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A+P 2 > Lab Exam: 40,41,42 > Flashcards

Lab Exam: 40,41,42 Flashcards

1
Q

List the two principal functions of the testis

A

1) To produce sperm 2)To produce testosterone

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2
Q

Copulatory organ/ penetrating device

A

Penis

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3
Q

Muscular passageway conveying sperm to the ejaculatory duct; in the spermatic cord.

A

Ductus (Vas) Deferens

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4
Q

Distal urethra that transports both sperm and urine.

A

Spongy Urethra

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5
Q

Sperm maturation site.

A

Epididymis

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6
Q

Location of testis in adult males.

A

Scrotum

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7
Q

Loose fold of skin encircling the glans penis.

A

Prepuce

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8
Q

Portion of the urethra that is located in the urogenital diaphragm.

A

Intermediate part of the urethra

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9
Q

Empties a secretion into the prostatic urethra.

A

Prostate

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10
Q

Empties a secretion into the intermediate part of the urethra.

A

Bulbo-urethral glands

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11
Q

<p>Of what importance is the fact that seminal fluid is alkaline?</p>

A

<p>Seminal fluid is alkaline, which buffers the sperm against the acidity of the female vagina.</p>

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12
Q

Which structures compose the spermatic cord? (5)

A

The ductus (vas) deferens, blood vessels, nerves, lymph vessels, and connective tissue sheaths compose the spermatic cord.

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13
Q

Trace the pathway of sperm from the testes to the urethra.

A

Seminiferous tubule-> rete testis-> epididymis-> Ductus deferens.

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14
Q

<p>Name the structures composing the external genitalia, or vulva, of the female. (8)</p>

A

<p>The external genitalia (vulva) consists of the

1. mons pubis
2. labia majora
3. labia minora
4. clitoris
5. external urethral orifice
6. vaginal orifice
7. hymen
8. greater vestibular glands</p>

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15
Q

Site of fetal development

A

Uterus

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16
Q

Copulatory canal

A

Vagina

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17
Q

Egg typically fertilized here

A

Uterine (fallopian) tube

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18
Q

<p>Becomes erect during sexual excitement (female)</p>

A

<p>Clitoris</p>

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19
Q

Duct extending from ovaries to the uterus

A

Uterine (fallopian) tube

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20
Q

Partially closes the vaginal opening; a membrane

A

Hymen

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21
Q

Produces oocytes, estrogen’s, and progesterone

A

Ovaries

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22
Q

Fingerlike ends of the uterine tube

A

Fimbriae

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23
Q

Trace the pathway of the sperm through the female reproductive tract.

A

It enters the vagina-> then into the cervix-> then into the uterus-> then into the uterine tube-> and into the peritoneal cavity.

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24
Q

The testis is divided into a number of lobes by connective tissue. Each of these lobes contains one to four…

A

highly coiled seminiferous tubules, which converge to empty sperm into another set of tubules called the rete testis.

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25
Q

<p>What is the function of the cavernous bodies seen in the penis?</p>

A

<p>This tissue can become engorged with blood, thus making the penis stiff and more effective as a penetrating device.</p>

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26
Q

<p>Name the 3 layers of the uterine wall from the inside out</p>

A

<p>Endometrium->myometrium->perimetrium</p>

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27
Q

Which of these is sloughed during menses?

A

Endometrium

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28
Q

Which part of the uterus contracts during birth?

A

Myometrium

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29
Q

<p>Describe the epithelium found in the uterine tube.</p>

A

<p>A ciliated secretory epithelium lines the uterine tube.</p>

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30
Q

Describe the arrangement of the layers of smooth muscle in the seminal gland.

A

an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle surround the seminal gland

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31
Q

What is the function of the stereocilia exhibited by the epithelial cells of the mucosa of the epididymis*?

A

to absorb excess fluid and provide nutrients to the maturing sperm.

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32
Q

Glands that produce milk during lactation.

A

Alveoli

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33
Q

Subdivision of mammary lobes that contains alveoli.

A

Lobule

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34
Q

Enlarged storage chamber for milk.

