoarthritis?

a. glucosamine
b. glucosamine-6-phosphate
c. both
d. neither

A

d. neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is a proven effect of Glucosamine?

a. articular cartilage restoration
b. anti-inflammatory effect

A

b. anti-inflammatory effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Many markets cell oral Glucosamine. Where do they extract it from?

A

mainly derived from chitin in crustacean shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What kind of person is not allowed to consume oral Glucosamine?

A

A person with a shellfish allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which is the major proteoglycan that makes up cartilage?

A

aggrecan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Patient presents with joint pain, swelling, and stiffness.
CBC indicates absence of neutrophils. Synovitis is present as well as in infiltration of activated B cells, T lymphocytes, and overexpression of proinflammatory mediators. What’s most likely?
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. osteoarthritis

A

b. osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which has high neutrophil count?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. osteoarthritis

A

a. rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you diagnose osteoarthritis using biomarkers?

A

Monoclonal antibodies have been developed that recognize products of proteoglycan or collagen degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which has low neutrophil count?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. osteoarthritis

A

b. osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is helpful in detecting early cases of osteoarthritis?

a. MMP
b. ADAMT
c. TIMPS
d. GAGs

A

d. GAGs

glucosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following occurs first?

a. release of glucosaminoglycans
b. appearance of collagen fragments

A

a. release of glucosaminoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How are disaccharide residues linked with core proteins?

A

through serine or threonine residues using a galactose-galactose-xylose trisaccharide link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which collagen fiber is the most available in cartilage?

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 5
d. type 6

A

b. type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How are glycosaminoglycans (GAG) linked to core proteins?

a. linker protein
b. covalent bond

A

b. covalent bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F: most mitochondrial DNA encodes for tRNA’s

A

true, 22 out of the 37 encode for tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which is circular DNA?

a. mitochondrial DNA
b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which is mostly non-coding?

a. mitochondrial DNA
b. nuclear DNA

A

b. nuclear DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which has a haploid inheritance patter?

a. mitochondrial DNA
b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which follows a relaxed replication?

a. mitochondrial DNA
b. nuclear DNA

A

a. mitochondrial DNA

50
Q

Why is mitochondrial DNA more susceptible to damage?

A

no protection, more ROS exposure, bad repair mechanisms

51
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA leucine gene?

a. MERRF
b. MMIT
c. MELAS

52
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA lysine gene?

a. MERRF
b. MMIT
c. MELAS

53
Q

Which of the following is due to mutations in the tRNA glutamic acid gene?

a. MERRF
b. MMIT
c. MELAS

54
Q

Mutations in which mitochondrial DNA genes cause neuromuscular myopathy?

a. tRNA genes
b. rRNA genes
c. protein-coding genes

A

a. tRNA genes

55
Q

What are the first areas to be affected when ATP production is decreased?

A

brain and muscles

56
Q

Why isn’t paternal mitochondria utilized?

a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy
b. paternal mitochondria does not enter the egg
c. paternal mitochondria is defective

A

a. paternal mitochondria gets eliminated by autophagy

57
Q

What does a positive COX test indicate?

A

when positive, it indicates a normal efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation (cytochrome C oxidase high) and ATP synthesis

58
Q

What does a positive COX test look like?

a. white color
b. red color
c. brown color

A

c. brown color

59
Q

Which stain is used to see red ragged muscle fibers?

A

Gomori Trichrome

60
Q

Describe the pH of tissue in a patient with mitochondrial myopathy?

a. high pH
b. low pH

A

b. low pH

lactic acidosis

61
Q

What’s the key substrate for purine synthesis?

A

PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate)

62
Q

what two things inhibit PRPP synthetase?

63
Q

what two things inhibit GPAT enzyme?

64
Q

Which of the following is used to make AMP?

a. ATP
b. GTP
c. NAD

65
Q

Which of the following is used to make GMP?

a. ATP
b. GTP
c. aspartic acid

66
Q

Which enzyme makes an ATP out of 2 ADP’s?

a. ribonucleotide reductase
b. adenylate kinase
d. AMP deaminase

A

b. adenylate kinase

67
Q

What does the purine nucleotide cycle produce?

A

NH4 (ammonium) and Fumarate

68
Q

Which enzyme makes nucleotides into deoxynucleotides?

a. ribonucleotide reductase
b. adenylate kinase
d. AMP deaminase

A

a. ribonucleotide reductase

69
Q

What enzyme converts AMP to IMP? and what does it release from this conversion?

A

AMP deaminase. it releases NH4

70
Q

T/F: purines and pyrimidine catabolism is done by converting them to uric acid then excretion

A

false, pyrimidine is not made into uric acid. It’s ultimately catabolized (degraded) to CO2

71
Q

Inactivity of which enzyme causes fatigue of skeletal muscle during exercise?

a. ribonucleotide reductase
b. adenylate kinase
d. AMP deaminase

A

d. AMP deaminase

72
Q

T/F: uric acid has antioxidant properties

73
Q

What is the majority of uric acid excreted into?

a. urine
b. feces

74
Q

Which of the following is the favored form at pH 7.4?

a. uric acid
b. urate anion

A

b. urate anion

75
Q

Which best describes the urate solubility?

a. more soluble with high ph
b. more soluble at low ph
c. more soluble at colder temperatures

A

a. more soluble with high ph

76
Q

Which of the following have a higher uric acid solubility?

a. men
b. women

77
Q

What’s the major cause of hyperuricemia?

a. excess meat consumption
b. overproduction of uric acid
c. under excretion of uric acid

A

c. under excretion of uric acid

78
Q

7 y/o boy comes in with compulsive self-mutilation of the head and hands, learning difficulties and involuntary muscular movements. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

79
Q

What things activates the GPAT enzyme?

