Infectious Diseases of Skin and MSK - VIRUSES Flashcards

1
Q

Viral infections of these are often acute, occurring concurrently with signs and symptoms of febrile systemic illness and resolves along with other manifestations of illness

A

Joint and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Viruses may cause arthritis directly by infecting this

A

Synovium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Viruses may cause arthritis indirectly through this

A

Host immune-mediated responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Measles is this type of virus

A

Rubeola virus - a paramyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Measles virus has this type of genome

A

-ssRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Measles envelope contains these 2 proteins

A

Fusion protein (F) and Hemagglutinin (H)
(no neuraminidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many serotypes of Measles are there?

A

1
(strict human pathogen with a single serotype)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ulcerated mucosal lesions marked by necrosis, neutrophilic exudate, and neurovascularization seen in Measles
Characterized as clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa (opposite the lower 1st and 2nd molars)
Often described as appearing like “grains of salt on a reddish background”

A

Koplik spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A chronic degenerative fatal neurologic disease that occurs on average 7 years after an attack of measles, particularly in children who had measles before 2 years of age

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a chronic degenerative fatal neurologic disease that occurs ~7 years after an attack of this

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is responsible for the rash seen in Measles?

A

CMI attacking infected endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CMI attacking infected endothelial cells is responsible for this symptom seen in Measles

A

Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the route of transmission of Measles?

A

Respiratory droplets, highly contagious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Incubation period of Measles

A

9-11 days
(standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hemagglutination inhibition (HI) test is used in the diagnosis of this

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Condition with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik’s spots (2-3 days after symptoms begin), and a maculopapular rash beginning on the face (3-5 days after symptoms begin)

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The measles vaccine is this type

A

Live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This virus does not readily cause detectable cytopathologic effects
URT infection spreads to lymph nodes leading to viremia which in turn leads to the rash

A

Rubella virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Primary manifestation of this virus includes rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy
Rash begins on the face, spreading to the abdomen and extremities

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Do children or adults have a milder disease with rubella?

A

Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In Rubella, the appearance of this correlates with appearance of rash (type III)

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Appearance of Ab correlates with appearance of rash (type III) with this virus

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Virus that replicates in the URT leading to viremia and spread to bone marrow
Infection is cytotoxic

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Virus that is dependent on mitotically active cells for replication
Viral replication requires factors only available during the S phase and cellular DNA polymerase are required to generate the complement strand

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Parvovirus is dependent on these cells for replication

A

Mitotically active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Main target cells of this virus are mitotically active erythroid progenitors and CD36-positive erythroblasts

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Usually benign and self-limiting infection that results in lifelong immunity and requires no treatment other than symptomatic relief
In patients with hematologic disease or persistent infection, specific treatment may be necessary

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This virus can cause aplastic crisis in patients with chronic hemolytic anemia, sickle cell

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Intrauterine infection with this virus leads to abortion due to anemia and congestive heart failure (hydrops fetalis)

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Viral protein of HPV that prevents the acidification of endosomes
Stimulates the transforming activity of the EGF receptor

A

E5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Viral protein of HPV that binds to p53 accelerating its degradation

A

E6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Viral protein of HPV that binds to and inactivates retinoblastoma protein

A

E7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The viral HPV E6 protein binds to this and accelerates its degradation

A

p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Types of HPV that can cause laryngeal papilloma

A

types 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

HPV types 6 and 11 can cause this cancer

A

Laryngeal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

2 main HPV types that can cause cervical dysplasia and neoplasia

A

types 16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This virus has low Ag expression until the skin cell reaches terminal differentiation

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Enlarged keratinocytes with clear haloes around shrunken nuclei that are seen in HPV infection

A

Koilocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Koilocytes (enlarged keratinocytes with clear haloes around shrunken nuclei) are seen in this viral infection

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

HPV types that will linearize and integrate into the host genome, leading to an unregulated increase in expression of E6 and E7

A

Types 16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

HPV vaccine is this type

A

Multivalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Are there therapies available to eradicate HPV infection?

A

No
Current treatments are designed to decrease or eliminate clinical manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This type of virus has tegument with enzymes to initiate replication

A

Herpesviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This virus’ genome exists in a circle, and episomal form during latency

A

Herpesviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Type of herpes virus that is only transmitted when patients have varicella or zoster

A

VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lytic replication of this virus causes characteristic inclusions in tissues

A

Herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 types of herpesviruses that cause both intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions

A

CMV and HHV-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2 types of herpesviruses that result in only intranuclear inclusions

A

HSV and VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Type of herpesvirus with lytic infection in mucoepithelial cells and fibroblasts
Latent infection in neurons
Multiple glycoproteins for attachment and fusion

A

Herpes simplex virus-1,2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Gingivostomatitis and pharyngitis are the most frequent clinical manifestations of first-episode infection with this virus

A

HSV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Virus that causes clear lesions on an erythematous base (dewdrop on a rose petal)
Painful but benign vesicular lesions

A

Oral herpes (HSV-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

First episode infection with this is associated with prolonged duration of symptoms, lesions (10-12 days), and viral shedding

A

Genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Reactivation of this virus seems to trigger a transient down-regulation of virus-specific T cells and a shift to Th2 response

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HSV reactivation seems to trigger a transient down-regulation of HSV-specific T cells and a shift to this type of response

A

Th2

55
Q

Are first episodes or recurrent herpes usually localized to a defined mucocutaneous site?