A

Lactiferous Sinus

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35
Q

Duct connecting alveoli to the storage chambers.

A

Lactiferous duct

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36
Q

Pigmented area surrounding the nipple.

A

Areola

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37
Q

Releases milk to the outside.

A

Nipple

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38
Q

The kidney is referred to as an excretory organ because it excretes _________ wastes.

A

Nitrogenous

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39
Q

It is also a major homeostatic organ because it maintains the electrolyte, ___1___ and ___2___ balance of the blood.

A

1, water 2.fluid

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40
Q

Urine is continuously formed by the structural and functional units of the kidneys, the _______

A

nephrons

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41
Q

Urine is routed down the ___1__ by the mechanism of __2___ to a storage organ called the __3___.

A
  1. Ureters 2. Peristalsis 3. Bladder
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42
Q

In the male, the urethra is __1___ centimeters long and transports both urine and _____.

A
  1. approx. 20 centimeters (approx. 8 inches) 2. semen
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43
Q

The female urethra is _____ centimeters long and transports only urine.

A

approx. 4 centimeters (approx. 1.5 inches)

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44
Q

Voiding or emptying the bladder is called _____.

A

michturition

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45
Q

Voiding has both voluntary and involuntary components. The voluntary sphincter is the _____ sphincter.

A

external urethral

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46
Q

An inability to control this sphincter is referred to as _____.

A

Incontinence

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47
Q

What is the function of the fat cushion that surrounds the kidneys in life?

A

to cushion the kidneys against trauma

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48
Q

Define ptosis

A

dropping - in this case, dropping of the kidneys - sliding down the posterior abdominal wall

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49
Q

Smooth membrane, tightly adherent to the kidney surface

A

fibrous capsule

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50
Q

Portion of the kidney containing mostly collecting ducts

A

medulla

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51
Q

Portion of the kidney containing the bulk of the nephron structures

A

cortex

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52
Q

Superficial region of kidney tissue

A

cortex

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53
Q

Basin-like area of the kidney, continuous with the ureter

A

renal pelvis

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54
Q

A cup-shaped extension of the pelvis that encircles the apex of a pyramid

A

minor calyx

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55
Q

Area of cortical tissue running between the medullary pyramids

A

renal column

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56
Q

acid-base balance

A

condition that occurs when the net rate at which the body produces acids or bases is equal to the net rate at which acids or bases are excreted

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57
Q

amorphous

A

shapeless; possessing no definite form

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58
Q

bilirubin

A

orange-yellow pigment that forms from the breakdown of hemoglobin in aged or damaged RBCs;

bilirubin usually travels in the bloodstream to the liver where it is converted to a water-soluble form and is excreted into the bile

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59
Q

bilirubinuria

A

the presence of bilirubin in the urine

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60
Q

casts

A

tiny structures usually formed by deposits of protein or other substances on the walls of renal tubules; in urine, they can indicate kidney disease

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61
Q

chain of custody

A

procedures in which the patient and sample are monitored and controlled so that the sample can be directly linked to the patient at all times and verified by the clinical personnel

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62
Q

circadian rhythm

A

pattern based on a 24 -hour cycle emphasizing the repetition of certain physiologic phenomena such as eating or sleeping

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63
Q

creatinine

A

chemical waste product formed by muscle metabolism and excreted by the kidneys;

when urine filtration is impaired, creatinine is increased in blood, indicating abnormal kidney function

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64
Q

crystals

A

may be found in normal urine sediment; though they have no particular significance, they should be noted because they may indicate disease states

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65
Q

glucosuria

A

the presence of glucose in the urine; also correct as glycosuria

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66
Q

<p>hematuria / symptomatic of:</p>

A

<p>abnormal presence of blood in the urine;

symptomatic of many disorders of the genitourinary system and renal diseases</p>

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67
Q

hemoglobinuria

A

hemoglobin in the urine which indicates an unusual breakdown of RBCs within the bloodstream

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68
Q

ketoacidosis

A

accumulation of ketones in the body, occurring primarily as a complication of diabetes mellitus; if left untreated, it could cause a coma

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69
Q

ketones

A

chemical compound produced during an increased metabolism of fat; also test on a reagent strip

