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PNP Certification Exam > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

What children are at risk of developing gastroenteritis?

A

Children that attend daycare

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2
Q

What is the most common virus of gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus

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3
Q

Campylobacter will cause very _____ stools

A

odorous

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4
Q

Shigella causes what two things?

A

bloody stools and febrile seizures

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5
Q

E. coli causes what type of stool?

A

mild, loose stool

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6
Q

When are diagnostic tests indicated for gastroenteritis?

A

symptoms presenting more than 72 hours OR if blood is present in the stool

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7
Q

How many negative stool cultures are required prior to the patient returning to daycare if infected with E. coli and Shigella?

A

Two negative stool cultures

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8
Q

Oral rehydration therapy should start at ___ ml/hr for moderate dehdyration

A

50 ml/hr

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9
Q

Oral rehydration therapy should start at __ ml/hr for severe dehydration

A

100 ml/hr

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10
Q

When should antibiotics be considered for diarrhea?

A

More than 8-10 stools/day

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11
Q

What is the first drug of choice in treating diarrhea?

A

Trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole

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12
Q

What bacterial agent causing diarrhea does not respond well to antibiotics?

A

Salmonella

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13
Q

A condition in which gastric contents pass into the esophagus from the stomach through the lower esophageal sphincter.

A

GERD

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14
Q

What are the three classes of GERD?

A

physiological, functional, and pathological

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15
Q

Name the class of GERD: Infrequent, episodic vomiting without sequelae

A

Physiological GERD

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16
Q

Name the class of GERD: painless, effortless vomiting with no physical sequelae

A

Functional GERD

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17
Q

Name the class of GERD: frequent vomiting with alteration in physical functioning such as failure to thrive and aspiration pneumonia (sequelae)

A

Pathological GERD

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18
Q

What are non-pharmacological management options for GERD?

A

small frequent feedings, burp frequently, avoid formula changes, elevate head after feeding

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19
Q

What two drug classes are used to treat GERD?

A

Histamine H2-receptor antagonists (famotidine/Pepcid, ranitidine/Zantac)

Proton pump inhibitors (oeprazole/Prilosec)

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20
Q

Obstruction resulting from thickening of the circular muscle of the pylorus, occurring in 1:500 infants.

A

Pyloric Stenosis

21
Q

When does pyloric stenosis typically present itself?

A

3 weeks to 4 months

22
Q

How does the patient act after the projectile vomiting with pyloric stenosis?

A

hungry

23
Q

What is the confirmatory test for Pyloric stenosis?

A

US

24
Q

Management for pyloric stenosis?

A

Surgery

25
Q

Acute prolapse (telescoping) of one part of the intestine into another adjacent segment of the intesting.

A

Intussusception

26
Q

What do the stools look like in intussusception?

A

currant jelly stools

27
Q

What is able to be palpated in the abdomen during pyloric stenosis and intussusception?

A

PS: pyloric olive
Intussusception: sausage shaped mass in RUQ

28
Q

How is intussusception reduced?

A

Barium/air enema

29
Q

What do these signs/symptoms show? Failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, infrequent/explosive bowel movements, abdominal distention, FTT, malnutrition

A

Hirschsprung’s Disease (Aganglionic Megacolon)

30
Q

In appendicitis, what does PROM stand for?

A

Psoas sign: pain with right thigh extension
Rebound tenderness
Obturator Sign: pain with internal rotation of the right thigh
McBurney’s point tenderness: RLQ

31
Q

Impaired intestinal absorption of essential nutrients and electrolytes caused by enzymatic deficiencies.

A

Malabsorption

32
Q

What type of stools are expected with malabsorption

A

bulky, foul stools (steatorrhea)

33
Q

What should you avoid if you have celiac disease?

A

Wheat, oats, rye, and barley

34
Q

Tumor arising from neural tissue; frequently from the adrenal gland and can spread to bone marrow, liver, lymph nodes, skin, and orbits of the eyes.

A

Neuroblastoma

35
Q

When is neuroblastoma most common?

A

Before the age of 5

36
Q

What would be checked in the urine to determine if neuroblastoma is present?

A

catecholamines (because it starts in adrenal gland)

37
Q

Is neuroblastoma rapid or slow-growing?

A

Extremely rapid, can progress from stage 2 to stage 4 in as little as two weeks.

38
Q

An inflammation of the liver with resultant liver dysfunction.

A

Hepatitis

39
Q

An enteral virus, transmitted via the oral-fecal route?

A

Hepatitis A

40
Q

How long are blood and stools infectious in Hepatitis A?

A

2 to 6 weeks

41
Q

A blood-borne virus present in saliva, semen, vaginal secretions, and all body fluids

A

Hepatitis B

42
Q

How is Hepatitis B transmitted

A

via blood and blood products, sexual activity, and mother-to-fetus

43
Q

This type of hepatitis is associated with IV drug users by 50%

A

Hepatitis C

44
Q

Aversion to second-hand smoke and alcohol odors is present in what stage of hepatitis?

A

Pre-icteric

45
Q

Weight loss, jaundice, pruritis, clay-colored stools is present in what stage of hepatitis?

A

Icteric

46
Q

AST and ALT are _____ in hepatitis.

A

Elevated

47
Q

AST and ALT ___ prior to onset of jaundice and will ___ after jaundice presents.

A

rises

falls

48
Q

How much should a patient increase their fluids to manage hepatitis?

A

3,000-4,000 ml/day

PNP Certification Exam (12 decks)

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