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BIO 286 - Microbiology > Lab Quiz 11: Exoenzymes, White Blood Cells, and Miscellaneous Topics (Bio 286 - Microbiology) > Flashcards

Lab Quiz 11: Exoenzymes, White Blood Cells, and Miscellaneous Topics (Bio 286 - Microbiology) Flashcards

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1
Q

exoenzyme

A

enzymes that catalyze reactions outside of the cell, such as hydrolyzing macromolecules to smaller molecules for transport into cells

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2
Q

amylase

A

enzyme that hydrolyzes STARCH (AMYLOSE) (a polymer of glucose) into monomers that can be transported into cells

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3
Q

gram’s iodine to starch agar

A

reacts with remaining starch in medium to yield a brown color…. if bacteria have degraded the starch a clear zone will be observed around the bacteria and if the bacteria produced or stored starch the bacteria will stain darkly

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4
Q

positive result after adding gram’s iodine

A

CLEAR ZONE IN STARCH MEDIUM

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5
Q

negative result after adding gram’s iodine

A

no clear zone in starch medium

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6
Q

DNase

A

ability of bacteria to hydrolyze DNA in the growth medium to its component nucleotides

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7
Q

1 M HCl

A

added to DNA agar, causing DNA to come out of solution and turn the medium opaque… a clear zone around the colonies indicates that the DNA has been hydrolyzed

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8
Q

gelatinase

A

hydrolyzes gelatin (protein produced by partial hydrolysis of collagen extracted from animal tissues)…. after two days of bacterial growth, the culture is placed into an ice bucket to chill to determine if the medium resolidifies, indicating presence or lack of gelatin if it doesn’t solidify or does, respectively

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9
Q

positive result of chilling gelatin culture on ice

A

CULTURE REMAINS LIQUID

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10
Q

negative result of chilling gelatin culture on ice

A

culture gels

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11
Q

lipase

A

ability of bacteria to hydrolyze triglycerides to glycerol and fatty acids… tributryin (glycerol esterified to three butyric acids) emulsified with Polysorbate (Tween) 80 is base medium… if present, the medium around the bacteria will grow less opaque/halo around growth

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12
Q

positive result of lipase plate

A

CLEAR ZONE

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13
Q

negative result of lipase plate

A

no change in medium

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14
Q

leukocyte (white blood cell) types

A

neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophile

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15
Q

neutrophil

A

approximately 62% of white blood cells… most common white blood cell… type of granulocyte and are main phagocytic cells in circulation… lobed nucleus (3-5 lobes connected by thin strands of nuclein)

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16
Q

elevated neutrophil numbers indicates

A

microbial infection

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17
Q

lymphocyte

A

approximately 30% of white blood cells… include B-cells and T-cells of adaptive immune response

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18
Q

elevated lymphocyte numbers indicates

A

infection (or rarely cancer)

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19
Q

monocyte

A

approximately 5% of white blood cells… immune cells differentiate into tissue macrophage and dendritic cells… important antigen presenting cells

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20
Q

elevated monocyte numbers indicates

A

chronic infections

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21
Q

eosinophil

A

approximately 3% of white blood cells… cells filled with pink stained granules… function is to primarily deal with worm infections but are also associated with type I hypersensitivity (allergies)

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22
Q

elevated eosinophil numbers indicates

A

worm infection or allergies

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23
Q

basophile

A

less than 1% of white blood cells… cells filled with purple stained granules (that often obscure view of nucleus)

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24
Q

elevated basophile numbers indicates

A

anemia or microbial infections (like chicken pox)

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25
Q

what enzyme caused bubbles after addition of H2O2?

A

catalase

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26
Q

what kind of media is MSA?

A

selective and differential

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27
Q

what antibiotic is on the A disk?

A

bacitracin

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28
Q

what organism was used to inoculate the tests above?

A

staph. aureus

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29
Q

what is the target of lysozyme?

A

peptidoglycan

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30
Q

what distinguishes coliforms from non-coliforms?

A

ferment lactose

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31
Q

what color is a positive citrate agar test?

A

blue

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32
Q

what did the methyl red test check for?

A

acid production

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33
Q

which amino acid was degraded to cause a positive indole test?

