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PNP Certification Exam > Integumentary > Flashcards

Integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

What type of burn: dry, red, no blisters, involves epidermis only

A

First degree

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2
Q

Moist, blisters, extends beyond epidermis

A

Second degree–partial thickness

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3
Q

Dry, leather, black, pearly, waxy; extends from epidermis to dermis to underlying tissues, fat, muscle and/or bone

A

Third degree–full thickness

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4
Q

What age can you begin to use the rule of 9’s to measure burns?

A

9 years old

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5
Q

What would require prophylactic intubation if present following a burn?

A

Singed nares/eyebrows, soot in nares/mouth

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6
Q

What should be the first process when dealing with a burn?

A

Stop the burning process by removing burned clothing and dousing the burn in cool water

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7
Q

What is a particular risk in young children following burns?

A

Hypothermia

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8
Q

What is the most critical time frame following a burn?

A

The first six hours

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9
Q

What are the three systemic approaches to evaluating skin disorders?

A

Morphology, configuration, and distribution

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10
Q

A flat discoloration. Example: ephelides (freckles), petechiae, flat nevi (moles)

A

Macule

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11
Q

An elevated, firm lesion greater than 1 cm. Examples: xanthoma and fibroma

A

Nodule

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12
Q

A flat discoloration that looks as though it is a collection of multiple, tiny pigment changes; may be some subtle surface changes. Examples: Mongolian spot, cafe au lait spot

A

Patch

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13
Q

A firm, elevated lump

A

Tumor

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14
Q

A small, less than 1 cm, elevated and firm skin lesion. Examples: ant bite, elevated nevus (mole), verruca (wart)

A

Papule

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15
Q

A scaly, elevated lesion; the classic lesion of psoriasis

A

Plaque

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16
Q

A small, greater than 1 cm lesion filled with serous fluid. Examples: herpes simplex, varicella, herpes zoster (shingles)

A

Vesicle

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17
Q

Serous fluid-filled vesicles greater than 1 cm. Examples: burns, superficial blister, contact dermatitis

A

Bulla

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18
Q

A lesion raised above the surface and extending a bit below the epidermis; many times an allergic reaction (either contact or systemic)

A

Wheal

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19
Q

A small, less than 1 cm pus-filled lesion. Example: Acne and impetigo

A

Pustule

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20
Q

A pus-filled lesion greater than 1 cm

A

Abscess

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21
Q

Large, raised lesions filled with serous fluid, blood, and pus

A

Cyst

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22
Q

Individual or distinct lesions that remain separate from one another

A

Solitary or discreet

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23
Q

How the lesions present on the body

A

Configuartion

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24
Q

A linear cluster of lesions

A

Grouped

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25
Q

Lesions that run together, cannot tell where one starts and the next ends

A

Confluent

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26
Q

Scratch, streak, line, or stripe lesions

A

Linear

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27
Q

Circular, beginning in the center and spreading to the periphery

A

Annular

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28
Q

Annular lesions merged together

A

Polycyclic

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29
Q

This defines where on the body the lesions appear

A

Distribution

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30
Q

A polymorphic skin disorder characterized by comedones, papules, pustules, and cysts

A

Acne

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31
Q

Acne is more common and severe in _______.

A

Males

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32
Q

These can either be open or closed. If open, it is a blackhead and if closed, it is a whitehead.

A

Comedones

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33
Q

What topical treatment is useful in mild acne?

A

benzoyl peroxide (2.5-10%)

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34
Q

What topical antibiotics are useful in treating MILD acne?

A

Erythromycin or clindamycin lotions or pads

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35
Q

For MODERATE acne should be given in conjunction with topical treatments. What is the first antibiotic that should be tried, and the dose?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg BID

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36
Q

If Doxycycline does not respond to acne, what is the next antibiotic of choice?

A

Erythromycin 1 gram in 2-3 divided doses

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37
Q

What is the third antibiotic of choice for acne treatment?

A

Minocycline 50-100 mg BID

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38
Q

Severe acne that does not respond to these treatments, what is the next step?

