GI

Question 1

What children are at risk of developing gastroenteritis?

Answer 1

Children that attend daycare

Question 2

What is the most common virus of gastroenteritis?

Answer 2

Rotavirus

Question 3

Campylobacter will cause very _____ stools

Answer 3

odorous

Question 4

Shigella causes what two things?

Answer 4

bloody stools and febrile seizures

Question 5

E. coli causes what type of stool?

Answer 5

mild, loose stool

Question 6

When are diagnostic tests indicated for gastroenteritis?

Answer 6

symptoms presenting more than 72 hours OR if blood is present in the stool

Question 7

How many negative stool cultures are required prior to the patient returning to daycare if infected with E. coli and Shigella?

Answer 7

Two negative stool cultures

Question 8

Oral rehydration therapy should start at ___ ml/hr for moderate dehdyration

Answer 8

50 ml/hr

Question 9

Oral rehydration therapy should start at __ ml/hr for severe dehydration

Answer 9

100 ml/hr

Question 10

When should antibiotics be considered for diarrhea?

Answer 10

More than 8-10 stools/day

Question 11

What is the first drug of choice in treating diarrhea?

Answer 11

Trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole

Question 12

What bacterial agent causing diarrhea does not respond well to antibiotics?

Answer 12

Salmonella

Question 13

A condition in which gastric contents pass into the esophagus from the stomach through the lower esophageal sphincter.

Answer 13

GERD

Question 14

What are the three classes of GERD?

Answer 14

physiological, functional, and pathological

Question 15

Name the class of GERD: Infrequent, episodic vomiting without sequelae

Answer 15

Physiological GERD

Question 16

Name the class of GERD: painless, effortless vomiting with no physical sequelae

Answer 16

Functional GERD

Question 17

Name the class of GERD: frequent vomiting with alteration in physical functioning such as failure to thrive and aspiration pneumonia (sequelae)

Answer 17

Pathological GERD

Question 18

What are non-pharmacological management options for GERD?

Answer 18

small frequent feedings, burp frequently, avoid formula changes, elevate head after feeding

Question 19

What two drug classes are used to treat GERD?

Answer 19

Histamine H2-receptor antagonists (famotidine/Pepcid, ranitidine/Zantac)

Proton pump inhibitors (oeprazole/Prilosec)

Question 20

Obstruction resulting from thickening of the circular muscle of the pylorus, occurring in 1:500 infants.

Answer 20

Pyloric Stenosis

Question 21

When does pyloric stenosis typically present itself?

Answer 21

3 weeks to 4 months

Question 22

How does the patient act after the projectile vomiting with pyloric stenosis?

Answer 22

hungry

Question 23

What is the confirmatory test for Pyloric stenosis?

Answer 23

US

Question 24

Management for pyloric stenosis?

Answer 24

Surgery

Question 25

Acute prolapse (telescoping) of one part of the intestine into another adjacent segment of the intesting.

Answer 25

Intussusception

Question 26

What do the stools look like in intussusception?

Answer 26

currant jelly stools

Question 27

What is able to be palpated in the abdomen during pyloric stenosis and intussusception?

Answer 27

PS: pyloric olive Intussusception: sausage shaped mass in RUQ

Question 28

How is intussusception reduced?

Answer 28

Barium/air enema

Question 29

What do these signs/symptoms show? Failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, infrequent/explosive bowel movements, abdominal distention, FTT, malnutrition

Answer 29

Hirschsprung's Disease (Aganglionic Megacolon)

Question 30

In appendicitis, what does PROM stand for?

Answer 30

Psoas sign: pain with right thigh extension Rebound tenderness Obturator Sign: pain with internal rotation of the right thigh McBurney's point tenderness: RLQ

Question 31

Impaired intestinal absorption of essential nutrients and electrolytes caused by enzymatic deficiencies.

Answer 31

Malabsorption

Question 32

What type of stools are expected with malabsorption

Answer 32

bulky, foul stools (steatorrhea)

Question 33

What should you avoid if you have celiac disease?

Answer 33

Wheat, oats, rye, and barley

Question 34

Tumor arising from neural tissue; frequently from the adrenal gland and can spread to bone marrow, liver, lymph nodes, skin, and orbits of the eyes.

Answer 34

Neuroblastoma

Question 35

When is neuroblastoma most common?

Answer 35

Before the age of 5

Question 36

What would be checked in the urine to determine if neuroblastoma is present?

Answer 36

catecholamines (because it starts in adrenal gland)

Question 37

Is neuroblastoma rapid or slow-growing?

Answer 37

Extremely rapid, can progress from stage 2 to stage 4 in as little as two weeks.

Question 38

An inflammation of the liver with resultant liver dysfunction.

Answer 38

Hepatitis

Question 39

An enteral virus, transmitted via the oral-fecal route?

Answer 39

Hepatitis A

Question 40

How long are blood and stools infectious in Hepatitis A?

Answer 40

2 to 6 weeks

Question 41

A blood-borne virus present in saliva, semen, vaginal secretions, and all body fluids

Answer 41

Hepatitis B

Question 42

How is Hepatitis B transmitted

Answer 42

via blood and blood products, sexual activity, and mother-to-fetus

Question 43

This type of hepatitis is associated with IV drug users by 50%

Answer 43

Hepatitis C

Question 44

Aversion to second-hand smoke and alcohol odors is present in what stage of hepatitis?

Answer 44

Pre-icteric

Question 45

Weight loss, jaundice, pruritis, clay-colored stools is present in what stage of hepatitis?

Answer 45

Icteric

Question 46

AST and ALT are _____ in hepatitis.

Answer 46

Elevated

Question 47

AST and ALT ___ prior to onset of jaundice and will ___ after jaundice presents.

Answer 47

rises | falls

Question 48

How much should a patient increase their fluids to manage hepatitis?

Answer 48

3,000-4,000 ml/day