80
Q

What does NOT cause higher purine?

a. higher PRPP synthase
b. HGPRT deficiency
c. lower r6p

A

c. lower r6p

(A= PRPP is a positive activator of GPAT, which is an enzyme in the purine synthesis pathway
B= HGPRT is part of the salvage pathway, which uses PRPP. If it'd deficient and not using PRPP, PRPP build up and activates GPAT
C= R6P is a driver of the formation of PRPP)
81
Q

What is identified as a therapeutic target of gout?

82
Q

How does probenecid help treat gout?

A

it increases renal clearance by acting on URAT1 receptor

83
Q

probenecid acts on which transporter?

a. OAT1
b. ABCG2
c. URAT1
d. SLC2A
e. MRP4

84
Q

Describe the relationship between allopurinol and hypoxanthine.

a. they function similarly
b. they have similar structures
c. irreversible inhibition

A

b. they have similar structures

allopurinol is an analog of hypoxanthine

85
Q

Describe the relationship between allopurinol and xanthine oxidase.

a. they function similarly
b. they have similar structures
c. irreversible inhibition

A

c. irreversible inhibition

allopurinol attaches because it looks like hypoxanthine, but then it stops the enzyme from working and doesn’t let go

86
Q

Consumption of which of the following can trigger gout?

a. cigarettes
b. candy
c. energy drink
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

(ethanol in cigarettes and fructose in candy & energy drinks can build up AMP and break down purine leading to high uric acid)

87
Q

What elevates lactic acid levels?

A 
high G6P
high AMP
high R5P
reduced HGPRT
reduced APRT
88
Q

The most common cell that creates collagen is

A

fibroblasts

89
Q

What collagen type can act as a filter?

a. fibril forming
b. network forming
c. fibril associated

A

b. network forming

90
Q

Which collagen type is most available?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7

91
Q

Which collagen type is used to make ligaments or tendons?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7

92
Q

The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents X?

a. glycine
b. hydroxyproline
c. proline
d. adenine

A

c. proline

93
Q

Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure induces a kink?

a. glycine
b. hydroxyproline
c. proline
d. adenine

A

c. proline

94
Q

Which of the following parts of the alpha chain structure is the smallest?

a. glycine
b. hydroxyproline
c. proline
d. adenine

A

a. glycine

95
Q

The alpha chain structure is Gly-X-Y. Which of the following often represents Y?

a. glycine
b. hydroxyproline
c. proline
d. adenine

A

b. hydroxyproline

96
Q

Which of the following can act to facilitate hydrogen bonding to the triple helix molecule?

a. hydroxyproline residue
d. hydroxylysine residue

A

a. hydroxyproline residue

97
Q

What do the prolyl and lysyl hydroxylase enzymes need to function?

A

alpha-ketoglutarate and vitamin C

98
Q

Which of the following prevents excessive flexibility of chains?

a. glycine
b. hydroxyproline
c. proline
d. adenine

A

c. proline

99
Q

Which can serve as the attachment point for glycosylation?

a. hydroxyproline residue
d. hydroxylysine residue

A

d. hydroxylysine residue

100
Q

What can act as a collagen synthesis marker?

A

hydroxyproline residue

hydroxylysine residue

101
Q

What happens to the alpha chains if hydroxyproline residue is lost?

A

it then has less strength because hydroxyproline helps make hydrogen bonds, which makes it more powerful

102
Q

Where are procollagen chains made?

a. ER lumen
b. RER
c. Golgi
d. Extracellular space
e. Vesicles

103
Q

Where is tropocollagen made?

a. ER lumen
b. RER
c. Golgi
d. Extracellular space
e. Vesicles

A

d. Extracellular space

104
Q

Where is the triple helix assembled?

a. ER lumen
b. RER
c. Golgi
d. Extracellular space
e. Vesicles

A

a. ER lumen
&
c. Golgi

105
Q

covalent crosslinking is done by which enzyme

A

lysine oxidase

106
Q

Which enzyme acts extracellularly?

a. prolyl hydroxylase
b. lysyl hydroxylase
c. lysine oxidase

A

c. lysine oxidase

procollagen peptidase also works extracellularly

107
Q

What type of links occurs when two allysine molecules bind?

a. schiff base link
b. aldol link

A

b. aldol link

108
Q

Whats is allysine? and how to we make it?

A

its a derivative of lysine produced by lysyl oxidase enzyme in the extracellular matrix

109
Q

Which enzyme needs copper to function?

a. procollagen peptidase
b. lysine oxidase
c. hydroxylase

A

b. lysine oxidase

110
Q

What type of links occurs when lysine and allysine bind?

a. schiff base link
b. aldol link

A

a. schiff base link

111
Q

T/F: generally speaking the life span of collagen fibers is short

A

false, collagen is very stable and can last for up to several years

112
Q

If a patient had high hydroxyproline in their urine, what can you assume?

A

high collagen degradation

113
Q

What do you call fibroblasts inside tendons?

114
Q

What is an adhesive molecule that’s associated with cell junctions?

A

fibronectin (binds collagens and integrins)

115
Q

T/F: after a tendon fully heals from an injury, and crosslinks are formed, then tendon returns to its previous strength before the injury

A

false, it becomes 30% weaker

116
Q

Which enzyme is affected when a patient has scurvy?

a. procollagen peptidase
b. lysine oxidase
c. hydroxylase

A

c. hydroxylase

117
Q

Which enzyme is affected when a patient eats too many Lathyrus odoratus?

a. procollagen peptidase
b. lysine oxidase
c. hydroxylase

A

b. lysine oxidase

118
Q

“collagen suicide” is found in which inherited disorder?

119
Q

Which collagen type is affected by epidermolysis bullosa?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7

120
Q

Which TWO collagen types are affected in EDS?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7

MSK - 3rd year (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions