Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

bio 286 - microbiology > Exam 3: Molecular Information Flow -- Replication, Transcription, Translation; Microbial Regulatory Systems; Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea; Viral Genomics (Bio 286 - Microbiology) > Flashcards

Exam 3: Molecular Information Flow -- Replication, Transcription, Translation; Microbial Regulatory Systems; Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea; Viral Genomics (Bio 286 - Microbiology) Flashcards

1
Q

biological information

A

genetic information contained within DNA (instructions necessary to build cells); information is INDEPENDENT OF THE MEDIUM upon which it is stored or encoded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

nature of genetic material

A

MIESCHER – nuclein… GRIFFITH – transformation… AVERY/MACLEOD/McCARTY – transformation… HERSHEY and CHASE – blender experiment… CHARGAFF – the “rules” for nucleotide ratios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nucleosides

A

base + sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bases

A

adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), cytosine (C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

nucleotides

A

base + sugar + phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

purines

A

adenine and guanine… two ring structures and larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pyrimidines

A

cytosine, thymine, uracil… one ring structures and smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

franklin and wilkins

A

X-ray diffraction pattern from a DNA smear looked like an X indicating that DNA had a helical orientation… Watson and Crick used this information of crystallography and biochemistry to figure out the structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

watson and crick’s model

A

postulated anti-parallel and double stranded molecule with bases on the inside… 3.4 nm per twist, 10 bp per twist… C pairs to G (with 3 hydrogen bonds) and A pairs to T (with 2 hydrogen bonds) [equal amounts of C and G and equal amounts of A and T/U]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

two strands of DNA double helix are held together by

A

hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chargaff’s rules

A

purines match with pyrimidines: two purines would be too large and bulge and two pyrimidines would be too short to pair effectively… HYDROGEN BONDS FORMED BETWEEN NUCLEOTIDES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

both DNA strands have same amount of information

A

bases in 1 strand are complementary to those in other strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

modern central dogma

A

replication -> transcription -> translation -> modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

meselson and stahl

A

observed intermediate and light DNA after two rounds of replication in light nitrogen… proved that DNA replication is semiconservative (with old DNA always remaining)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

genome

A

complete cell DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

genotype

A

specific DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

phenotype

A

appearance and/or behaviour… a result of genotype and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

prokaryotic genome

A

circular and haploid (mostly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

positive supercoiling

A

OVERWINDING the helix; tends to be performed in archaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

negative supercoiling

A

UNDERWINDING the helix; tends to be performed in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

supercoiling

A

twists the DNA to condense it so it can fit inside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

type I topoisomerases

A

relieve torsional stress caused by supercoils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

type II topoisomerases

A

introduce negative supercoils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

archaeal topoisomerases

A

introduce positive supercoils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

DNA replication

A

semiconservative replication; copies information to complementary strand; melt double-stranded DNA; polymerize new strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

oriC

A

where replication begins; DNA is opened at this site by helicases, where polymerization follows BIDIRECTIONALLY around chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

replication steps

A
  1. DNA helicase melts DNA… 2. Helicase recruits primase… 3. primer recruits clamp loader to each strand… 4. polymerase proceeds 5’ -> 3’ on each strand… 5. RNase H removes primers… 6. both forks move to ter sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Replication Step 1. DNA helicase melts DNA

A

loader places HELICASE at each end of origin (oriC)… one helicase moves in each direction to copy genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Replication Step 2. Helicase recruits primase

A

DNA POLYMERASE needs free 3’OH end… PRIMASE begins replication by forming a RNA primer with a 3’OH for DNA to attach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Replication Step 3. Primer Recruits Clamp Loader to Each Strand

A

clamp binds DNA polymerase III to strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DNA polymerase III

A

performs most of DNA synthesis during replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RNA synthesis does not require

A

primers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Replication Step 4. Polymerase proceeds 5’ -> 3’ on each strand

A

energy for polymerization comes from phosphate groups on recently added nucleotide… only proceeds 5’ -> 3’ because 5-phosphate of incoming nucleotide is attached to free 3’OH of growing DNA strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Two Strands of a Replicating Fork

A

LEADING STRAND and LAGGING STRAND (OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

leading strand

A

follows helicase; has steady growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

lagging strand (okazaki fragments)

A

polymerase continues to previous primer…. clamp loader places primase on new site… DNA present in 1000 base pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Replication Step 5. RNase H removes Primers

A

one primer for each leading strand and many primers on lagging strands (one primer per okazaki fragment)… gaps filled in by DNA POLYMERASE I… DNA LIGASE seals nicks (creates phosphodiester bonds between nicked fragments of DNA– links okazaki fragments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Replication Step 6. Both Forks Move to ter Sites

