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MHD 1 > L85-L88 > Flashcards

L85-L88 Flashcards

1
Q

Fungi are ___ cells; bacteria are ___ cells.

A

Eukaryotic; prokaryotic

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2
Q

What are two unique features of fungi that distinguish them from human eukaryotic cells?

A
  1. Chitin (rigid cell wall)

2. Ergosterol (predominant sterol)

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3
Q

What is budding?

A

Asexual fungal reproduction of single-celled yeasts

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4
Q

How do fungi with hyphae reproduce?

A

Asexually - bits of the hyphae break off and continue to grow as separate entities, or form stalks containing spores

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5
Q

How do fungi produce spores?

A

Sexually - two mating cells from hyphae of different strains fungi can mate by fusing together and forming a spore stalk

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6
Q

A solitary yeast cell can morph into either a ___ or ___.

A

Germ tube; blastoconidia

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7
Q

What do germ tubes become?

A

True hyphae with septa

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8
Q

What do blastoconidia become?

A

Pseudohyphae

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9
Q

What is the collective term for a mass of hyphae?

A

Mycelium = mold

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10
Q

What is the difference between sporangium and conidiophore?

A

Sporangium: enclosed sac containing spores
Condidiophore: specialized hyphal structure that bear conidia (spores)

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11
Q

What are arthroconidia?

A

Small barrel shaped structures that become spores by breaking off from hypha at septation points

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12
Q

What are chlamydoconidia?

A

Spores at the end of hyphae; contains stored food

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13
Q

What are macro and microconidia?

A

Small and large types of conidia in a fungus

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14
Q

What are dimorphic fungi?

A

Fungi that are yeast-like at 35 C and mold-like at 25 C

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15
Q

What are 4 important examples of dimorphic fungi?

A
  1. Histoplasma capsulatum
  2. Blastomyces dermatitidis
  3. Coccidioides immitis
  4. Sporothrix schenckii
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16
Q

How are fungi transmitted?

A
  1. Person-to-person (Athletes’ s foot)
  2. Contact with environment (inhalation of spores, traumatic inoculation)
  3. Contact with animals (poop, skin/hair)
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17
Q

Fungal ___ mediate colonization of epithelial surfaces.

A

Adhesins

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18
Q

What are some examples of fungi invading natural barriers?

A
  1. Trauma (rose thorns)
  2. Inhalation of spores (Coccioides in dust)
  3. Breakdown of mucosal barriers (catheters)
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19
Q

What are some examples of fungi avoiding phagocytosis?

A
  1. Histoplasma multiply in macrophages

2. Cryptococcus has a capsule

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20
Q

What type of host immunity is required to eradicate infection with fungi?

A

Cellular immunity (humoral is not protective)

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21
Q

What is the most common opportunistic fungal pathogen?

A

Candida

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22
Q

Where is Candida normal flora?

A

GI and GU tracts

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23
Q

How does Candida appear in body fluids?

A

Oval budding yeasts

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24
Q

How does Candida appear in tissues?

A

Yeasts with pseudohyphae

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25
Q

What two species of Candida have germ tubes?

A

C. albicans

C. dubliniensis

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26
Q

C. dubliniensis typically infects what patient population?

A

Patients who are HIV-positive

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27
Q

Which two species of Candida are resistant to fluconazole?

A

C. glabrata

C. krusei (intrinsic resistance)

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28
Q

What type of Candida is associated with UTIs?

A

C. glabrata

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29
Q

In addition to adherence to mucosal cells, how does Candida invade the host?

A

Production of lytic enzymes to facilitate invasion of epithelial surfaces

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30
Q

What are important host defense mechanisms against Candida?

A
  1. Intact skin
  2. Normal bacterial flora
  3. Recognition of cell wall mannan, which activates the alternate complement pathway and leads to Ab formation
  4. Neutrophils and macrophages
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31
Q

Mucocutaneous forms of candidiasis are associated with defects in ___, while system spread is generally associated with ___.

A

Cell-mediated immunity; neutropenia

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32
Q

What are risk factors for infection with Candida?

A
  1. Antibiotic therapy
  2. Steroids
  3. Decreased T cell function
  4. Diabetes
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33
Q

What are the major clinical manifestations of Candida?

A
  1. Skin and nail infections
  2. Mucocutaneous infection (thrush)
  3. Vulvovaginal
  4. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (disfiguring rash)
  5. Candida endopthalmitis (blindness)
  6. Candida Esophagitis
  7. Systemic infections
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34
Q

What is chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis?