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70
Q

ketonuria

A

having ketones in the urine

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71
Q

ketosis

A

a condition of the body burning fatty acids for energy in the absence of appropriate glucose/carbohydrates; may be referred to as lipolysis

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72
Q

midstream

A

urine sample collected in the middle of a flow of urine

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73
Q

pH

A

scale that indicates the relative alkalinity or acidity of a solution; measurement of hydrogen ion concentration

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74
Q

quantitative tests

A

analyses that can identify quantity or actual number counts such as counting the number of blood cells

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75
Q

reagents

A

chemical substance that detects or synthesizes other substances in a chemical reaction; used in lab analyses because it is known to react in a specific way

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76
Q

<p>refractometer</p>

A

<p>used in the urinalysis physical examination to measure the urine specimen's specific gravity</p>

instrument that measures the relative index of a substance or solution;

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77
Q

sediment

A

insoluble material that settles to the bottom of a liquid; material examined in the urinalysis microscopic examination

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78
Q

specific gravity

A

ratio of weight of a given volume of a substance to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at the same temp; test often performed during the urinalysis physical exam; can also be tested by reagent strip

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79
Q

supernatant

A

urine that appears above the sediment when centrifuged; poured off before sediment is examined in the urinalysis microscopic exam

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80
Q

turbid

A

opaque; not clear; used to describe urine that is cloudy

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81
Q

urea

A

principal end product of protein metabolism

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82
Q

also referred to as a bladder infection

A

urinary tract infection- UTI

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83
Q

urobilinogen

A

colorless compound produced in the intestine after the breakdown by bacteria of bilirubin

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84
Q

<p>three processes involved in formation of urine</p>

A

<p>filtration, secretion, reabsorption</p>

85
Q

physical, chemical, microscopic

A

three basic parts of a typical urine exam

86
Q

what is a clean-catch?

A

specimen of choice for routine urinalysis

87
Q

<p>patient with diabetes will normally have excess in urine</p>

A

p>glucose

88
Q

reagent test strip

A

most common way of doing chemical analysis of urine in provider’s office

89
Q

substance or structure automatically considered abnormal in urine

A

blood

90
Q

treat all specimens as if they were infectious

A

safety guideline important to follow during routine urinalysis

91
Q

which casts considered fairly normal in urine

A

hyaline

92
Q

urinometer, refractometer, chemical reagent strip

A

used to measure specific gravity of urine

93
Q

QNS

A

Quantity Not Sufficient

94
Q

Human gametes contain __ chromosomes

A

46

95
Q

The end product of meiosis is

A

4 haploid daughter cells

96
Q

A grouping of four chromatids, known as __1___, occurs only during ____2____.

A
  1. tetrad 2. meiosis
97
Q

_________ extend inward from the periphery of the seminiferous tubule and provide nourishment to the spermatids as they begin their transformation into sperm.

A

Interstitial endocrine cells

98
Q

The ________ of the sperm contains enzymes involved in the penetration of the egg.

A

acrosome

99
Q

Within each ovary, the immature ovum develops in a saclike structure called a

A

follicle

100
Q

As the primordial follicle grows and its epithelium changes from squamous to cuboidal cells, it becomes an ______ and begins to produce estrogens.

A

primary follicle

101
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

A sudden release of lutenizing hormone by the anterior pituitary

102
Q

The _____________ is a solid glandular structure with a scalloped lumen that develops from a rupture follicle

A

corpus luteum

103
Q

the sloughing off of the thick functional layer of the endometrium.

