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Clinical Chemistry > Instrumentation > Flashcards

Instrumentation Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Beer’s Law?

A

Beer’s Law states that the absorbance of a solution is directly proportional to its concentration and the path length of the light.

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2
Q

True or False: Beer’s Law can be expressed mathematically as A = εlc.

A

True

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3
Q

In the equation A = εlc, what does ‘A’ represent?

A

‘A’ represents the absorbance of the solution.

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4
Q

Fill in the blank: In Beer’s Law, ‘ε’ is the _____ coefficient.

A

molar absorptivity

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5
Q

What factors can affect the validity of Beer’s Law?

A

Concentration, wavelength, and the presence of other absorbing species can affect the validity of Beer’s Law.

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6
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for Beer’s Law to hold true? A) Monochromatic light B) Constant temperature C) Infinite concentration D) Homogeneous medium

A

C) Infinite concentration

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7
Q

What is the relationship between absorbance and concentration according to Beer’s Law?

A

Absorbance increases linearly with an increase in concentration.

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8
Q

True or False: Beer’s Law can be applied to all types of solutions regardless of concentration.

A

False

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9
Q

What does the term ‘path length’ refer to in the context of Beer’s Law?

A

Path length refers to the distance that light travels through the solution.

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10
Q

How is the molar absorptivity coefficient ‘ε’ defined?

A

‘ε’ is defined as the absorbance per unit concentration per unit path length.

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11
Q

What is flame photometry used for?

A

Flame photometry is used for the quantitative determination of certain metal ions based on their emission of light when heated in a flame.

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12
Q

True or False: Atomic absorption spectrophotometry measures the light emitted by atoms.

A

False. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry measures the light absorbed by atoms.

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: In flame photometry, the sample is typically introduced into the flame in the form of a ______.

A

solution

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14
Q

What is the primary component of an atomic absorption spectrophotometer?

A

A light source, usually a hollow cathode lamp, specific to the element being analyzed.

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15
Q

Which technique is more sensitive for trace metal analysis: flame photometry or atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry is more sensitive for trace metal analysis.

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16
Q

What is the principle behind fluorometry?

A

Fluorometry is based on the measurement of emitted light from a sample after it has absorbed light of a specific wavelength.

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17
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following elements is commonly analyzed using flame photometry? A) Iron B) Sodium C) Mercury D) Lead

A

B) Sodium

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18
Q

True or False: Fluorometry can be used to measure concentrations of fluorescent compounds in a sample.

A

True.

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19
Q

What is the main advantage of using atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A

High sensitivity and the ability to analyze trace elements.

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: Flame photometry primarily measures _______ emission.

A

light

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21
Q

What type of flame is typically used in flame photometry?

A

A natural gas or air flame.

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22
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following instruments can be used for quantitative analysis? A) Spectrophotometer B) pH meter C) Thermometer D) Refractometer

A

A) Spectrophotometer

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23
Q

True or False: Atomic absorption spectrophotometry requires a solid sample.

A

False. It typically requires a liquid sample.

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24
Q

What is the role of the nebulizer in flame photometry?

A

To convert the liquid sample into an aerosol for introduction into the flame.

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25
Q

Fill in the blank: In fluorometry, the emitted light is measured at a _______ angle to the excitation light.

A

right

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26
Q

What is the significance of the calibration curve in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A

It is used to determine the concentration of an unknown sample based on its absorbance.

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27
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a limitation of flame photometry? A) High cost B) Complexity C) Limited to certain elements D) Requires solid samples

A

C) Limited to certain elements

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28
Q

True or False: Fluorometry can detect non-fluorescent compounds directly.

A

False. It can only detect fluorescent compounds.

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29
Q

What is the function of the monochromator in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A

To isolate the specific wavelength of light that corresponds to the element being analyzed.

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30
Q

Fill in the blank: The detection limit in fluorometry is typically _______ than in other spectrophotometric methods.

A

lower

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31
Q

What is the main disadvantage of using flame photometry?

A

It cannot detect elements that do not emit light in the flame.

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32
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following techniques is best suited for analyzing organic compounds? A) Flame photometry B) Atomic absorption C) Fluorometry D) All of the above

A

C) Fluorometry

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33
Q

True or False: In atomic absorption spectrophotometry, the sample must be vaporized before analysis.

A

True.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of using a standard solution in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

A

To create a calibration curve for quantifying unknown sample concentrations.

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35
Q

Fill in the blank: The sensitivity of flame photometry is generally _______ than that of atomic absorption spectrophotometry.

A

lower

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36
Q

What is chemiluminescence?

A

The emission of light as a result of a chemical reaction.

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37
Q

True or False: Chemiluminescence occurs without the involvement of heat.

A

True

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38
Q

Fill in the blank: Chemiluminescence is often used in ________ applications.

A

bioluminescent

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39
Q

What is turbidimetry?

A

A technique used to measure the concentration of suspended particles in a liquid by measuring the amount of light that passes through the sample.

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40
Q

Which instrument is commonly used in turbidimetry?

A

Turbidimeter

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41
Q

True or False: Nephelometry measures the light scattered by particles in a sample.

A

True

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42
Q

What is the primary difference between turbidimetry and nephelometry?

A

Turbidimetry measures transmitted light, while nephelometry measures scattered light.

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43
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nephelometry? A) Measures scattered light B) Used for particle characterization C) Measures light absorption

A

C) Measures light absorption

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44
Q

What is electrochemistry?

A

The branch of chemistry that deals with the relationship between electricity and chemical reactions.

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45
Q

Fill in the blank: In electrochemistry, ________ reactions involve the transfer of electrons.

A

redox

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46
Q

True or False: Electrochemical cells can convert chemical energy into electrical energy.

A

True

47
Q

What is the role of a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

A

To maintain electrical neutrality by allowing the flow of ions between the two half-cells.

48
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a type of electrochemical cell? A) Galvanic cell B) Photovoltaic cell C) Fuel cell

A

A) Galvanic cell

49
Q

What measurement is typically used in turbidimetry?

A

Optical density or absorbance

50
Q

True or False: The higher the turbidity, the lower the light transmission.

A

True

51
Q

Fill in the blank: Nephelometry is sensitive to ________ size and shape.

A

particle

52
Q

What is the principle behind using chemiluminescence in assays?

A

The light emitted can be quantitatively measured to determine the presence of specific substances.

53
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is an application of chemiluminescence? A) DNA analysis B) Water purification C) Soil testing

A

A) DNA analysis

54
Q

What does the term ‘quenching’ refer to in chemiluminescence?

A

The process by which the emitted light is reduced or extinguished due to various factors.

55
Q

True or False: In nephelometry, the angle at which light is scattered can affect measurements.

A

True

56
Q

What are the two main types of electrochemical cells?

A

Galvanic cells and electrolytic cells.

57
Q

Fill in the blank: The Nernst equation relates the ________ of an electrochemical cell to the concentrations of the reactants and products.

A

electromotive force (EMF)

58
Q

What is a common application of turbidimetry?

A

Determining water quality by measuring suspended solids.

59
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors can affect the results of turbidimetry? A) Sample temperature B) Sample color C) Both A and B

A

C) Both A and B

60
Q

What is the significance of the scattering angle in nephelometry?

A

It helps in determining the size and concentration of the particles present in the sample.

61
Q

True or False: Electrochemical sensors can be used for environmental monitoring.

A

True

62
Q

Fill in the blank: The ________ is the device that measures the potential difference in an electrochemical cell.

A

voltmeter

63
Q

What is the purpose of calibration in turbidimetry?

A

To ensure accurate measurements by comparing the sample against known standards.

64
Q

Multiple Choice: In electrochemistry, what does the term ‘anode’ refer to? A) The electrode where reduction occurs B) The electrode where oxidation occurs C) The electrode with the highest voltage

A

B) The electrode where oxidation occurs

65
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

A technique used to separate charged particles in a fluid using an electric field.

66
Q

True or False: Electrophoresis can only be used for DNA analysis.

A

False

67
Q

Fill in the blank: In electrophoresis, particles move towards the _____ electrode.

A

opposite

68
Q

What is the role of the buffer solution in electrophoresis?

A

To maintain pH and provide ions to carry the electric current.

69
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of electrophoresis? A) Gel B) Capillary C) Liquid chromatography D) Paper

A

C) Liquid chromatography

70
Q

What is the typical matrix used in gel electrophoresis?

A

Agarose or polyacrylamide.

71
Q

True or False: The size of the pores in the gel affects the separation of molecules.

A

True

72
Q

What does the term ‘migration’ refer to in electrophoresis?

A

The movement of charged particles towards the electrodes.

73
Q

Fill in the blank: DNA fragments are negatively charged and move towards the _____ electrode.

A

positive

74
Q

What is the purpose of staining in electrophoresis?

A

To visualize the separated molecules after the run.

75
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following techniques can be used to separate proteins? A) Gel electrophoresis B) PCR C) ELISA D) Western blotting

A

A) Gel electrophoresis

76
Q

What is isoelectric focusing?

A

A technique that separates proteins based on their isoelectric points.

77
Q

True or False: Electrophoresis is only applicable in research laboratories.

A

False

78
Q

What type of samples can be analyzed using electrophoresis?

A

DNA, RNA, proteins, and other charged biomolecules.

79
Q

Fill in the blank: The rate of migration in electrophoresis depends on the _____ and _____ of the particles.

A

size, charge

80
Q

What is the function of a power supply in electrophoresis?

A

To provide the electric current necessary for particle movement.

81
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common application of electrophoresis? A) Blood typing B) Gene cloning C) Protein purification D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

82
Q

What is the significance of the Rf value in thin-layer chromatography?

A

It indicates the relative distance traveled by a substance compared to the solvent front.

83
Q

True or False: Smaller fragments of DNA migrate faster than larger ones in gel electrophoresis.

A

True

84
Q

What is the main difference between agarose and polyacrylamide gels?

A

Agarose is used for larger DNA fragments, while polyacrylamide is better for smaller fragments and proteins.

85
Q

Fill in the blank: In capillary electrophoresis, the separation occurs in a _____ tube.

A

narrow

86
Q

What are the two main types of electrophoresis?

A

Gel electrophoresis and capillary electrophoresis.

87
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting electrophoresis? A) Voltage B) Temperature C) Humidity D) Gel concentration

A

C) Humidity

88
Q

What does SDS-PAGE stand for?

A

Sodium dodecyl sulfate polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.

89
Q

What is chromatography?

A

A separation technique used to separate components of a mixture based on their different interactions with a stationary phase and a mobile phase.

90
Q

True or False: Chromatography can only be performed in liquid form.

A

False

91
Q

Name the two main phases involved in chromatography.

A

Stationary phase and mobile phase.

92
Q

What is the purpose of the stationary phase in chromatography?

A

To provide a medium where different components of a mixture can interact, leading to separation based on their affinities.

93
Q

Fill in the blank: In gas chromatography, the mobile phase is _______.

A

a gas

94
Q

What is osmometry?

A

A technique used to measure the osmotic pressure of a solution to determine its concentration.

95
Q

True or False: Osmometry is used primarily for solid samples.

A

False

96
Q

What is the principle behind osmometry?

A

It is based on the colligative properties of solutions, specifically how solute particles affect the osmotic pressure.

97
Q

What type of chromatography uses a solid stationary phase and a liquid mobile phase?

A

Adsorption chromatography.

98
Q

In high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC), what is the role of the pump?

A

To move the mobile phase through the column under high pressure.

99
Q

Fill in the blank: The unit of measurement for osmotic pressure is _______.

A

atmospheres (atm) or Pascal (Pa)

100
Q

What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative chromatography?

A

Qualitative chromatography identifies components, while quantitative chromatography measures the amount of each component.

101
Q

What does the term ‘retention time’ refer to in chromatography?

A

The time taken for a particular compound to pass through the chromatography column.

102
Q

Which type of chromatography is best suited for separating large biomolecules?

A

Size exclusion chromatography.

103
Q

True or False: Osmometers can be used to determine the molecular weight of solutes.

A

True

104
Q

What is the main use of thin-layer chromatography (TLC)?

A

To separate and identify small quantities of compounds.

105
Q

What does the term ‘elution’ mean in chromatography?

A

The process of washing out the adsorbed substances from the stationary phase using the mobile phase.

106
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ phase moves through the stationary phase in chromatography.

A

mobile

107
Q

What type of detector is commonly used in HPLC?

A

UV-Vis detector.

108
Q

What is the primary advantage of using gas chromatography?

A

It allows for the analysis of volatile compounds with high resolution and speed.

109
Q

What is the role of the solvent in osmometry?

A

To dissolve the solute and allow for the measurement of osmotic pressure.

110
Q

Name one application of chromatography in the pharmaceutical industry.

A

Purification of drug compounds.

111
Q

What is the purpose of a calibration curve in chromatography?

A

To determine the concentration of unknown samples based on known standards.

112
Q

True or False: Chromatography can be used for both analytical and preparative purposes.

A

True

113
Q

What is a common application of osmometry in clinical settings?

A

To assess kidney function by measuring serum osmolality.

Clinical Chemistry (11 decks)

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