A

Hereditary immunodeficiency disorder due to malfunction of T cells

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35
Q

What are the two forms of Candida endopthalmitis?

A
  1. Exogenous - trauma/surgery leads to direct inoculation of anterior chamber
  2. Endogenous - candidemia with seeding of retina and choroid
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36
Q

How is Candida albicans diagnosed in the lab?

A
  1. Gram stain - produces clusters of round blastoconidia along the hyphae; can also see pseudo and true hyphae
  2. Calcofluor - white fluorescent brightener that binds chitin
  3. Sabouraud dextrose agar - white to cream-colored, pasty, smooth colonies
  4. Production of germ tube
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37
Q

Aspergillus is a rapidly growing mold found in ___, ___, and ___.

A

Soil; air; construction dust

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38
Q

Describe the shape and appearance of Aspergillus.

A

Dichotomous branching (Y-shape, acute angle) and septate hyphae

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39
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of Aspergillus.

A
  1. Inhale spores.
  2. Spores bind to fibronectin
  3. Inhibition of alternate complement
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40
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Aspergillus?

A
  1. Allergic aspergillosis
  2. Fungal ball
  3. Invasive aspergillosis
  4. Dissemination infection
  5. Angioinvasion
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41
Q

Describe the color and structure of Aspergillus fumigatus.

A

Blue-green and fluffy

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42
Q

___ refers to angiotropic infection produced by various fungi.

A

Mucormycosis

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43
Q

Where are agents of mucormycosis found?

A

Fruit, bread, soil, decaying organic debris

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44
Q

The species most commonly associated with mucormycosis is ___.

A

Rhizopus arrhizus

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45
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis and prognosis of infections with R. arrhizus.

A

Invade major blood vessels, cause ischemia/necrosis/infarction, produce black pus

Acute, rapidly fatal

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46
Q

What are some host risk factors for mucormycosis?

A
  1. Acidotic diabetes
  2. Malnourished children
  3. Severe burns
  4. Severe leukopenia
  5. Immunosuppressive disorders
  6. Steroids
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47
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of mucormycosis.

A

Inhalation and deposition of spores in the nasal turbinates or direct inoculation of abraded skin

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48
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of mucormycosis?

A
  1. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
  2. Pulmonary
  3. GI tract
  4. Cutaneous
  5. Dissemination
  6. Periorbital mucormycosis (may invade brain cavity)
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49
Q

What populations most frequently experience rhinocerebral mucormycosis?

A

People with diabetes/ketoacidosis

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50
Q

How does rhinocerebral mucormycosis present?

A

Face/eye pain, proptosis, progressive signs of involvement of orbital structures; results in death

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51
Q

What populations most frequently experience pulmonary syndromes related to mucormycosis?

A

People with neutropenia

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52
Q

What populations most frequently experience GI syndromes related to mucormycosis?

A

Patients with severe malnutrition

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53
Q

What are the treatment strategies for mucormycosis?

A
  1. Early diagnosis
  2. Reverse underlying risk factors (immunosuppression, hyperglycemia)
  3. Debridement
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54
Q

How is mucormycosis diagnosed in the lab?

A
  1. Broad, ribbon-like hyphae with 90 degree irregular branching
  2. Wooly white/grey growth
  3. Characteristic sporangia
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55
Q

Fungal infections of keratinized tissues are typically caused by ___.

A

Dermatophytes

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56
Q

What is onychomycosis?

A

Nail infections caused by any fungus

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57
Q

Transmission of dermatophytosis requires what?

A

Close personal contact

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58
Q

What are the 3 genera of dermatophytes?

A
  1. Epidermophyton
  2. Microsporum
  3. Trichophyton
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59
Q

Describe tinea pedis.

A

Athlete’s foot, most common dermatophyte infection

Weeping, peeling lesion between 4th and 5th toes; scaling, fissuring, maceration, erythema, itching, burning

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60
Q

Describe tinea capitis.

A

Dermatophytosis of scalp due to invasion of hair

Hair becomes dull, lusterless, breaks near the follicle

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61
Q

Describe tinea corporis.

A

Dermatophytosis of glabrous skin (face, shoulder, arms)

Classic ringworm

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62
Q

Describe tinea cruris.