A

tryptophan

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34
Q

how should a TSI tube appear if a coliform is used to inoculate it?

A

A/A

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35
Q

what compound makes EF broth selective?

A

sodium azide

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36
Q

what makes MSA a differential media?

A

mannitol

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37
Q

what color does a positive bile esculin test turn?

A

black

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38
Q

what enzyme performs this reaction: 2 H2O2 -> 2 H2O + O2

A

catalase

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39
Q

what type of hemolysis causes complete clearing of blood agar?

A

beta

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40
Q

how is wastewater disinfected at the Big Rapids plant?

A

UV light

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41
Q

what is the main purpose of secondary wastewater treatment in Big Rapids?

A

reduce biological oxygen demand

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42
Q

what did we add to our DNA plates to visualize the DNase exoenzyme action?

A

HCl

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43
Q

what type of relationship do cows have with their rumen bacteria?

A

mutualism

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44
Q

what type of relationship do bacteriophage have with bacteria?

A

parasitism

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45
Q

what term refers to the ability of some bacteria to take up naked DNA?

A

competent

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46
Q

if you filter 10 mL of undiluted water and observe 15 colonies, how many cfu/100 mL were in that sample?

A

150 cfu/mL (# of colonies * dilution factor / filter volume) x 100

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47
Q

if a water sample gave 50 blue and 10 red colonies, what would be the most likely source of contamination?

A

human feces

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48
Q

what is the phenotype of the lactose operon mutant shown to the right?

A

constitutive

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49
Q

based upon the complementation results, what is the genotype of the mutant?

A

lacI-

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50
Q

what color did our positive urea plates turn?

A

pink

51
Q

what chemical is detected in a positive voges proskauer test?

A

acetoin

52
Q

what color is a negative citrate agar test?

A

green

53
Q

which amino acid was degraded to turn the TSI tubes black?

A

cysteine

54
Q

if a microbe can ferment glucose but neither lactose nor sucrose, how would its TSI tube appear?

A

K/A

55
Q

with respect to 10 minutes and 70C, what is the thermal death point?

A

80C

56
Q

why was bacillus cereus resistant to heat killing?

A

forms endospores

57
Q

which of these scientists studied genetic transformation in bacteria?

A

griffith and avery

58
Q

what color did our fecal coliform colonies turn?

A

blue

59
Q

what makes mEA agar selective?

A

sodium azide

60
Q

what was the pore size of the filters that we used for water quality testing?

A

0.45 micrometers

61
Q

how many fecal coliforms are acceptable in treated drinking water?

A

0 cfu/100 mL

62
Q

what makes mFC media differential?

A

lactose

63
Q

what type of UV light is most germicidal?

A

UVC

64
Q

what is the most common type of damage caused by UV light in bacteria?

A

thymine dimers

65
Q

which of the following microbes was an acidophile in our lab?

A

saccharomyces cerevisiae

66
Q

which of the following microbes was most halotolerant in our lab?

A

staphylococcus aureus

67
Q

which of the following microbes was an alkalinophile in our lab?

A

alcaligenes faecalis

68
Q

which of the following microbes was a psychrophile in our lab?

A

pseudomonas fluorescens

69
Q

which of the following microorganisms was most antibiotic susceptible in our lab?

A

staphylococcus aerues

70
Q

which of the following microorganisms was most antibiotic resistant in our lab?

A

candida albicans

71
Q

where would an antiseptic most likely be used?

A

on your arm

72
Q

what is the target of streptomycin’s action?

A

70S ribosome

73
Q

germicidal soap contains triclosan. what group of chemicals includes this compound (triclosan)?

A

phenolic

74
Q

which of the following disks had a drug that these bacteria were most resistant to?

A

Disk B (largest zone of inhibition)

75
Q

what phase of growth does this culture exhibit at 40 minutes?

A

lag

76
Q

using the points at 120 and 200 minutes, what is the slope (m) of the line?

A

log (y1) - log (y2) / x1 - x2

77
Q

using the slope from previously, what is the generation time (g) of the culture in minutes?

A

g = log(2) / m

78
Q

what phase of growth does this culture exhibit at 200 minutes?

A

log

79
Q

what sort of organism grows best at 5C?