A

Refer to dermatology

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39
Q

Where is tinea capitus found?

A

Scalp

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40
Q

What is tinea corporis?

A

Body ringworm

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41
Q

What is tinea cruris?

A

Jock itch

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42
Q

What is tinea manuum and tinea pedis?

A

Athlete’s foot

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43
Q

Hypo/hyperpigmentation macules on the limbs is called:

A

Tinea versicolor

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44
Q

What is the primary treatment for fungal infections?

A

griseofulvin 20 mg/kg/day x6 weeks

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45
Q

For tinea corporis (ringworm), what topical anti fungal is adequate for treatment?

A

Miconazole or ketoconazole 2%

46
Q

This cream is curative for tinea cruris in more than 80% of cases when used twice daily.

A

terbinafine cream

47
Q

For tinea manuum and pedis, this solution should be used to soak for 20 minutes twice a day

A

aluminum subacetate solution

48
Q

What is the treatment for tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium sulfide shampoo for 5-15 minutes/day x 7 days

49
Q

Acute, contagious disease caused by herpes virus, transmitted by direct contact with lesions or airborne particles.

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (Chickenpox)

50
Q

How long are individuals infectious with chicken pox?

A

48 hours BEFORE the outbreak and until lesions have crusted over

51
Q

Most common age to get chicken pox is ages __ to __

A

5 to 10 years

52
Q

What does the rash look like in chicken pox?

A

Erythematous macules with papules developing over the macules and then erupting vesicles

53
Q

Treatment for pruritus with chicken pox

A

supportive care

54
Q

Oral ____________ is given at 20 mg __ times a day in the first 24 hours can reduce the magnitude and/or duration of symptoms

A

acyclovir

5 times a day

55
Q

A common, benign viral skin infection; frequently these lesions disappear on their own in a few weeks to a few months and are not easily treated.

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

56
Q

Diagnostic criteria for molluscum contagiosum includes ______, the presence of a very small, ______, pink-to-flesh colored discrete _______, which becomes _________ papules with a _______ core.

A 
Pruritis
Firm
Papule
Umbilicated
Cheesy
57
Q

Treatment of molluscum contagiosum

A

Will resolve spontaneously if left alone

58
Q

Chronic skin condition characterized by intense itching along a typical pattern of distribution with periods of remission and exacerbation

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

59
Q

Is eczema a primary or secondary skin condition?

A

secondary

60
Q

Often times eczema presents with ________ skin

A

lichenified (thickened)

61
Q

What is the hallmark management for dry skin in eczema?

A

Moisturizing lotion immediately after bathing; blot dry

62
Q

What is the topical steroid cream that is first-line treatment in eczema?

A

hydrocortisone

63
Q

In acute weeping spell with eczema, use saline or _______ ______ solution and oatmeal baths

A

aluminum subacetate

64
Q

An acute or chronic dermatitis that results from direct skin contact with chemicals or allergens

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

65
Q

Common skin irritation of the genital-perianal region

A

Irritant (diaper) dermatitis

66
Q

What can be used in mild cases of irritant diaper dermatitis?

A

barrier emollients

67
Q

If erythema/papules are present in diaper rash, what cream is used?

A

hydrocortisone 1%

68
Q

What is the best treatment for diaper rash

A

allow diaper area to air several times daily

69
Q

A common benign hyperproliferative inflammatory skin disorder based on genetic predisposition

A

Psoriasis

70
Q

In psoriasis, the epidermal turnover time is reduced from ___ days to ___ days

A

14 days to 2 days

71
Q

In psoriasis, lesions are red, sharply defined _____ with silvery ______.

A

plaques

scales

72
Q

What nail changes are associated with psoriasis?

