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CP reviewer 1 > Investigation of Specific Infections > Flashcards

Investigation of Specific Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Why are most laboratory tests are used to confirm suspected clinical diagnosis (signs and symptoms) and not all the time?

A

Prevents over diagnosis which prevents over use of antibiotics - no point treating infection if no symptoms

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2
Q

What is a:

a) true positive?
b) true negative?
c) false positive?
d) false negative?

A

a) patient with disease tests positive
b) patient without the disease tests negative
c) patient without disease tests positive
d) patient with disease tests negative

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3
Q

What is ‘sensitivity’ of a test?

A

The proportion of people WITH the disease who test POSITIVE

True positive / (true positive + false negative)

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4
Q

What is ‘specificity’ of a test?

A

The proportion of people WITHOUT the disease who test NEGATIVE

True negative / (false positive + true negative)

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5
Q

If a test has a low specificity, what does this mean?

A

False positives are identified who do not have disease

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6
Q

What is ‘M, C and S’?

A

Microscopy, culture and sensitivity

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7
Q

What does microscopy involve?

A
  • Looking at specimen under microscope –> direct visualisation of organisms
  • Usually STERILE samples e.g. spinal fluid
  • Cell count (e.g. white cells - infection?)
  • Gram stain
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8
Q

What does culture involve?

A

Plated out using swabs onto different types of cultural media (e.g. for anaerobes)

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9
Q

What does sensitivity involve?

A

Antibiotic sensitivity testing (EUCAST disc testing)

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10
Q

What are examples of a sterile sample?

A

CSF, abscess, pus, synovial fluid, tissue biopsies

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11
Q

What are examples of non-sterile samples?

A

Sputum

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12
Q

What is seen in culture of sputum samples?

A

Lot of growth of lots of different respiratory organisms - only pick out the important ones

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13
Q

Blood tests can also be used for specific infections.

When detecting immunity, what would:

  • IgG
  • IgM

be looking for?

A
  • IgG: previous infection

- IgM: current infection (or reactivation)

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14
Q

What is a complement fixation test?

A

A blood test in which a sample of serum is exposed to a particular antigen and complement in order to determine whether or not antibodies to that particular antigen are present. The nature of complement is to react in combination with antigen–antibody complexes.

N.B. these are being phased out

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15
Q

How can pathogens be detected in blood tests?

A

Blood culture - M,C & S

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Microscopy (malaria)

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16
Q

If an unwell patient presents at the hospital, what are the generic tests that are done (e.g. for patients with sepsis)?

A
  • Blood cultures
  • FBC
  • U&E
  • LFT
  • CRP
  • Clotting
  • Procalcitonin
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17
Q

What does procalcitonin indicate?

A

A biomarker that exhibits greater specificity than other proinflammatory markers (eg, cytokines) in identifying patients with sepsis and can be used in the diagnosis of bacterial infections.

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18
Q

Examples of more specific tests:

A

Pus from abscess – culture and sensitivity results

Hepatitis B serology

Meningococcal PCR on CSF

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A

Fever, headache, neck stiffness. Sometimes meningococcal or viral rash

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of a brain abscess?

A

Fever, headache, neurological impact depending on anatomical location, can lead to ventriculitis

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21
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges.

There are many different causes: viruses, bacteria, mycobacteria, fungi and parasites

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22
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma

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23
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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24
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses

Also herpes viruses

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25
Q

What imaging would be done in meningitis/encephalitis?

A
  • CT head
  • MRI head

Then a lumbar puncture

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26
Q

What is a lumbar puncture?

A

Draw CSF and analyse

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27
Q

As soon as a patient presents with meningitis, what are they given?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

Results from lumbar puncture are then used for more specific treatments

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28
Q

What is the dominant white cell type in:

a) viral
b) bacterial
c) fungal
d) TB

meningitis?

A

a) lymphocytes
b) neutrophils
c) lymphocytes
d) lymphocytes

N.B. there are exceptions to this:

  • A late presentation of meningitis can present with more lymphocytes
  • Listeria monocytogenes (causes bacterial meningitis) can present with more lymphocytes
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29
Q

Which mycobacteria causes meningitis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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30
Q

Who is Listeria monocytogenes meningitis more common in?

A

Neonates and eldery

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31
Q

What is the CSF sample in meningitis/encephalitis tested for?