A

psychrophile

80
Q

what sort of organism grows best at pH 5?

A

acidophile

81
Q

what sort of organism requires 5% NaCl for growth?

A

halophile

82
Q

what sort of organism growth best at 60C?

A

thermophile

83
Q

suppose that you inoculated both of the plates illustrated below with the same pure bacterial culture. plate A was incubated for 48 hours at 35C in a GasPak jar. Plate B was incubated as usual in our incubator at 35C for 48 hours. what sort of microbial growth do these results suggest?

A

aerobe (only plate B had growth)

84
Q

where would this organism grow in a thioglycolate tube? (it is an aerobe)

A

top only

85
Q

what is the tube dilution factor if you add 2 mL of sample to 18 mL of diluent?

A

10x … (sample + diluent / sample)

86
Q

what is the tube dilution factor if you add 0.2 mL of sample to 0.8 mL of diluent?

A

5x … (sample + diluent / sample)

87
Q

what is the tube dilution factor of tube A above?

A

100x … (sample + diluent / sample)

88
Q

what is the tube dilution factor of tube B above?

A

50x … (sample + diluent / sample)

89
Q

what is the serial dilution factor of tube E above?

A

5x10^6 … (all TDFs multiplied together)

90
Q

what does CFU stand for?

A

colony forming units

91
Q

what term refers to the “holes” made in bacterial cultures by phage?

A

plaque

92
Q

what is the tube dilution factor for tube A below?

A

100x … (sample + diluent / sample)

93
Q

what is the serial dilution factor for tube D below?

A

10^5x … (multiply all TDFs together)

94
Q

based on the plate from tube D, how many cells were in the original flask below?

A

3.7x10^7 cfu/mL … (CFU * SDF / volume plated)

95
Q

which of the following microbes causes malaria?

A

plasmodium falciparum

96
Q

trichomonas vaginalis differs from many other protozoa because it does not form what structures?

A

cyst

97
Q

what protist is shown to the right?

A

balantidium coli

98
Q

what type of asexual spores appeared like little footballs?

A

macroconidia

99
Q

which of these fungi is “black bread mold”?

A

rhizopus stolonifer

100
Q

what fungus is illustrated in the picture to the right?

A

penicillium chrysogenum

101
Q

what does “fast” mean in acid-fast stain?

A

the primary stain does not rinse out with acid

102
Q

most motile bacteria use _____ for motility

A

flagella

103
Q

what color did mycobacterium smegmatis appear when acid-fast stained?

A

red

104
Q

what type of flagellar arrangement is illustrated to the right?

A

peritrichous

105
Q

who created the gram stain?

A

hans christian gram

106
Q

what color do gram negative cells appear?

A

pink

107
Q

what chemical acts as the primary stain in the gram stain?

A

crystal violet

108
Q

escherichia coli, a gram negative rod, appeared as purple rods when gram stained. how do you explain this result?

A

the decolorizer was not applied long enough

109
Q

what stain is used in both the gram and endospore stain?

A

saphranin

110
Q

what was the mordant for the endospore stain?

A

heat

111
Q

which plate had the most endospores on it?

A

tryptic soy agar

112
Q

what are most capsules formed from?

A

polysaccharides

113
Q

what is the function of bacterial capsules?

A

immune evasion

114
Q

which of the following bacterial genera most often form endospores?

A

clostridium and bacillus

115
Q

what color is the shortest wavelength that humans can see?

A

violet

116
Q

what does Dr. Franklund say is the most dangerous thing in our lab?

A

the bunsen burners

117
Q

what term refers to the ability to distinguish two objects as being separate?

A

resolution

118
Q

when you switch from the 10X to 40X objective, which of these increases?

A

magnification

119
Q

which of these microbe categories is the most common that we will use in our lab?

A

BSL-1

120
Q

what would the total magnification be if using a 10X ocular and 25x objective lens?

A

250x

121
Q

how would the letter q appear when viewed through our microscopes?

A

b

122
Q

what term refers to a macroscopic pile of microscopic cells?

A

colony

123
Q

what term refers to the shape and arrangement of these cells?

A

staphylococcus

124
Q

what is the size of one ocular division?

A

1.4 micrometers

BIO 286 - Microbiology (21 decks)

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