A

Infection of groin, perineum, scrotum, perianal area

More common in men

Erythema, pustule formation, hyperpigmentation, itching, burning

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63
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of dermatophytes.

A

Inoculation via minor trauma, penetration of stratum corneum, proliferation, lateral spread

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64
Q

How is dermatophytosis diagnosed in the lab?

A
  1. KOH preparation

2. Examine hair under Wood’s light

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65
Q

Describe the shape of Cryptococcus neoformans.

A

Round (not oval) with polysaccharide capsule

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66
Q

Where is C. neoformans found?

A

Worldwide, pigeon poop, soil

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67
Q

C. gattii is endemic to what locations?

A

SoCal, Mexico, Pacific Northwest

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68
Q

What does a positive skin test for Cryptococcosis indicate?

A

Exposure (not illness)

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69
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of Cryptococcosis.

A

Inhalation from environment to lungs, from there to CNS

Capsule blocks complement

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70
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Cryptococcosis?

A

Meningoencephalitis

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71
Q

What are the symptoms of meningoencephalitis?

A

Headache, nausea, gait abnormalities, dementia, irritability, CN abnormalities, hydrocephalus, fever, nuchal rigidity, coma, death

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72
Q

What types of skin lesions may be seen in Cryptococcosis?

A

Raised skin lesions with dissemination

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73
Q

How is Cryptococcosis diagnosed in the lab?

A
  1. Fast growing, soft, mucoid, cream/pink/yellow-brown
  2. Encapsulated yeast in India ink preparation
  3. Standard: flow assay/latex agglutination for Ag detection
  4. Gram stain
  5. GMS
  6. Mucicarmine stain
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74
Q

How is C. neoformans differentiated from other forms of Cryptococcus?

A

Ability to grow at 37 degrees C

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75
Q

Where is Histoplasma capsulatum found?

A

Soil, bird/bat droppings

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76
Q

Where is H. capsulatum found in the world?

A

OH/Mississippi River Valleys

77
Q

Describe the yeast and mold phases of H. capsulatum.

A

Yeast: found in macrophages
Mold: tuberculate macroconidia

No capsule

78
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of H. capsulatum?

A
  1. Asymptomatic
  2. Pulmonary (infiltrates, lymphadenopathy, cavitating lesion, fever/night sweat/weight loss)
  3. Disseminated
79
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of H. capsulatum.

A

Conidia inhaled, convert to yeast, which are phagocytosed by macrophages

Infection of RES by yeasts growing in macrophages

80
Q

What is the primary lesions seen in H. capsulatum?

A

Granuloma in the lung

81
Q

How is Histoplasmosis diagnosed?

A
  1. Standard: urine antigen test

Can do skin test and bone marrow culture

82
Q

__ budding yeast cells are typical in H. capsulatum.

A

Intracellular

83
Q

H. capsulatum predominates at the ___ portion of lesions.

A

Central

84
Q

Describe H. caspulatum at 25 C.

A
  1. Slow growing
  2. Granular to cottony
  3. White, then buff brown
  4. Hyphae are septate and hyaline
  5. Macro and microconidia
85
Q

Describe the yeast and mold forms of Blastomyces dermatitids.

A

Yeast: large thick walled with broad based buds
Mold: not unique

86
Q

Where in the US is Blastomyces dermatitidis found?

A

Central US

87
Q

Blastomyces dermatitidis is associated with ___ and ___.

A

Soil; wood

88
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Blastomyces dermatitidis?

A
  1. Pulmonary - acute or chronic pneumonia
  2. Skin lesions
  3. Lytic bone lesions
  4. Disseminated disease
89
Q

Describe the appearance of Blastomycoces dermatiditis at 25 C.

A

Membranous texture
White to beige
Septate hyaline hyphae and unbranched short conidiophores

Look like lollipops

90
Q

Describe the appearance of Blastomycoces dermatiditis at 37 C.

A

Appears as budding yeast cells with a double-contoured refractile wall and broad base budding

91
Q

Where in the US is Coccidiodomycosis found?

A

SW US

92
Q

Describe the yeast and mold forms of Coccidiodes.

A

Tissue: spherule filled with endospores
Culture: mold with barrel shaped arthroconidia

93
Q

Which type of Coccidiodes is found in CA and which is found outside CA?

A

In CA: C. immitis

Outside CA: C. posadasii

94
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of Coccidioides.