A

movement is simultaneous… opposite directions until both meet again at terminus… REPLISOMES ARE STATIONARY… DNA is threaded through replisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

plasmids

A

EXTRACHROMOSOMAL PIECES OF DNA… LOW-COPY NUMBER (only one or two copies per cell)… HIGH COPY NUMBER (up to 500 copies per cell, divide continuously, randomly segregate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

plasmid replication

A

BIDIRECTIONAL replication (similar to chromosomal replication) or UNIDIRECTIONAL replication (“rolling circle” replication, similar to phages)… starts at nick bound by RepA protein -> provides 3’OH for replication -> helicase moves around plasmid repeatedly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

plasmid genes

A

advantageous under special conditions… ANTIBIOTIC-RESISTANCE genes, genes encoding resistance to toxic metals, genes encoding proteins to METABOLIZE rare food sources, VIRULENCE genes to allow pathogenesis, genes to allow SYMBIOSIS… contain genes that are not essential for cell growth/replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

gene

A

functional unit of genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

GTP (guanosine triphosphate)

A

provides energy for translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

transcription steps

A
  1. Initiation… 2. Elongation… 3. Termination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

transcription step 1. initiation

A

bind polymerizing machine, first monomer to template… involves DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase, and ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

transcription step 2. elongation

A

read template, add next monomer… DNA, RNA, Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

transcription step 3. termination

A

release machinery and completed product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

replication template

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

replication product

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

replication monomers

A

dA, dC, dG, dT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

replication enzyme

A

DNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

replication direction

A

5’ -> 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

replication start

A

oriC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

replication end

A

ter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

transcription template

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

transcription product

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

transcription monomers

A

A, C, G, U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

transcription enzyme

A

RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

transcription direction

A

5’ -> 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

transcription start

A

promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

transcription end

A

terminator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

translation template

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

translation product

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

translation monomers

A

A, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

translation enzyme

A

ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

translation direction

A

N -> C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

translation start

A

shine dalgarno (RBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

translation end

A

stop codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

translation enzyme

A

ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

translation enzyme

A

ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RNA polymerase

A

4 proteins in one complex (core complex – α, β, β’, ω) and becomes the holoenzyme when σ joins the complex… binds DNA, reads sequences, and polymerizes RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

sigma (σ) factor

A

guides RNA polymerase to target DNA sequence (PROMOTER) to start transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

the new RNA molecule made from the DNA template

A

is antiparallel and complementary to template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

transcription elongation

A

core polymerase adds RNA to 3’ end (energy for base addition comes from base)… the added base is complementary to template strand and mRNA has the same sequence as non-template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

RNA polymerases do not need

A

primers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

sigma 35 (σ^35) factor

A

heat shock response factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

transcription rho-dependent termination

A

Rho (ρ) factor binds to mRNA… slides along mRNA up to polymerase… breaks polymerase, mRNA off of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Rho (ρ) factor

A

protein serving to terminate transcription in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Rho-independent termination

A

series of U residues downstream of pause site… DNA-RNA UA base pairs are least stable… even less stable of polymerase is stalled… mRNA breaks off of DNA and polymerase released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

termination of RNA synthesis is ultimately determined by

A

specific nucleotide sequences on template strand of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

operon

A

allows coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

mRNA

A

messenger codes for peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

rRNA

A

ribosomal structure and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

tRNA

A

transfers amino acids to ribosome during translation… adapters between nucleic acid and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

snRNA

A

small nuclear (splicing of message)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

miRNA

A

microRNAs (regulate expression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CRISPR

A

prokaryotic “immune system” – RNA based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

genetic code

A

consists of nucleotide triplets called CODONS– 61 specify amino acids (START CODONS – aka sense codons // STOP CODONS – aka nonsense codons)… code is degenerate/redundant (multiple codons can encode same amino acid)… code operates universally across species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

tRNA structure

A

specific shape with a 3-base anticodon arm (which base pairs to codons in mRNA) and an amino acid attachment site (proteins use the aminoacyl-tRNA transferase to add amino acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

ribosome

A

PROTEIN POLYMERASE… very large molecular machine with 2 subunits, 52 proteins, and 3 rRNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

ribosome active site

A

70S ribosome harbors three binding sites for tRNA – A site, P site, and E site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A (acceptor) site

A

binds incoming aminoacyl-tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

P (peptidyl-tRNA) site

A

harbors the tRNA with growing polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

E (exit) site

A

binds a tRNA recently stripped of its polypeptide; where tRNA is released from ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

translation step 1. initiation

A

performed only once… IF1 and IF3… starts at the shine dalgarno sequence… 16S rRNA… IF2 and tRNA-FMET… GTP hydrolyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

translation step 2. elongation

A

EF-Tu and tRNA… enter A site… transpeptidation… EF-G… translocation…. 3 GTP per amino acid added