A

recurrent

56
Q

Are first episodes or recurrent herpes more mild with shorter duration?

A

Recurrent

57
Q

HSV-1,2 escape immunity by blocking these 2 molecules

A

Block IFN action
Block TAP proteins

58
Q

Genital herpes is caused by this virus

A

HSV-1

59
Q

Wright, Giemsa (Tzanck preparation), or Papanicolaou stain are used for this virus

A

HSV

60
Q

CPE of this virus includes syncytia, Cowdry type A acidophilic intranuclear inclusions, cell rounding, chromatin margination, enlarged peripheral displaced nucleolus

A

HSV

61
Q

This drug is the treatment for mucocutaneous and visceral HSV infections

A

Acyclovir (and related compounds famciclovir, valacyclovir)

62
Q

A cropping rash is seen in infection with this virus

A

Varicella-zoster (chickenpox)

63
Q

In VZV reactivation, the virus is released along the entirety of this

A

Dermatome

64
Q

This limits the systemic spread of VZV

A

Antibody

65
Q

Generally the onset of disease with this virus is heralded by pain within the dermatome that precedes the lesions by 48-72 hours
Involves chronic debilitating pain

A

VZV

66
Q

VZV evasion mechanisms mainly involve inhibiting or blocking this molecule

A

MHC-1

67
Q

VZV latency develops in several types of this cell

A

Sensory neuronal cells

68
Q

CPE of this virus includes giant cell formation and characteristic intranuclear inclusion bodies

A

VZV

69
Q

For this virus, hygiene is important to avoid secondary bacterial infection associated with scratching of the pruritic skin lesions

A

VZV

70
Q

This drug should be used to reduce fever in patients with chickenpox because of the association between aspirin and Reye’s syndrome

A

Acetaminophen

71
Q

The Oka strain is a live attenuated vaccine for this virus

A

VZV

72
Q

Two viruses that can cause exanthema subitum (or roseola infantum)

A

HHV-6 and 7

73
Q

This virus is the major etiologic agent of rosela

A

HHV-6B

74
Q

Virus that causes rapid onset high fever (>39.5 C) of a few days duration followed by a generalized rash (macular or maculopapular rash that begins on the neck of the trunk, spreads to the extremities) lasting 1-3 days

A

HHV-6 and 7

75
Q

Virus that is a commensal inhabitant of the CNS
Characterized by intranuclear inclusions, followed by cell death

A

HHV-6

76
Q

HHV-6 is a commensal inhabitant of this

A

CNS

77
Q

Virus that has been detected in breast milk and establishes latency in CD4 T cells

A

HHV-7

78
Q

HHV-7 establishes latency in these cells

A

CD4

79
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is caused by this virus

A

HHV-8

80
Q

In Kaposi sarcoma, HHV-8 infects these cells

A

Endothelial cells that line blood and lymphatic vessels
Persists mostly in latent form

81
Q

Virus that infects endothelial cells that line blood and lymphatic vessels
Persists mostly in latent form

A

HHV-8

82
Q

This is a vesicular ulcerated lesion around the soft palate and uvula, less typical on the hard palate
Self limiting
Treated with symptoms management
Usually seen in children younger than 10

A

Herpangina

83
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease is a vesicular exanthema usually caused by this virus

A

Coxsackie A16

84
Q

Coxsackie A16 causes a vesicular exanthema, associated with this disease

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease

85
Q

Vesicular lesions of hand foot and mouth disease superficially resemble those caused by either of these 2 viruses

A

HSV or VZV

86
Q

Guarnieri inclusion bodies are seen in this condition

A

Smallpox

87
Q

CPE of this virus includes rounded cells and fused cells

A

Smallpox

88
Q

Lesions from this virus are generally restricted to the hands and face in most patients

A

Cowpox

89
Q

Skin lesions pass through macular, papular, vesicular, and pustular stages before forming a hard black crust are characteristic of this virus

A

Cowpox

90
Q

Lesions from Cowpox are restricted to these 2 locations in most patients

A

Hands and face

91
Q

This virus replication in the local tissue and lymph nodes, results in a primary viremia that disseminates it to the mononuclear phagocyte system and other sites

A

Arboviruses

92
Q

Arboviruses are disseminated to these cells

A

Mononuclear phagocyte system

93
Q

Virus with this triad of symptoms: abrupt-onset febrile illness, severe and often debilitating (poly)arthralgias, and a rash

A

Chikungunya virus

94
Q

Chikungunya virus has this characteristic triad of symptoms

A

Abrupt-onset febrile illness
Severe and often debilitating poly(arthralgias)
Rash

95
Q

Rash from Rubella virus starts here

A

Begins on the face
Spreads to the abdomen and extremities

96
Q

Incubation period of Rubella virus

A

14-21 days

97
Q

Is treatment needed for Rubella virus?