A

Inhalation of arthroconidia bypasses upper airway into alveoli

Monocytes ingest; arthroconidia convert to spherules

95
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Coccidiomycosis?

A

Fever, cough, chest pain, malaise
Dissemination
Erythema nodosum

96
Q

How is Coccidiomycosis diagnosed in the lab?

A
  1. Microscopic exam to detect spherules
  2. Culture - demonstrate alternating arthroconidia
  3. Skin test
  4. Serology
97
Q

What are two causes of subcutaneous mycoses?

A
  1. Sporotrichosis

2. Chromoblastomycosis

98
Q

Describe the yeast and mold forms of Sporothrix schencki.

A

Yeast: cigar-shape
Mold: daisy-like conidiophore

99
Q

Where is Sporothrix schenckii found?

A

Soil, rose thorns, moss

100
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Sporotrichosis?

A

Papular skin lesions that enlarge and ulcerates, appearance of subcutaneous firm nodules

101
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of Sporothrix.

A

Inhalation or traumatic inoculation, multiplication, pyogenic/granulomatous response, spread via lymphatics

102
Q

What is a post-traumatic chronic infection of subcutaneous tissue and how does it appear?

A

Chromoblastomycosis; verrucous cauliflower-like papules on lower extremities

103
Q

How does Chromoblastomycosis appear on histology?

A

Copper pennies

104
Q

Only ___% of people infected with TB develop disease in their lifetimes. The remainder have ___ infections.

A

7-10; latent

105
Q

Of those who are infected with TB, ___% of patients with AIDS will develop active disease per ___.

A

10; year

106
Q

Who is at risk for being infected with TB?

A
  1. Close contacts
  2. Foreign-born persons from areas where TB is common
  3. Medically underserved, low income populations
  4. Residents of long-term care facilities
  5. Persons who inject drugs
  6. Migrant farm workers and homeless persons
  7. Occupationally exposed persons
107
Q

Who is at risk for progressing to disease with TB?

A
  1. People with HIV
  2. People who were recently infected with TB
  3. Certain medical conditions
  4. Injection drug use
  5. History of inadequately treated TB
108
Q

How is TB transmitted?

A

Airborn

109
Q

True or false - extrapulmonary TB is rarely contagious.

A

True

110
Q

Discuss the pathogenesis of TB.

A

Pathogen gains access to alveolar macrophages, proliferates, and spreads via lymph nodes and blood.

111
Q

What is the primary site of lung infection in TB?

A

Ghon focus

112
Q

What is the Ghon focus + mediastinal lymph nodes?

A

Ghon complex

113
Q

What is a calcified Ghon complex?

A

Ranke complex

114
Q

The vast minority of secondary (reactivation) TB disease is ___.

A

Extrapulmonary (most are pulmonary)

115
Q

What is seen on CXR in TB?

A

Upper lung field infiltrates, cavities

116
Q

What are common sites of extrapulmonary TB?

A

Brain, epiphyses of long bones, kidneys, vertebral bodies, lymph nodes

117
Q

In immunocompetent patients, ___% have pulmonary TB. ___% have XPTB. What about patients with AIDS?

A

85; 15

1/3 - pulmonary
1/3 - XPTB
1/3 - both

118
Q

Which type of XPTB is most common in children? Which type is most common in older patients?

A

Children - CNS TB

Older patients - TB pericarditis

119
Q

What is osteomyelitis of the spine (TB)?

A

Pott’s disease

120
Q

What are the groups of non-TB mycobacteria?

A

Group 1: photochromogens
Group 2: scotochromogens
Group 3: nonphotochromogens
Group 4: rapid growers

121
Q

Where is NTM found?

A

Bioaerosols, water, soil

122
Q

What are predisposing conditions for NTM lung disease?

A

Structural lung abnormalities (COPD, bronchiectasis, IPF, chest radiotherapy, congenital cystic abnormalities, previous pulmonary emboli/infarct, recurrent aspiration pneumonia)

123
Q

How does NTM infection contrast with TB?

A
  1. NTM is environmental in origin (not human-to-human)
  2. NTM requires an underlying predisposition
  3. NTM does not have a prolonged latent phase
  4. NTM infections do not disseminate outside the lungs
  5. No skin/Quantiferon testing for NTM
  6. CXR presentations of NTM may differ from TB
124
Q

What are the most common infections in the US?

A

URIs

125
Q

What are the syndromes included under the designation of URI?