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

initiation of translation is prevented by

A

tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

elongation of translation is prevented by

A

mycins (streptomycin, erythromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

translation step 3. termination

A

stop codon encountered… TAA, TAG, TGA… RF1 and RF2… peptide released… RF3 ejects RF1 and RF2… RRF dissociates subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

coupled transcription and translation is performed by

A

archaea, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

coupling of transcription and translation

A

TRANSCRIPTION CREATES mRNA –> MULTIPLE mRNAs MADE FROM A SINGLE GENE…. RIBOSOMES BIND mRNA –> WHILE mRNA IS STILL BEING CREATED… multiple proteins made rapidly from each mRNA, which is the advantage of not having a nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

coupling of transcription and translation cannot occur in eukaryotes because

A

ribosomes are outside of nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

eukaryotic expression

A

partitioning of steps… RNA splicing (to remove INTRONS from EXONS)… no operons are present… multifunctional proteins are formed… modular approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

exons

A

protein coding regions of eukaryotic genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

eukaryotic transcription occurs in

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

RNA splicing

A

removes introns from the primary RNA transcript to form the mature mRNA of exons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

protein modification

A

enzymes modify translated proteins… fMet removed from N-terminus… small groups added to amino acids (PHOSPHORYL, METHYL, or ADENYLATE groups added)… protein may be cleaved or refolded by helping enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

protein structure is determined by

A

amino acid sequence (causing spontaneous folding) and CHAPERONES (refolds denatured proteins using ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

transcription of chaperones is greatly accelerated when

A

a cell is stressed by excessive heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

protein transport

A

many bacterial proteins reside in cytoplasm while others are targeted to other sites (plasma membrane, periplasm, gram (-) outer membrane, secreted outside of bacterium)… SIGNAL SEQUENCE TARGETS PROTEINS FOR TRANSPORT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

type II secretion system

A

N-TERMINAL AMINO ACIDS bound by SecB… targets ribosome to SecA complex… energy dependent efflux to periplasm… moves across one membrane (to periplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

type I secretion system

A

secretes protein out of bacterium… many other secretion systems known… moves across two/both membranes to leave cell

114
Q

proteasomes

A

degrade proteins that are flagged as damaged

115
Q

ubiquitin

A

adds signal to proteins/tag causes degradation of proteins (by signaling that protein is damaged/nonfunctioning)

116
Q

regulating gene expression

A

microbes RESPOND to changing environment by altering growth rate, proteins produced, and behaviour… so they must be able to sense their environment, needing RECEPTORS to transmit information to chromosome… and when they need to change enzyme function they do so through TRANSCRIPTIONAL, translational, and post-translational mechanisms

117
Q

two component regulatory systems are useful for controlling gene expression in response to environmental signals because

A

phosphorylation is a permanent change so genes are always turned on after signal

118
Q

two component signal transduction

A

SENSOR KINASE protein in plasma membrane, which binds to signal (can respond to membrane fluidity)… and cytoplasmic RESPONSE REGULATOR, which alters transcription rate of chromosomal genes (specific to phosphorylation)

119
Q

sensor kinases that respond to extracellular signals transfer

A

histidine signal to cytoplasmic membrane machinery by typically phosphorylating residues

120
Q

organism that would likely harbor the most two-component regulatory systems

A

bacterium occupying a heterogeneous niche with high nutrient mixing

121
Q

sigma factor initiates transcription by RNA at

A

PROMOTER

122
Q

regulatory proteins

A

bind to OPERATOR sequences

123
Q

activators

A

bind to operator and increase strength of gene’s transcription

124
Q

repressors

A

bind to operator and lower strength of gene’s transcription

125
Q

gel mobility shift

A

-DNA moves through a gel faster when it is not bound to protein (supershift) and less shifting with less competing factors
-Gel shift assays detect interaction between protein and DNA by reduction of the electrophoretic mobility of a small DNA bound to a protein.

126
Q

E.coli Lac operon

A

LACTOSE (milk sugar) is used for food, but cannot pass through plasma membrane – LACTOSE PERMEASE allows entry, with PMF used to bring lactose inside cell… must be converted to glucose to be CATABOLIZED… beta-galactosidase (lac-Z) converts lactose to glucose…. operon consists of lacZ, lacY, and lacA

127
Q

two regulators controlling one operon must respond to different signals

A

which enables both to control operon differently

128
Q

operon

A

group of coordinately expressed and regulated genes associated with common purpose

129
Q

lacZ

A

gene encodes beta-galactosidase

130
Q

lacY

A

gene encodes lactose permease

131
Q

lacA

A

gene encodes a transacetylase

132
Q

E.coli lac operon (with no lactose)

A

REPRESSOR protein LacI blocks transcription… repressor binds to operator and blocks sigma factor from binding promoter

133
Q

lactose operon on with glucose and on with lactose occurs in

A

a Lac knock-out mutant

134
Q

mutation in gene encoding the lactose repressor (LacI) that prevents lactose from binding to the LacI protein would result in

A

constant repression of lac operon in presence of lactose

135
Q

E.coli lac operon (with lactose)

A

repressor responds to presence of lactose… binds inducer (ALLOLACTOSE) or DNA (not both) and adds lactose, causing the REPRESSOR TO FALL OFF OPERATOR

136
Q

catabolite repression leads to

A

leads to a bacterium using up glucose before using any lactose (choosing its carbon source)