A
  • Cell count, protein, glucose
  • Culture plate - look for common pathogens seen in meningitis e.g. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • PCR for viruses e.g. enterovirus, adeno, VZV, HSV, parechovirus

If the patient history is suggestive, also test CSF for:

  • Cryptococcal antigen
  • Toxoplasma PCR
  • TB culture
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32
Q

What are the common causes of neonatal meningitis?

A
  • Bacteraemia
  • Group B strep
  • E. coli
  • Listeria monocytogenes
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33
Q

What non-CSF tests should be done in suspected meningitis/encephalitis?

A

Blood cultures (2 sets)

Bacterial throat swab

Blood for HIV and blood PCR (S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis)

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34
Q

What is a brain abscess? What can lead to one?

A

A brain abscess is a collection of pus enclosed in the brain tissue

It usually occurs when bacteria or fungi enter the brain tissue after an infection or severe head injury.

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35
Q

What are examples of mechanisms of infection in brain abscesses?

A
  1. Severe ENT infection e.g. sinusitis

2. Infective endocarditis, infection of heart valves, can spread to the brain

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36
Q

How are brain abscesses investigated? How does this differ from meningitis?

A

NOT lumbar puncture or CSF

Brain abscesses instead are usually aspirated or excised in theatre –> then blood culture done

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37
Q

Why is lumbar puncture/CSF not recommended in brain abscesses?

A

High risk of ‘coning’ where the brain is forced through the foramen magnum - this is due to high pressure on the brain

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38
Q

Is pneumonia an URTI or a LRTI?

A

Lower

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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41
Q

What is community acquired pneumonia?

A

develops in people outside a hospital

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42
Q

Which respiratory disease is often misdiagnosed as pneumonia?

A

pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)

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43
Q

Which organism causes pulmonary TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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44
Q

Common symptoms of ‘typical’ pneumonia?

A

Cough, sputum, fever, SOB, pleuritic chest pain

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45
Q

What investigations are done when a patient presents with ‘typical’ pneumonia?

A
  • Chest x-ray
  • Blood cultures
  • Sputum (for MC&S)
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46
Q

What is an ‘atypical’ pneumonia screen?

A
  • Sputum for MC&S
  • Viral PCR
  • Mycoplasma (serology/PCR)
  • Chlamydia (PCR)
  • Legionella antigen in urine
47
Q

How can ‘atypical’ pneumonia present?

A

Unusual symptoms - arthralgia, myalgia, rashes

48
Q

What is ‘atypical’ pneumonia?

A
  • Tends to be caused by different organisms
  • Tends to have milder symptoms
  • Need alternative treatments
49
Q

What atypical organism can cause pnuemonia?

A

Mycobacteria, chlamydia pneumoniae

50
Q

What would indicate the need for an atypical pneumonia screen?

A

If not getting better after antibiotics

Unusual chest xray

Unusual clinical features

51
Q

Pulmonary tuberculosis requires exposure to M. tuberculosis and then reactivation.

What exposure tests can be done?

A
  • Mantoux

- IGRA’s (interferon gamma release assay)

52
Q

What is the purpose of exposure tests for M. tuberculosis?

A

See if people have had exposure to M. tuberculosis in past, even if they are not displaying symptoms

53
Q

Why would you do exposure tests for M. tuberculosis before putting patients on immunosuppressants e.g. before a bone marrow transplant?

A

To double check they don’t have latent TB that could cause severe symptoms once they are immunosuppressed

54
Q

How is active pulmonary TB investigated?

A
  • Chest xray
  • 3 sputum samples
  • 8+ weeks culture
  • Whole-genome sequencing
  • PCR
55
Q

What fungal pathogens are immunocompromised patients particularly susceptible to that can cause respiratory tract infections?

A
  • Aspergillus fumigatus infection
  • Cryptococcosis
  • Mucormycosis
56
Q

What bacterial pathogens are immunocompromised patients particularly susceptible to that can cause respiratory tract infections?

A
  • Nocardia sp.

- Gram-negatives – resistant

57
Q

What tests are used to diagnose respiratory tract infections in immunocompromised hosts?

A
  • Bronchoscopy

- Aspergillus/CMV blood tests

58
Q

What are 3 examples of localised skin and soft tissue infections?

A
  1. Impetigo
  2. Erysipelas
  3. Cellulitis
59
Q

What is an example of a severe/extensive skin and soft tissue infection?

A

Necrotising fascitis

60
Q

How are localised SSTIs tested for?

A

Wound swabs unhelpful from intact skin

Blister fluid/pus is better

61
Q

How can severe/necrotising fasciitis be tested for?