A
  1. Rhinitis
  2. Sinusitis
  3. Otitis
  4. Pharyngitis
  5. Laryngotracheitis
  6. Epiglotitis
  7. Bronchitis
126
Q

The vast majority of URIs are ___ and ___.

A

Viral; self-limited

127
Q

Rhinitis refers to a “___.”

A

Runny nose

128
Q

What are some causes of rhinitis?

A

Infections, allergies, over-use of nasal decongestants, systemic disease

129
Q

Infectious rhinitis = “___.”

A

The common cold

130
Q

What are the etiologic agents in the vast majority of infectious rhinitis cases?

A

Viruses

131
Q

Acute sinusitis is commonly preceded by ___.

A

Acute or chronic rhinitis

132
Q

What is an important contributor to the pathogenesis of acute sinusitis?

A

Impaired drainage of the sinuses by inflammatory edema of the mucosa

133
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of acute sinusitis?

A

Congestion, sinus tenderness, fevers, purulent nasal drainage

134
Q

90% of acute sinusitis cases are caused by viruses. What are the bacterial causes?

A

Bacteria in the oronasal cavity - S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella, oral anaerobes

135
Q

If there is strong suspicion of bacterial sinusitis, what antibiotics should be given?

A

Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
Bactrim
Augmentin (amoxicillin-clavulanate)

136
Q

How do patients with pharyngitis present?

A

Sore throat and fever

137
Q

70% of pharyngitis cases are caused by viruses. What bacteria can cause this?

A

Group A or B Strep - Strep throat - high fevers and patchy tonsillar exudates

138
Q

Epiglottitis occurs most often in ___. How do they present?

A

Children age 2-7

High fever, sore throat, drooling, sitting upright, signs of systemic toxicity

139
Q

Why might epiglottitis become a medical emergency?

A

Swelling can lead to airway obstruction

140
Q

What can be seen on CXR in epiglottitis?

A

Thumb sign (enlarged epiglottis protruding from the anterior wall of the hypopharynx)

141
Q

What are the most common etiologic organisms of epiglottitis?

A

H. influenzae
GAS
H. parainfluenzae

142
Q

How is epiglottitis treated?

A

Assess/secure airway
Augmentin (amoxicillin-clavulanate)
Unasyn (ampicillin-sulbactam)
3rd gen cephalosporin

143
Q

What is the typical presentation of acute bronchitis?

A

Cough with purulent sputum production for 5+ days

144
Q

Acute bronchitis is most commonly caused by viruses. What are common bacterial agents?

A

Mycoplasma
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
B. pertussis

145
Q

What is the treatment for acute bronchitis?

A

Supportive care

Not cough syrups, anti-tussives, or mucolytics (don’t work)

146
Q

What is a lower airway infection/inflammation?

A

Pneumonia

147
Q

What are the 5 possible routes for pathogens to reach the lower airways?

A
  1. Direct inhalation
  2. Aspiration of upper airway contents
  3. Spread along the mucous membrane surface
  4. Hematogenous spread
  5. Direct penetration (rare)
148
Q

What are risk factors for developing pneumonia?

A
  1. Old age
  2. Underlying pulmonary disease
  3. Smoking
  4. Recent viral illness
  5. DM
  6. CKD
  7. Immunodeficiency
149
Q

What are the symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Cough, sputum production, shortness of breath, fever

Elderly patients may not have this typical constellation and may present with mental status changes/not acting quite themselves

150
Q

What are signs of pneumonia on exam?

A

Crackles, rhonchi, increased bronchial breath sounds, vocal fremitus, dullness to percussion over the areas of consolidation, leukocytosis

151
Q

What will CXR show in pneumonia?

A

Focal infiltrate, maybe air bronchograms

152
Q

What is the difference between bronchopneumonia and lobar pneumonia?

A

Bronchpneumonia: patchy, >1 lobe, infection starts in bronchioles and spreads to parenchyma

Lobar: contiguous, 1 lobe, S. pneumo

153
Q

What are the 7 syndromes of pneumonia?

A
  1. Community-acquired bacterial
  2. Community-acquired viral
  3. Nosocomial
  4. Aspiration
  5. Chronic
  6. Necrotizing/abscess
  7. Immunocompromised host
154
Q

What are the common etiologic agents of community acquired bacterial pneumonia?