137
Q

diauxic growth

A

biphasic curve of a culture growing on two carbon sources

138
Q

catabolite repression

A

operon enabling catabolism of one nutrient is repressed by presence of a more favorable nutrient (commonly GLUCOSE– the easiest sugar to catabolize)…. glucose is transported using a PHOSPHOTRANSFERASE system… presence of glucose affects an internal signal (cAMP)…. IIA^Glc inhibits ADENYLATE CYCLASE and reduces internal cAMP pool… ie, HIGH GLUCOSE -> LOW cAMP

139
Q

cAMP

A

secondary messenger molecule formed by adenylate cyclase

140
Q

adenylate cyclase

A

turns off with high glucose… synthesizes cyclic cAMP from ATP, which is involved in catabolite repression

141
Q

cAMP affects transcription

A

maximum expression of lac operon requires presence of cAMP and cAMP RECEPTOR PROTEIN (CRP)… CRP is an INDUCER of lac operon

142
Q

inducer exclusion

A

glucose transport also inhibits lactose transport – IIA^Glu uncouples LacY [when glucose is present, LacY is off]… few transporters that are present are no longer functional

143
Q

arabinose operon control

A

ara operon… AraC acts as REPRESSOR to block transcription –> when arabinose is added, CONFORMATION IS CHANGED so that it now acts as an ACTIVATOR, stimulating binding of RNA polymerase

144
Q

Trp Operon Transcription

A

Trp operon contains 5 genes to make TRYPTOPHAN… is ONLY EXPRESSED IN ABSENCE OF TRYPTOPHAN… OPPOSITE OF LAC REPRESSOR… Trp APOREPRESSOR must bind to tryptophan in order to bind the operator as the HOLOREPRESSOR

145
Q

TrpR

A

exhibits negative repression

146
Q

attenuation

A

type of regulation that can control transcriptional activity exclusively; regulatory mechanism in which translation of a LEADER PEPTIDE affects transcription of a downstream structural gene

147
Q

attenuation does not depend on

A

conformational change in protein/enzyme structure to change activity

148
Q

attenuation of Trp operon

A

ATTENUATOR region of trp operon has 2 trp codons and is capable of forming stem-loop structures

149
Q

mechanism of attenuation in high tryptophan levels

A
  1. ribosome translates through trp codons and encounters translation stop codon… 2. ribosome stops, covering mRNA regions (and polymerase continues to transcribe regions 3 and 4— 3:4 TERMINATION LOOP FORMS– ATTENUATOR STEM LOOP)… 3. 3:4 loop binds RNA polymerase and causes its release before reaching trpE
150
Q

mechanism of attenuation in low tryptophan levels

A
  1. ribosome translates leader… 2. scarce tRNA*p makes ribosome stall at Trp codons and polymerase continues through attenuator… 3. stalled ribosome covers region 1, allowing 2:3 STEM LOOP (ANTI-ATTENUATOR STEM LOOP) to form, where the less energetically favorable 3:4 loop cannot form…. 4. polymerase transcribes TrpE
151
Q

riboswitches

A

METABOLITE DIRECTLY BOUND BY mRNA… induced CONFORMATIONAL CHANGE… results in either 1) TRANSCRIPTION TERMINATION, 2) RIBOSOME EXCLUSION, or 3) mRNA DEGRADATION

152
Q

control of bacteriophage lambda– lytic cycle

A

phage quickly replicates and kills host cell… generally lytic when host conditions are good or conditions are very bad (ex: cell damaged)

153
Q

control of bacteriophage lambda– lysogenic cycle

A

phage is quiescent… may integrate into host cell genome… replicates only when host genome divides…. generally lysogenic in moderate cell conditions… phage can reactivate to become lytic and kill host

154
Q

λ cI repressor prevents lytic cycle

A

binds to Or operator to block Pr promoter (prevents synthesis of cro protein)… binds to block Pl promoter (prevents synthesis of downstream lytic proteins)

155
Q

Cro protein prevents synthesis of cI

A

represses Prm promoter (blocks synthesis of cI)… activator for Pl promoter (stimulates lytic protein synthesis)

156
Q

more cI

A

LYSOGENY

157
Q

more Cro

A

LYSIS

158
Q

cro (regulatory protein)

A

favors the lytic cycle in lambda phage

159
Q

lysis vs lysogeny for bacteriophage lambda

A

depends on multiplicity of infection (MOI) – high MOI -> cII made, stimulating cI synthesis (turns off lytic and turns on lysogeny)… low MOI -> cII degraded by cell protease…. stationary phase -> cII accumulates, cI made, so lysogeny is favored

160
Q

logarithmic growth favors

A

lysis

161
Q

ways eukaryotic gene regulation differs from prokaryotes

A

most genes are CONTROLLED INDIVIDUALLY… presence of INTRONS… use of DIFFERENT RNA POLYMERASES… use of generalized and specialized transcription factors… bind to regulatory DNA sequences called ENHANCERS and SILENCERS

162
Q

three codons in the genetic table code for

A

STOP

163
Q

homoserine lactones are involved in

A

quorum sensing in Gram Negative bacteria

164
Q

when regulatory protein binds positively (on) and has catabolic induction (on) when substrate is present