A

Blood cultures are positive in only 5% severe cases

Tissue results from nec. fasciitis can be helpful

62
Q

The Wagner Ulcer Classification System is used to identify the seriousness of diabetic foot ulcers.

What is each stage? (1-5)

A

0: no open lesions; may have healed lesion
1: superficial ulcer without penetration to deeper layers
2: deeper ulcer, reaching tendon, bone, or joint capsule
3: deeper tissues involved, with abscess, osteomyelitis, or tendonitis
4: gangrene in a portion of forefoot or heel
5: extensive gangrenous involvement of the entire foot

63
Q

What are the causes of diabetic foot ulcers?

A

Poor circulation:

  • A form of vascular disease
  • Makes it more difficult for ulcers to heal.

High blood sugar (hyperglycemia):
- Can slow the healing process of an infected foot ulcer

Nerve damage:
- Reduces sensitivity to foot pain and results in painless wounds that can cause ulcers.

Irritated or wounded feet

64
Q

Why are urine tract infections only tested for when absolutely necessary?

A

Due to overuse and resistance of antibiotics

Patients are only encouraged to use antibiotics if symptoms are severe

Many patients have positive samples but no symptoms - don’t need treatment

65
Q

Which bacteria are UTIs usually caused by?

A

Bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract entering the urinary tract, with Escherichia coli being the most common cause

66
Q

Which organism can cause UTIs in hospitalised patients who are immunocompromised or have an indwelling catheter?

A

Candida albicans

67
Q

How do lower UTIs typically present?

A

Inflammation of the bladder (cystitis) and urethra (urethritis).

N.B. this can ascend and lead to upper UTI

68
Q

How do upper UTIs typically present?

A
  • Dysuria
  • increased urinary frequency and urgency
  • urine that is strong smelling, cloudy or contains blood,
  • persistent lower abdominal pain.
69
Q

Asymptomatic bacteriuria is not routinely treated with antibacterials.

What is the exception to this?

A

Pregnant women

70
Q

What is the choice of antibacterial therapy for lower UTIs?

A

Nitrofurantoin, or trimethoprim

71
Q

What category of bacteria (gram stain) is a UTI typically caused by?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

72
Q

How should urine samples be collected?

A

Mid stream

73
Q

What should be suspected in men with recurrent UTIs?

A
  1. Prostatitis

2. Epididymo-orchitis

74
Q

What is prostatitis?

A

Inflammation of the prostate gland - Acute prostatitis is usually caused when bacteria in the urinary tract enter the prostate.

75
Q

What is epididymo-orchitis?

A

Inflammation of the epididymis - normally caused by STI or UTI or enteric bacteria

76
Q

How effective are antibiotics in treating epididymo-orchitis and prostatitis?

A

Very effective

77
Q

When testing for prostatitis/epididymo-orchitis or recurrent UTIs, what should also be tested for?

A

Urine/swab for chlamydia/Gonorrhoea NAAT (PCR)

78
Q

What are examples of intra-vascular infections?

A

Endocarditis – native/prosthetic valve
Pacemaker infection
Vascular graft infection
Catheter

79
Q

How should intra-vascular infections be diagnosed?

A

Three sets of blood cultures should be taken at different times during the first 24 hours in all patients with suspected endocarditis (can be same arm)

80
Q

What history is key to gain from the patient when diagnosing GI tract infections?

A
  • Returning traveller

- Hospital long stay patient with recent course of antibiotics

81
Q

Which 5 bacteria are responsible for community acquired gastroenteritis?

A
  1. Salmonella sp.
  2. Shigella sp.
  3. E. coli
  4. Campylobacter sp.
  5. C. difficile
82
Q

What are the 2 viral causes of gastroenteritis?

A
  1. Rotavirus

2. Norovirus

83
Q

What are the 2 parasitic causes of gastroenteritis?

A
  1. Cryptosporidium

2. Giardia

84
Q

What tests should be requested for infective gastroenteritis?

A

Stool for M, C & S –bacterial testing, some labs will do more
C. difficile testing – GDH, toxin PCR
Stool for viral PCR – range of tests differs between labs
Stool for ova, parasites and cysts (OCP)

BUT – often self-limiting, testing not always required

85
Q

When should infective gastroenteritis be tested for?

A

ONLY if symptoms are severe or prolonged

86
Q

What are the different types of liver abscesses?