A

fine pitting of the nail and separation of the nail plate from the bed

73
Q

Droplets of blood when scales are removed:

A

Auspitz’s sign

74
Q

For treatment of the scalp, use what types of shampoos

A

Tar/salicylic acid

75
Q

If more than 30% of the body surface is involved, what should you use for treatment of psoriasis:

A

UVB light and coal tar exposure

76
Q

A mild, acute inflammatory skin disorder; usually self-limiting lasting 3-8 weeks. Patients will often report a recent URI

A

Pityriasis rosea

77
Q

What is the initial lesion in pityriasis rosea called

A

Herald patch

78
Q

“Soap-sud” lesions associated with what

A

Psoriasis

79
Q

General mild infection caused by group A beta-hemolytic strep. Contracted through contact with infected respiratory droplets or skin exudate, as a complication of strep throat, or as a result of food-borne bacteria. Most common in children aged 5-15 years.

A

Scarlet Fever

80
Q

Scarlet Fever rash: confined, bright red, flat blotches that progress into widespread _______-like papillae

A

sandpaper-like

81
Q

Where does the scarlet fever rash present first? then where does it spread?

A

First: neck/armpits/groin
Next: across trunk and extremities

82
Q

What is the treatment for scarlet fever?

A

10 to 14 day course of penicillin or amoxicillin

83
Q

A bacterial infection of the skin typically caused by gram positive strep or staph organisms.

A

Impetigo

84
Q

What area of the body is imeptigo primarily located?

A

Face

85
Q

When is impetigo most common?

A

Summer

86
Q

Lesions that are present in impetigo are described as:

A

honey-crusted

87
Q

For minor impetigo infections, what should be used first?

A

topical antimicrobials (mupirocin)

88
Q

Impetigo is highly contagious, and patient should abstain from school events until __ hours of treatment has been completed.

A

48 hours

89
Q

A highly contagious skin infestation caused by a parasitic mite that burrows into stratum corneum

A

Scabies

90
Q

Thin, white roundworms that live in the colon and rectum of humans; occurs most commonly among school-aged children and younger; spread by fecal-oral route

A

Pinworms

91
Q

What test is used to detect pinworms?

A

Tape test–placed around the anus then look under microscope

92
Q

A spirochetal disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the US caused by infected mice and deer tick bites

A

Lyme Disese

93
Q

What is the organism responsible for causing Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

94
Q

In stage one of Lyme disease, A flat or slightly raised red lesion that expands over several days but has a central clearing; commonly appears in areas of tight clothing

A

Erythema migrans

95
Q

Stage 2 of Lyme Disease:

A

HA, stiff joints, bell’s palsy

96
Q

Stage 3 of Lyme disease:

A

Joint and periarticular pain

97
Q

What is a bluish red discoloration of the distal extremities with edema that presents in Stage 3 of Lyme Disease

A

Acrodermatitits chronicum atrophicans

98
Q

Treatment for Lyme disease if:
Under 7
Over 7

A

Under 7: Amoxicillin

Over 7: Doxycycline

99
Q

Ordinary measles; red measles is calleda;

A

Rubeola

100
Q

What is present in rubeola that is specific to this disease process

A

Koplik’s spots

101
Q

“German measles; 3-day measles”

A

Rubella

102
Q

The rash with Rubella starts where? spreads where? when does it disappear?

A

Starts on face, spreads to extremities/trunk, and disappears in 72 hours

103
Q

Official name for Fifth disease

A

Erythema infectiosum

104
Q

What causes Erythema infectiosum?

A

Human parvovirus B19

105
Q

Define the facial race with Fifth disease

A

slapped-cheek appearance

lacy reticular exanthema

106
Q

Children with Fifth disease are/are not contagious after fever breaks.

A

Are not

107
Q

This disease is associated with high fever that abruptly stops when the rash develops

A

Roseola

108
Q

What does the roseola rash look like? Where does it start first and then spreads to where?

A

small pink, flat to raised bumps that starts on the trunk and spreads to the extremities

109
Q

A highly contagious viral illness resulting in ulceration and inflammation of the soft palate (herpangina) and papulovesicular exanthem on the hands and feet

A

Coxsacki Virus (Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease)

110
Q

What treatment is needed is needed for HFMD?

A

Self-resolving

111
Q

A highly contagious viral infection primarily affecting the salivary glands which resolves within 2 weeks

A

Mumps

112
Q

What lab test is helpful to diagnose mumps

A

Mumps immunoglobulin M (IgM)

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