A

CRP

165
Q

when regulatory protein binds negatively (off) and has catabolic induction (on) when substrate is present

A

LacI

166
Q

when regulatory protein binds negatively (off) and has anabolic repression (off) when substrate is present

A

TrpR

167
Q

alternative sigma factors can be controlled by

A

ALTERED TRANSCRIPTION, TRANSLATION, PROTEOLYSIS, and ANTI-SIGMA FACTORS

168
Q

alternative sigma factors examples

A

HEAT SHOCK, SPORULATION, or FLAGELLA SYNTHESIS

169
Q

RpoH sigma 32

A

heat shock response genes

170
Q

functions of heat shock proteins

A

degradation of denatured proteins; responding to exposure to high levels of ethanol; prevention of inappropriate protein subunit aggregation

171
Q

heat shock respiration

A

1) at 30 degrees C, RpoH is transcribed but the secondary structure of mRNA hides the ribosome binding site; very little σ^H is made…. 2) DnaK-DnaJ-GrpE chaperones shunt σ^H to degradation… 3) at 42 degrees C, the secondary structure melts and ribosomes can more easily bind and translate σ^H… 4) at 42 degrees C, proteins denature from their native folded forms to their unfolded forms. the unfolded forms are bound by DnaK-DnaJ-GrpE (meanwhile, chaperones refold denatured proteins)…. 5) freed from DnaK-DnaJ-GrpE, σ^H is not degraded and can drive expression of heat-shock genes

172
Q

components of two-component signal transduction pathway

A

histidine kinase and response regulator

173
Q

phosphorylation

A

method of protein modification in a two-component signal cascade

174
Q

endospore formation

A

sigma cascade… PRO-SIGMA PROCESSING used by mother cell and ANTI-SIGMA FACTORS used by endospore… cross talk between mother cell and endospore (mediated by sigma factor through use of protease)…. coordination of cell activities

175
Q

σ^F and σ^G

A

sequestered as anti-sigma factors used by endospore

176
Q

small regulatory RNA (sRNA)

A

found within bacterial intergenic regions and REGULATE THE TRANSCRIPTION or STABILITY OF mRNAs… ANTISENSE nature of sRNA allows these molecules to bind mRNA… can either STABILIZE the target mRNA or MAKE IT SUSCEPTIBLE TO DEGRADATION… exert their effects by base pairing with other RNA molecules that have regions of complementary sequence

177
Q

DNA rearrangement

A

some microbes use gene regulation to periodically change their appearance in a process called PHASE VARIATION (such as with flagellar proteins in Salmonella enterica)… OCCURS BY GENE INVERSION…. invertible PROMOTER SWITCH regulates two genes encoding different flagellin types, with expression depending upon its orientation

178
Q

phase variation of flagellar proteins (flagellin H1 or H2) in Salmonella enterica

A
  1. promoter drives transcription of FijB and FijA… 2. salmonella expresses H2 flagellin… 3. FijA expresses FliC… 4. Hin recombinase is made and binds to hix sequences… 5. Hin dimer brings Hix regions together and then breaks/rejoins ends to invert whole sequence… 6. promoter is in wrong orientation… 7. after DNA inversion, Salmonella expresses H1 flagellin
179
Q

riboswitches

A

possibly one of earliest forms of metabolic regulation that evolved

180
Q

chemotaxis

A

behaviour in which motile bacteria swim towards favorable environments (CHEMOATTRACTANTS) or away from unfavorable environments (CHEMOREPELLANTS)… occurs through use of a modified two component system

181
Q

direction of flagella motor rotation determines type of movement

A

counterclockwise rotation results in smooth swimming/running and clockwise rotation results in tumbling

182
Q

default setting for flagella rotation in E.coli is

A

counterclockwise

183
Q

when conditions become favorable, flagella rotate

A

counterclockwise

184
Q

methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)

A

sensitivity set by methylation; transmit a signal to regulate a switch

185
Q

when MCP proteins have methyl groups added

A

they become less sensitive (the more methyls added, the more decreased sensitivity)

186
Q

nitrogen regulation

A

glutamine synthase (GlnA) uses nitrogen (NH4+) to convert glutamate into glutamine

187
Q

excess glutamine

A

excess nitrogen present

188
Q

excess glutamate

A

scarce amount of nitrogen present

189
Q

GlnA regulation

A

GENETIC CONTROL – two component (glutamine synthetase makes glutamine when there are low levels of nitrogen– excess glutamate)… BIOCHEMICAL CONTROL – post-translational (glutamine synthetase is inactivated when AMP is added to GlnA in high levels of nitrogen– excess glutamine)

190
Q

regulation of enzyme activity occurs

A

posttranslationally

191
Q

quorum sensing

A

bacteria respond to CELL DENSITY… discovered in Vibrio fuscheri (a BIOLUMINESCENT bacterium that colonizes the light organ of Hawaiian squid)

192
Q

Quorum Sensing Mechanism

A

induction requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an AUTOINDUCER… at a certain extracellular concentration, the secreted autoinducer is detected, and the signal then alters gene expression (for bioluminescence, or virulence)