A

Not really

98
Q

Is treatment needed for Parvovirus B19?

A

No, just for symptomatic relief

99
Q

Fetus can show signs of ascites when infected with this virus

A

Parvovirus B19

100
Q

Incubation period of HPV

A

Weeks to months

101
Q

Virus that promotes the outgrowth of the basal layer, increasing the number of prickle cells of the stratum spinosum (acanthosis)

A

HPV

102
Q

Virus that causes the skin to thicken and promotes the production of keratin (hyperkeratosis), causing epithelial spikes to form

A

HPV

103
Q

Spontaneous regression of this virus occurs in months to years due to CMI response

A

HPV

104
Q

Family of viruses with 3 subfamilies
Mainly mucocutaneous infections

A

Herpesviruses

105
Q

Subfamily of herpesvirus with short growth cycle, infect epithelial cells and latency in neurons

A

Alphaherpesviridae

106
Q

Subfamily of herpesvirus with latent infection mainly in lymphocytes

A

Gammaherpesviridae

107
Q

Subfamily of herpesvirus with long growth cycle, infection and latency in a variety of cell types

A

Betaherpesviridae

108
Q

Large enveloped viruses with linear dsDNA

A

Herpesviruses

109
Q

The primary treatment for herpesviruses targets this

A

viral DNA pol

110
Q

HSV-1,2 have latent infection in these cells

A

Neurons

111
Q

Incubation period of HSV-1,2

A

1-26 days – Median 6-8

112
Q

Syncytia are a single cell containing several nuclei, formed by fusion of cells or by division of nuclei, and are seen in infection with this virus

A

HSV-1,2

113
Q

Cowdry type A acidophilic intranuclear inclusions are small pink deposits with a clear halo, and are seen in infection with this virus

A

HSV-1,2

114
Q

Rounded cells may be seen histologically with either of these 2 viruses

A

HSV-1,2
Smallpox (Variola)

115
Q

Chromatin margination and enlarged peripheral displaced nucleolus are seen histologically in infection with this virus

A

HSV-1,2

116
Q

Painful infection of the finger or thumb caused by HSV
Abrupt onset of edema, erythema, and localized tenderness of the infected finger
Occupational hazard for nurses and dental hygienists

A

Herpetic Whitlow

117
Q

Benign vesicular lesions that appear clear on an erythematous base, like dewdrop on a rose petal, are seen in this condition

A

Oral herpes (HSV-1)

118
Q

Does reactivation of HSV trigger anterograde or retrograde transport to innervated epithelium?

A

Anterograde

119
Q

Lesions on the scalp distinguish this virus from other rashes
(centrifugal spread from torso to head and extremities)

A

Varicella-Zoster (chickenpox)

120
Q

Infection in adults with this virus is more serious and includes interstitial pneumonia and encephalitis

A

Varicella-Zoster (chickenpox)

121
Q

Incubation period of VZV (shingles)

A

10-21 days

122
Q

Total duration of disease with VZV (shingles)

A

10-15 days

123
Q

HHV-6 and 7 are present ubiquitously and can cause this condition that causes a high fever followed by a rash in children

A

Exanthema subitum
(aka rosela infantum)

124
Q

Most adults are seropositive for this virus that is a commensal inhabitant of the CNS

A

HHV-6

125
Q

Family of viruses with many types that produce vesicular lesions

A

Coxsackie A

126
Q

Pox viruses belong to this viral family

A

Orthopoxviruses

127
Q

Type of viruses that carries its own polymerases and replicates in the cytoplasm

A

Poxviruses

128
Q

Do Poxviruses enter into the host cell nucleus?

A

No
Replicate in the cytoplasm

129
Q

Guarnieri inclusion bodies are eosinophilic blobs found in infections with this virus

A

Smallpox (Variola)

130
Q

Virus that causes smallpox

A

Variola

131
Q

Poxvirus that causes a wart-like lesions rather than systemic lytic infection

A

Molluscum contagiosum

132
Q

Papules that become pearl-like, umbilicated nodules with a central caseous plug that can be readily expression are diagnostic of this virus

A

Molluscum contagiosum

133
Q

Chikungunya virus is transmitted by this

A

Aedes mosquitoes