A

Pyogenic (bacterial)
Hydatid
Amoebic

87
Q

How can liver abscesses be diagnosed?

A
  • Imaging: USS/CT
  • History
  • Pus (if safe to aspirate)
  • Blood cultures for bacteria
  • Stool for OCP
  • HYDATID SEROLOGY
  • Liver biopsy
88
Q

What can cause liver abscesses?

A

Abdominal infection, such as appendicitis, diverticulitis, or a perforated bowel

Infection in the blood

Infection of the bile draining tubes

Recent endoscopy of the bile draining tubes

Trauma that damages the liver

89
Q

What is cholangitis?

A

Cholangitis is an inflammation of the bile duct system

In most cases cholangitis is caused by a bacterial infection

90
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

91
Q

What complications can diverticulitis lead to?

A

fistula, abscess, perforation

92
Q

What are the blood borne viruses?

A

HIV
Hep B
Hep C

93
Q

What tests should be done in blood borne viruses?

A

Serology: Antibody (IgG, IgM) and Antigen (component of virus)

PCR: DNA/RNA from living or dead organisms (usually active infection)

94
Q

How is HIV tested for?

A

HIV Ab/Ag combined test. If positive then:

HIV PCR - how much virus is present?

HIV resistance testing - best antiretroviral therapy?

95
Q

What testing is done for Hep B?

A

The “Hepatitis B Panel” of Blood Tests

HBsAg (Hepatitis B surface antigen) - A “positive” or “reactive” HBsAg test result means that the person is infected with hepatitis B

96
Q

How is Hep C tested for?

A

Hep C antibody - to find out if someone has ever been infected with the hepatitis C virus

Hep C PCR - active infection?

97
Q

Syphilis testing:

A

Can detect early, latent or late infection.

Congenital infection

Detection by PCR

Serology:
- Screening with IgM

98
Q

Key learning points:

A

Only request tests when you have clinical suspicion of infection, unless screening an asymptomatic individual as part of national programme

Detailed history, including travel, will help guide investigations

Review carefully for source of infection before selecting appropriate tests

Most patients require both generic tests and focused tests

99
Q

Sensitivity is a calculation of…?

A

The proportion of people with the disease who test positive

100
Q

What is the ‘positive predictive value’ of a test?

A

The probability that people with a positive test who truly have the disease

101
Q

What is the ‘negative predictive value’ of a test?

A

The probability that people with a negative test who truly don’t have the disease

102
Q

Specificity is a calculation of…?

A

The proportion of people without the disease who test negative

103
Q

Detection of measles IgG in the blood suggests…

A

Suggests PAST infection with measles

104
Q

Detection of measles IgM in the blood suggests…

A

Suggests current infection with measles

105
Q

A patient presents to A&E with headache, neck stiffness, fever and photophobia.

What are the most appropriate tests?

A

Suspect meningitis:

Blood cultures (meningococcus, pneumococcus)

Throat swab (meningococcus)

CSF

Blood for PCR

106
Q

What is organism is meningococcus?

A

Neisseria meningitidis (bacteria)

107
Q

What type of pneumonia can Legionella pneumophila cause?

A

Atypical pneumonia

108
Q

What is the first choice antibiotic for typical pneumonia?

A

Amoxicillin

109
Q

Which organisms cause atypical pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia caused by the bacteria Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Pneumonia due to Chlamydophila pneumoniae bacteria

Pneumonia due to Legionella pneumophila bacteria - seen more often in middle-aged and older adults, smokers, and those with chronic illnesses or a weak immune system.

110
Q

What are the most appropriate tests for a patient with suspected pulmonary TB?

A

Chest xray

3 sputum samples for AAFB MC&S

111
Q

Typical presenting symptoms of pulmonary TB?

A

Weight loss, fever, productive cough

112
Q

If a urine dip stick shows leucocytes and nitrites but the patient has no fever or urinary symptoms, what should you recommend?

A

Do nothing, reassure the patient

113
Q

In Hep B testing, what does:

a) HBsAg mean?
b) anti-HBs or HBsAb mean?
c) anti-HBc or HBcAb mean?

A

a) Hepatitis B surface antigen - a positive result means the person is INFECTED with Hep B
b) Hepatitis B surface antibody - a positive result means the person is PROTECTED against Hep B (either vaccine or previous infection)
c) Hepatitis B core antibody - a positive result means a PAST or CURRENT Hep B infection (the core antibody provides NO protection unlike the surface antibody)

CP reviewer 1 (59 decks)

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