193
Q

the greater the cell density

A

the more autoinducer secreted

194
Q

transcriptome

A

constitutes all of a cell’s mRNA MOLECULES; continually changes in response to a changing environment

195
Q

proteome

A

constitutes all of a cell’s PROTEINS; continually changes in response to a changing environment

196
Q

DNA microarray (gene array)

A

can simultaneously examine the expression of every gene in the cell… uses a DNA MICROCHIP (DNA fragments from every ORF in a genome are affixed to separate locations on a solid support surface, producing a grid/array)… used to analyze RNA extracted from microbes grown under two different environmental conditions (COMPLEMENTARY DNA (cDNA) is made first)

197
Q

gene chips

A

used in microarray… a technique to study transcriptomics

198
Q

two dimensional gel electrophoresis

A

used to view and capture fluctuations in proteome… the first dimension separates proteins by ISOELECTRIC POINT and the second dimension further separates proteins by MOLECULAR WEIGHT

199
Q

2D gels

A

technique used to study proteomics

200
Q

identifying proteins from a 2D gel

A
  1. proteins extracted from bacterial culture… 2. 2D electrophoresis… 3. spots of interest cut out of gel… 4. protein spot isolated… 5. protease added to digest protein… 6. peptides produced…. 7. analysis by mass spectrometry… 8. mass calculations provide molecular weight of each peptide… 9. protein identified by sum of its peptide masses
201
Q

bacterial chromosome

A

repository of most genes in cell… genotype affects cell’s phenotype… must be transferred vertically to progeny, but could also be transferred horizontally… important for rapid dissemination of favorable traits (ex: drug resistance)

202
Q

DNA sequence is not static

A

can be altered through mutations of single bases, large deletions, or large insertions of sequence (transferred from other species)… maintained via interaction with environment (with survival determined by having appropriate genes for specific environment

203
Q

plasmids

A

small circular DNA…. autonomously replicating… multiple copies per cell… can be transferred between cells… associated with antibiotic resistance (R)… commonly used in molecular biology

204
Q

transforming principle

A

GRIFFITH’s experiments with infections of mice using strains of streptomyces (ROUGH and SMOOTH colony types) [with the smooth phenotype due to capsule protection]

205
Q

AVERY, MacLeod, McCarty

A

extended Griffith’s transforming principles– fractionated killed cells, using enzymes to destroy factors: protease and RNase had no effect and permitted transformation to still occur, but removing DNase cause no transformation to occur, demonstrating that DNA is needed for transformation – DNA IS THE TRANSFORMING MATERIAL

206
Q

competence

A

ability to TAKE UP EXOGENOUS DNA; requires special proteins such as cell wall autolysin… some bacteria naturally contain this ability while others need to be coaxed (such as with calcium chloride, heat shock, and electroporation)

207
Q

genetic transformation

A

competent cells (natural or artificial) + NAKED DNA taken up, incorporated, and expressed

208
Q

in conjugation, the donor cell

A

survives the genetic transfer

209
Q

F (fertility) plasmid

A

contains a set of genes that encode for the pili proteins that are essential in conjugative transfer of DNA

210
Q

F+ strains

A

have the F factor as a plasmid

211
Q

conjugation

A

plasmid-directed transfer REQUIRES CELL CONTACT

212
Q

if F plasmid is not integrated into chromosome,

A

cell surface receptors change, preventing uptake of more plasmids through conjugation

213
Q

Hfr strains

A

(high frequency of recombination); INTEGRATED F FACTOR… conjugal transfer… chromosomal genes introduced/incorporation of new genes into chromosome… this state is most similar to lysogeny

214
Q

episomes

A

plasmids that can incorporate

215
Q

transduction types

A

generalized and specialized

216
Q

generalized transduction

A

involves a LYTIC PHAGE… infection as usual -> mistaken packaging of host gene -> defective gene -> the defective phage binds -> inserts DNA -> no new viruses made -> incorporation into genome… so, the host DNA is packaged into a bacteriophage

217
Q

specialized transduction

A

involves a LYSOGENIC PHAGE…inserts as prophage -> aberrant excision -> picks up adjacent host gene -> defective phage…. MINIMAL AMOUNT OF GENETIC INFO NEEDED: ALT REGION, COS SITE, and HELPER PHAGE

218
Q

lysogeny carries a strong selective advantage for the host cell

A

because it confers resistance to infection by viruses of the same type

219
Q

defense against transferred DNA

A

bacteria cut entering DNA to pieces– cut at specific RESTRICTION SITES… bacteria add METHYL GROUPS to DNA – prevents restriction at those sites, added as cell replicates chromosome… entering DNA is destroyed– unless coming from a similar species or has methyl groups protecting DNA