A

Menstruation

104
Q

occurs from days 1-5 of the female cycle

A

menstrual

105
Q

Diploid

A

two sets of similar chromosomes, one set of 23 from each parent

106
Q

homologous chromosomes

A

each body cell contains 23 pairs of similar chromosomes. genes that code for the same trait

107
Q

haploid

A

one human gamete with 23 chromosomes

108
Q

zygote

A

the fusion of egg and sperm

109
Q

mitosis

A

process of zygote division

110
Q

Gametogenesis

A

process of gamete formation, involves meiosis

111
Q

Meiosis

A

nuclear division, reduces number of chromosomes by half

112
Q

synapsis

A

during prophase of meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes pair up

113
Q

tetrads

A

little groups of four chromatids formed by synapsis

114
Q

crossovers/ chiasmata

A

during synapsis, the free ends of adjacent maternal and paternal chromatids wrap around each other at one of more points. allowing maternal and paternal chromosomes to exchange genetic material

115
Q

Meiosis I

A

Separate homologous pairs

  • Prophase: tetrads form by synapsis of homologues
  • Crossovers form
  • Anaphase I: homologues separate
116
Q

Meiosis II

A

Separate chromatids

- Anaphase II: sister chromatids separate

117
Q

Spermatogenesis (Meiosis 1 vs 2)

A

Human sperm production * Meiosis I: DNA replicated before division * Meiosis II: DNA not replicated before division

118
Q

spermatogonia

A

primitive stem cells. divide extensively to build up stem cell line.

119
Q

At puberty the influence of ____1___of the ____2____ miotic division of spermatogonium occurs.

A
  1. FSH 2. anterior pituitary gland
120
Q

Spermatids

A

haploid cells that are the actual product of meiosis, are not functional gametes. they are non motile cells and have too much excess baggage to function well in reproductive capacity

121
Q

nourish the spermatids as they begin their transformation into sperm (2 names)

A

sustenocyte aka “Sertoli cell”

122
Q

human sperm is made of what 3 parts?

A
  1. Head 2. Mid piece 3. Tail
123
Q

Oogenesis

A

female gamete formation

124
Q

follicle cells

A

one layer of surrounding cells in ovary

125
Q

granulosa cells

A

two or more surrounding cells in ovary

126
Q

oogonia (2)

A
  1. primitive stem cell 2. beginning of oogenesis
127
Q

What are primordial follicles?

A

oogonia become encapsulated by a single layer of squamouslike follicle cells

128
Q

After female child is born, most of her oogina have increased in size and have become ___1_____, which are in the ___2___ stage of meiosis I

A
  1. primary oocytes 2. prophase
129
Q

The primary follicle begins to produce___1___, and the primary oocyte completes its first maturation division, producing ___2___that are very disproportionate in size. The one that contains nearly all of the primary oocyte cytoplasm is ___3___. The other is the __4___.

A
  1. estrogen 2. two haploid daughter cells 3. secondary oocyte 4. tiny first polar body
130
Q

where ovulation occurs

A

secondary oocyte

131
Q

What occurs at the vesicular (antral) follicle

A

rising estrogen levels become highly stimulatory and a sudden burst-like release of LH and FSH by anterior pituitary triggers ovulation.

132
Q

When vesicular follicle is penetrated by sperm, the ___1___ will undergo___2___, producing one large ___3___ and a tiny second polar body.

A
  1. secondary oocyte 2. meiosis II 3. ovum
133
Q

LH blood levels begin to drop toward the end of 28-day cycle, progesterone production ends and the corpus luteum begins to degenerate and is replaced by scar tissue

A

corpus albicans

134
Q

hormonally controlled by estrogens and progesterone secreted by ovary.

A

Menstrual Cycle

135
Q

Fluctuation of gonadotropin levels

A

FSH and LH fluctuations in the blood regulate events of ovarian cycle

136
Q

What do fluctuating estrogens and progesterone cause? (2)

A

the endometrial changes of the uterine cycle. High estrogen levels are also responsible for FSH and LH surges

137
Q

The three phases of the uterine cycle

A
  • Menstrual: stratum functionalis shed (days 1-5) - Proliferative: estrogens rebuild endometrium. ovulation occurs at end of phase - Secretory: begins immediately after ovulation under progesterone influence. Enrichment of blood supply and nutrient secretion prepare endometrium for embryo.
138
Q

each miotic division of spermatogonium produces one ____1___and ____2____ which is destined to undergo meiosis.

A
  1. spermatogonium 2. Primary Spermatocyte
139
Q

When are dyads are visible?

A

Meiosis + Mitosis

140
Q

When are tetrads are visible

A

Meiosis

141
Q

Produces two diploid daughter cells genetically identical to the mother cell

A

Mitosis

142
Q

Produces four haploid daughter cells quantitatively and qualitatively different from the mother cell

A

Meiosis

143
Q

Involves the phases prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase

A

Meiosis + Mitosis

144
Q

Occurs throughout the body

A

Mitosis

145
Q

Occurs only in the ovaries and testes

A

Meiosis

146
Q

Provides cells for growth and repair

A

Mitosis

147
Q

Involves homologues synapse; crossovers are seen

A

Meiosis

148
Q

Process during which chromosomes are replicated before the division process begins

A

Meiosis + Mitosis

149
Q

Provides cells for perpetuation of the species

A

Meiosis

150
Q

Consists of two consecutive nuclear divisions, without chromosomal replication occurring before the second division

A

Meiosis

151
Q

Describe the process of synapsis.

A

The homologous chromosomes become closely aligned along their entire length.

152
Q

How does crossover introduce variability in the daughter cells?

A

Where crossovers occur, chromosome breakage occurs and parts are exchanged. This results in chromosomes with different parental contributions.

153
Q

Define homologous chromosomes.

A

Chromosomes that carry genes for the same traits (one 5 paternal chromosome; the other 5 maternal chromosome)

154
Q

Primitive stem cell

A

spermatogonium

155
Q

Products of meiosis II

A

spermatid

156
Q

Haploid (3 responses)

A

secondary spermocyte, spermatid, sperm

157
Q

Product of spermiogenesis

A

sperm

158
Q

Product of meiosis I

A

secondary spermocyte

159
Q

Why are spermatids not considered functional gametes?

A

They have too much superfluous cytoplasm and are nonmotile.

160
Q

Differentiate spermatogenesis from spermiogenesis.

A
  1. Spermatogenesis is the formation of haploid gametes by the male. 2. During spermiogenesis, excessive spermatid cytoplasm is sloughed off to form a motile functional sperm
161
Q
  1. The life span of a sperm is very short. What anatomical characteristics might lead you to suspect this?
A

The sperm has little or no cytoplasm in which to store nutrients.

162
Q

how does the total germ cell potential of the female compare to that of the male?

A

Females produce fewer germ cells than males, and the total number produced is believed to be predetermined

163
Q

Define Acrosome

A

an organelle that develops over the anterior half of the head in the spermatozoa

164
Q

What is a follicle?

A

A structure consisting of a capsule of follicle (or granulosa) cells that encloses a developing gamete (oocyte)

165
Q

How are primary and vesicular follicles anatomically different?

A

The primary follicle has one or a small number of layers of follicle cells surrounding the oocyte; the vesicular follicle has a large antrum containing fluid produced by the granulosa cells, and the developing oocyte, surrounded by several layers of granulosa cells, is pushed to one side.

166
Q

Cell type forming part of the primary follicle in the ovary

A

primary oocyte

167
Q

Cell type in the uterine tube before fertilization

A

secondary oocyte

168
Q

Cell type in the vesicular follicle of the ovary

A

secondary oocyte

169
Q

Resides in the uterine tube shortly after fertilization

A

ovum

170
Q
  1. The cellular product of spermatogenesis is four ___________; the final product of oogenesis is one_________ and three__________ .
A

spermatid, secondary oocyte (potential ovum) polar bodies

171
Q

What is the function of this unequal cytoplasmic division seen during oogenesis in the female?

A

To provide the functional gamete with adequate nutritional reserves so that it can survive during its journey to the uterus;

172
Q

What is the fate of the polar bodies produced during oogenesis? Why?

A

They deteriorate.; They lack sustaining cytoplasm with nutrient reserves.

173
Q

Which layer of the endometrium would you expect to be displaced with endometriosis? Why?

A

The functional layer would be displaced since this is the layer that is shed with menstruation.

174
Q

Explain the path that endometrial cells would travel to reach the peritoneum when retrograde menstruation occurs.

A

The endometrium would travel from the uterus through the uterine tube which is open to the pelvic cavity and would therefore reach the peritoneum.

175
Q

What uterine tissue undergoes dramatic changes during the menstrual cycle?

A

Endometrium

176
Q

When during the female menstrual cycle would fertilization be unlikely? Explain why.

A

Any time but the three-day interval (days 14-16) around ovulation. (Twenty-eight-day cycle is assumed.)

177
Q

Define Zygote

A

The fertilized egg, formed by fusion of egg and sperm nuclei

178
Q

What is the importance of cleavage in embryonic development?

A

to provide a large number of cellular building blocks for the developing fetus

179
Q

How is cleavage different from mitotic cell division, which occurs later in life?

A

there is no growth in size during cleavage and no differentiation of cells into particular types

180
Q

Define Fertilization

A

process of male and female pronuclei fusion

181
Q

Define Morula

A

solid ball of embryonic cells

182
Q

Define Cleavage

A

process of rapid mitotic cell division without intervening growth periods

183
Q

Define gastrulation

A

process involving cell rearrangements to form the three primary germ layers

184
Q

Define Blastocyst

A

embryonic stage in which the embryo consists of a hollow ball of cells

185
Q

What is the embryonic disc?

A

forms the embryo proper

186
Q

What is the trophoblast?

A

becomes the extraembryonic membrane called the chorion

187
Q

What is the function of the inner cell mass ?

A

produces the amnion, yolk sac, and allantois

188
Q

What is the function of the yolk sac?

A

produces the primordial germ cells

189
Q

Define allantois

A

an embryonic membrane that provides the structural basis for the umbilical cord

190
Q

Explain the process and importance of gastrulation

A

Gastrulation is the process that forms the three primary germ layers which becomes all the tissues of the body

191
Q

What is the function of the amnion and the amniotic fluid?

A

The amnion encases the embryo in a fluid filled chamber that protects the embryo from mechanical trauma and temperature extremes and prevents adhesions of body parts during growth

192
Q

Describe the process of implantation, noting the role of the trophoblast

A

cells Implantation of the blastocyst occurs as enzymes secreted by throphoblast break down the endometrium and allow for burrowing of the inner cell mass

193
Q

How many days after fertilization is implantation generally completed?

A

14

194
Q

`What event in the female menstrual cycle ordinarily occurs at about day 14 if implantation does not occur?

A

beginning of menstrual cycle

195
Q

What is eventually formed by the ectoderm

A

epidermis and accessory skin structues, nervous system, organs of special senses, epithelia of the oral cavity, nasal cavity, anal canal, adrenal medulla, pituitary, and pineal glands

196
Q

What is eventually formed by the mesoderm?

A

dermis, skeleton, skeletal, cardiac, and most smooth muscle, cartilage, blood vessels, kidneys and ureters, internal reproductive organs, serous membranes

197
Q

What is eventually formed by the endoderm?

A

epithelial lining of respiratory tract, gi tract, urinary tract, reproductive tract. glands

198
Q

Where in the human uterus do implantation and placentation ordinarily occur?

A

on the posterior wall of fundus (high in uterus)

199
Q

Describe the function(s) of the placenta?

A

provides nutrients and oxygen to the fetus/embryo and removes co2 and metabolic waste

200
Q

Which two embryonic membranes has the placenta more or less “put out of business”

A

yolk sac and allantois

201
Q

When does the human embryo come to be called a fetus?

A

9 week of development

202
Q

What is the usual and most desirable fetal position in utero? Why?

A

vertex position (head down) so the head can at as wedge on the way out during labor

203
Q

When does the fetus turn to vertex position?

A

in the seventh month

204
Q

What is the tissue origin of the placenta, fetal maternal or both?

A

both

205
Q

What placental barriers must be crossed to exchange materials?

A

the chorionic villus

206
Q

3 types of estrogen

A

estradiol, estrone, estriol

207
Q

which type of estrogen is the most common

A

estradiol

208
Q

What does estrogen do?

A
  1. bone and muscle growth
  2. female secondary characteristics hair growth etc
  3. CNS activity such as hypothalamus
  4. maintaining functions of accessory reproductive glands
  5. initiating repare and growth of endometrium

A+P 2 (19 decks)

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