A

Common: S. pneumo, H. flu, M. catarrhalis, S. aureus

Less common: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumonia, Legionella pneumophilia - cause “walking pneumonia”

155
Q

How is Legionella diagnosed?

A

Urinary antigen

156
Q

How do patients who have community acquired bacterial pneumonia with S. pneumoniae present?

A

Fever, shaking chills (single chill), rusty colored sputum, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain

157
Q

How is community acquired bacterial pneumonia treated?

A

Outpatient: macrolides or doxycycline
Outpatient with comorbid illness/recent antibiotic therapy - respiratory FQ
Inpatient: macrolid + beta lactam

At least 5 days

158
Q

What are the most common viral causes of pneumonia?

A

Influenza
RSV
Adenovirus
Parainfluenza

159
Q

What are the symptoms of influenza?

A

Fever, cough, headache, sore throat, feel MISERABLE

160
Q

What are the antiviral therapies to treat influenza?

A

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

161
Q

How do children with community acquired pneumonia present?

A

Tachypnea, fever, mild cough, dyspnea

162
Q

What tends to cause community acquired pneumonia in children under 2?

A

Viral

163
Q

What tends to cause community acquired pneumonia in children 5-10?

A

Mycoplasma

164
Q

What tends to cause community acquired pneumonia in children 10-16?

A

S. pneumoniae, Chlamydia

165
Q

What are the common etiologic agents of nosocomial pneumonia?

A 
K. pneumoniae
E. coli
Enterobacter
Proteus
Serratia
Pseudomonoas
Acinetobacter
MRSA
166
Q

What is the treatment for nosocomial pneumonia?

A

Anti-pseudomonal cephalosporin
Anti-pseudomonal carbapenem
Beta lactam + beta lactamase
Add Vancomycin if MRSA is concerning

167
Q

Who typically gets aspiration pneumonia?

A

Debilitated patients
Loss of gag/swallow reflex
Repeated emesis

168
Q

What organisms are involved in aspiration pneumonia?

A

Polymicrobial - mix of GN aerobes and anaerobes

169
Q

How is aspiration pneumonia treated?

A

Beta lactam + beta lactamase

3rd generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

170
Q

What characterizes chronic pneumonia?

A

Subacute onset of symptoms of 6+ weeks

171
Q

What causes chronic pneumonia?

A

Slow growing organisms (mycobacterium, nocardia, actinomyces)
Endemic fungi (Histoplasmosis, Blastomycosis, Coccidiomycosis)
Coxiella
Tularemia
Obstructed airway

172
Q

What can cause abscess pneumonia?

A

Necrotizing pneumonia (S. aureus, S. pneumo, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas)
Aspiration
Tooth abscess
Septic emboli

173
Q

What bugs can cause abscess pneumonia?

A

Fusobacterium
Bacteroides
Peptostreptococcus
Aerobic/anaerobic strep and GN rods

174
Q

How is abscess pneumonia treated?

A

Piperacillin-tazobactam (Zosyn)
Clindamycin

4-6 weeks

175
Q

What are causes of neutrophil dysfunction?

A

Chemo, leukemia, CGD

176
Q

What organisms lead to pneumonia in people with neutrophil dysfunction?

A

GN rods
Staph
Aspergillus
Candida

177
Q

What are causes of T cell dysfunction?

A

AIDS
T-cell lymphoma
Solid organ transplant
DiGeorge syndrome

178
Q

What organisms lead to pneumonia in people with T cell dysfunction?

A 
CMV
Herpes Simplex Virus
Pneumocystis
Listeria
Candida
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus
Mycobacteria
179
Q

What are causes of B cell dysfunction?

A

Splenectomy
Lymphoma
Myeloma
Gamma globulin deficiency

180
Q

What organisms lead to pneumonia in people with B cell dysfunction?

A 
S. pneumo
H. flu
Neisseria
Klebsiella
E. coli
Giardia
181
Q

Exposure to bat or bird droppings may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

182
Q

Exposure to birds may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Chlamydophila psittaci

183
Q

Exposure to rabbits may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Rabbits

184
Q

Exposure to farm animals may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Coxiella burnetti

185
Q

Hotel or cruise ships may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Legionella

186
Q

Travel to SW USA may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Coccidiosis

187
Q

Structural lung disease may lead to pneumonia with ___.

A

Pseudomonas

188
Q

Alcoholism may lead to pneumonia with ___ or ___.

A

Anaerobes; Klebsiella

MHD 1 (58 decks)

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