220
Q

transformation distinction

A

needs naked DNA

221
Q

conjugation distinction

A

needs cell contact

222
Q

transduction distinction

A

involves bacteriophage

223
Q

methods of introducing foreign DNA into a recipient

A

transformation, conjugation, transduction

224
Q

DNase

A

will inhibit transformation

225
Q

0.2 micrometer membrane filter

A

will disrupt conjugation

226
Q

recombination

A

entering DNA replaces chromosomal DNA… if sequence is overall similar, DNA enters via transformation, conjugation, or transduction – replaces variable-sized section of DNA, or USED TO REPAIR DAMAGED DNA… requires specific recombination proteins– RecA, RecBCD, and RUVAB

227
Q

RecA

A

catalyzes integration of linear transforming DNA into the chromosome

228
Q

mutations

A

mistakes made during replication or damage to DNA

229
Q

mutations where the wrong bases are incorporated

A

TRANSITION – little to little bases, most common // TRANSVERSION – little to big or big to little bases

230
Q

mutants

A

organisms containing mutations

231
Q

mutagens

A

increase error rate or mutations

232
Q

auxotroph

A

mutant strain with an additional nutritional requirement for growth

233
Q

mutagens cause mutations

A

electromagnetic radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, UV light)… spontaneous tautomers during replication… chemicals (analogs of bases, base-modifying chemicals (nitrosoguanidine, nitrous acid), intercalators insert between bases (causing frameshift mutations)

234
Q

point mutations

A

a single base is altered in the sequence; includes silent, missense, and nonsense mutations

235
Q

silent mutation

A

no change in amino acid sequence from change to codon sequence; most tolerated mutation

236
Q

missense mutation

A

a change in amino acid sequence to another amino acid sequence due to change to the codon sequence

237
Q

nonsense mutation

A

a change in amino acid sequence to a STOP sequence due to change to codon sequence; least tolerated/worst phenotype

238
Q

5-Bromouracil mutagenesis

A

A base becomes a G base – TRANSITION MUTATION

239
Q

measuring mutagen strength

A

AMES TEST created by Bruce Ames, uses Salmonella typhimurium to test mutagens– His- mutant strain grown in absence of histidine and loo for reversion to His+

240
Q

frame shift mutations

A

genetic recombination involving insertion sequence– adding/deleting 1 or 2 bases knocks the sequence out of frame so that the same protein is no longer made

241
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

results from in-frame deletion

242
Q

potential reading frames

A

three reading frames in forward direction and three reading frames in reverse direction due to the reading of triplet codons

243
Q

DNA repair mechanisms

A

MISMATCH REPAIR (mispaired base cut out of strand, strand without methyl group is newer and assumed to be in error)… THYMIDINE DIMERS (induced by UV, cut out by UVrAB complex)… damaged bases (excised by specific enzymes, replaced by DNA polymerase I)… RECOMBINATIONAL REPAIR (occurs just after strand has replicated, undamaged strand is copied and replaced damaged strand, catalyzed by RecA recombinase)… SOS REPAIR (extensive DNA damage inactivates LexA, activation of many repair genes, rapid polymerization of DNA, error-prone but better than no repair)

244
Q

horizontal gene transfer

A

movement of genes between cells through transformation, conjugation, or transduction

245
Q

effects of gene transfer

A

spreads useful genes among bacteria– antibiotic resistance genes (spread wherever antibiotics are overused), pathogenicity islands (encode genes for cell to act as pathogen), genes to degrade special metabolites

246
Q

a gene located on a chromosome would be

A

least likely to be transferred

247
Q

evolutionary relatedness of life

A

archaea share many genes with bacteria and share other genes with only eukaryotes (midway between bacteria and eukarya)… difficult to discern bacterial history (genes in one cell may not have been inherited from parents as it could be obtained instead from other bacteria and bacterial species are related through lateral transfer as well as parentage)

248
Q

transformation requirements

A

competence, naked DNA, any gene

249
Q

conjugation requirements

A

plasmid with a pilus, direct contact, bias for certain genes

250
Q

transduction requirements

A

phage

251
Q

generalized transduction requirements

A

lytic, any gene

252
Q

specialized transduction requirements

A

lysogenic, biased for genes

253
Q

mobilome

A

total of all mobile genetic elements in a cell’s genome; includes SELF SPLICING RNA (enzymatic genetic elements), TRANSPOSONS (mobile genetic elements), PLASMIDS (autonomous genetic elements), and VIRUSES (infectious genetic elements)

254
Q

how extensive the mobilome is

A

all (or very nearly all) cells have mobile genes– 50% OF HUMAN GENOME IS MOBILE GENETIC ELEMENTS… 90% of wheat genome, but 2% of E.coli genome (but majority of plasmids)

255
Q

group II introns

A

catalytic genes… LARGE RIBOZYMES and SELF SPLICING… found in all domains, forms a lariat, and the ancestor of mRNA splicing

256
Q

transposition

A

site-specific recombination event

257
Q

kinds of transposable elements

A

DNA TRANSPOSONS (insertion sequences, transposons, and conjugate transposons) and RETROTRANSPOSONS (retrons (msDNA), SINE, LINE, and LTR)

258
Q

insertion sequences (IS elements)

A

type of DNA transposon– INVERTED TERMINAL REPEATS… TRANSPOSASE… REPLICATIVE OR NON-REPLICATIVE TRANSPOSITION

259
Q

transposons

A

type of DNA transposon– COMPOSITE (capture an intervening gene– is between two IS elements) or COMPLEX (gene with element– within an IS element)

260
Q

enzyme transposase may be coded for by insertion sequences

A

on a chromosome, phage, or plasmid

261
Q

transposase

A

enzyme used to mobilize insertion sequences in bacteria

262
Q

conjugative transposons

A

type of DNA transposon– SXT encodes sulfa-drug resistance, mobile element (transposon), excise to circular form, encodes genes for conjugal transfer

263
Q

genomic islands

A

provide evidence for horizontal gene transfer; altered G and C percent composition; includes PATHOGENICITY ISLANDS, SYMBIOSIS ISLANDS, and FITNESS ISLANDS

264
Q

retrons

A

type of retrotransposon– ms-DNA – SATALLITE DNA IN PROKARYOTES… widely distributed in bacteria and archaea, made by reverse transcriptase.. BOTH ssDNA AND ssRNA base paired together… not yet proven to be mobile and have no known function

265
Q

SINE

A

type of retrotransposon – SHORT INTERSPERSED ELEMENTS… <500 base bairs, short… 1,500,000 in human genome (11%)– MOST NUMEROUS IN GENOME… RNA polymerase III genes… Alv SEQUENCES… no RTase gene… mobilizable… COMPOSITE SINES

266
Q

LINE

A

type of retrotransposon– LONG INTERSPACED ELEMENTS… up to 9,000 base pairs… 500,000 in human genome (17%)… RNA polymerase II genes… code for RTase… replicates transposition

267
Q

LTR

A

type of retrotransposon– LONG TERMINAL REPEATS… is missing Env (but has pol and Gag retroviral components)… around 500,000 in human genome (8%)… RTase gene… SIMILAR TO RETROVIRUSES… LACK ENVELOPE PROTEINS

268
Q

plasmids

A

RETROPLASMID (rare, found in some fungal mitochondria); copy number variation (1 to hundreds); EPISOMES; CONJUGATION

269
Q

addiction modules

A

toxin-antitoxin set on plasmid… ANTITOXIN IS UNSTABLE… if the plasmid is lost from the cell: protease destroys antitoxin, toxin is activated, and the cell dies -> PLASMID ENSURES THAT CELL DOES NOT LOSE THE PLASMID (the cell becomes “addicted” to having the toxic plasmid)

270
Q

bacteriophage

A

CIRCULAR genomes… ROLLING CIRCLE replication… LYTIC phage… TEMPERATE phage… requires host cell machinery… CAN MOBILIZE HOST GENES

271
Q

herpes virus (class I)

A

binding -> membrane fusion -> inject through nuclear pore (viral genes get inside nucleus) -> rolling circle replication -> early genes (decision) -> late genes (assembly) -> acquire envelope from nuclear membrane (or ER or golgi) -> exocytosis

272
Q

parvovirus (class II)

A

ssDNA…. use host DNA polymerase… ROLLING HAIRPIN mechanism to deal with ends

273
Q

most RNA viruses replicate and assemble in the

A

cytoplasm

274
Q

EHDV (class III)

A

double stranded RNA… binding and viropexis… remains in cytoplasm (never uncoats)… viral proteins from virus factories… negative strand RF… assemble and synthesize positive strand

275
Q

poliovirus (class IV)

A

binding -> viropexis -> ER vesicles form -> viral RDRP made (RNA dependent RNA polymerase) -> minus strand RF -> 50,000 positive strands -> late genes -> assembly -> exit (By lysis)

276
Q

influenza virus (class V)

A

bind via HA -> viropexis -> membrane fusion -> viral RDPR pre-made -> enter nucleus -> minus strand RF -> plus strand progeny made by viral polymerase -> cap snatching -> exit via budding (NA)

277
Q

influenza variation

A

segmented genome… ANTIGENIC DRIFT (slow, accumulation of mutations over a season) or ANTIGENIC SHIFT (reassortment/new combination of strains to form new strains with various affects– rapid appearances of novel strains)

278
Q

(antigenetic) genetic shift

A

recombines gene fragments during infection

279
Q

HIV (class VI)

A

bind CD4/CCR -> reverse transcriptase (takes RNA to make DNA) [ +RNA -> -DNA -> dsDNA ] -> circularize -> integrate -> expression -> assembly -> budding

280
Q

HBV (class VII)

A

dsDNA… bind and entry -> repairs in nucleus -> mRNA -> assembly -> reverse transcriptase [+RNA -> -DNA -> sdDNA] -> exit

281
Q

dependent viruses

A

VIROPHAGES OF MIMIVIRUS (mimicking viruses , obligate parasites)… DEFECTIVE VIRUSES (unable to cause an infection by themselves, requiring another virus for replication)

282
Q

hepatitis D

A

defective virus… needs HBV envelope protein… cannot package its core by itself

bio 286 - microbiology (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions