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Skin & MSK > Infectious Diseases of Skin and MSK - BACTERIA > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases of Skin and MSK - BACTERIA Flashcards

1
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Staphylococcus aureas

A

Gram positive

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2
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Gram positive

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3
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Cutibacterium acnes

A

Gram positive

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4
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Clostridium

A

Gram positive

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5
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Gram positive

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6
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Vibrio vulnificus

A

Gram negative

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7
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Gram negative

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8
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

Gram negative

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9
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Yersinia pestris

A

Gram negative

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10
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Streptobacillus monoiliformis

A

Gram negative

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11
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Acinetobacter baumannii

A

Gram negative

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12
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Rickettsia

A

Gram negative

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13
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Orientia tsutsugamushi

A

Gram negative

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14
Q

Is this bacteria gram positive or negative:
Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Gram negative

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15
Q

Is Staphylococcus catalase positive or negative?

A

Positive
Can convert H2O2 to H2O

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16
Q

What 3 conditions can Staphylococcus grow in?

A

Aerobic, anaerobic, and high salt conditions

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17
Q

Staph aureus has this, which forms the fibrin layer and causes clotting

A

Coagulase

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18
Q

Does Streptococcus have coagulase?

A

No

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19
Q

Does Staphylococcus have coagulase?

A

Yes - S. aureus

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20
Q

Many Staph organisms have this type of capsule

A

Polysaccharide

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21
Q

This in Staph organisms codes for a novel PBP2a with low affinity for methicillin

A

mecA

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22
Q

In this bacteria, mecA codes for a novel PBP2a with low affinity for methicillin

A

Staphyloccocus

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23
Q

mecA, a gene which codes for a novel PBP2a with low affinity for methicillin, is found in this organism

A

Staphylococcus

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24
Q

Staph organisms have mecA, which codes for this

A

PBP2a with low affinity for methicillin

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25
Q

mecA in Staph organisms provides resistance to this

A

Methicillin

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26
Q

In Staph, virulence genes are controlled by this

A

agr operon

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27
Q

In Staph, the agr operon controls this

A

Virulence genes

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28
Q

In this bacteria, capsules, slime layers, and protein A prevent opsonization

A

Staphylococcus

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29
Q

Staphylococcus have these 3 components that prevent opsonization

A

Capsules
Slime layers
Protein A

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30
Q

Is Staph aureus a normal flora?

A

Yes
Also a potent pathogen
Can be transmitted by direct contact, via fomites, or infection can arise from normal microbiota

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31
Q

Organism that has Panton-Valentine leukocidin toxin

A

Staph aureus

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32
Q

Staph aureus has this leukocidin toxin that is plasma encoded

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

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33
Q

In Staph aureus, is the Panton-Valentine leukocidin toxin encoded on the gene or plasmid?

A

Plasmid encoded

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34
Q

In Staph aureus, Panton-Valentine is this type of toxin

A

Leukocidin - damages WBCs

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35
Q

Exfoliative toxins A and B are serine proteases that degrade desmoglein 1, and are found in this organism

A

Staph aureus

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36
Q

Staph aureus contains these 2 toxins which are serine proteases that degrade desmoglein 1

A

Exfoliative toxins A and B

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37
Q

Staph aureus has Exfoliative toxins A and B, which are serine proteases that degrade this

A

Desmoglein 1

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38
Q

Staph aureus has Exfoliative toxins A and B, which are this type of enzyme

A

Serine proteases

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39
Q

Staph aureus has this exfolitative toxin that is heat stable

A

Exfoliative toxin A

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40
Q

Staph aureus has this exfolitative toxin that is phage encoded

A

Exfoliative toxin A

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41
Q

Staph aureus has this exfolitative toxin that is heat labile

A

Exfoliative toxin B

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42
Q

Staph aureus has this exfolitative toxin that is plasmid encoded

A

Exfoliative toxin B

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43
Q

What is the different between exfoliative toxins A and B in Staph aureus?

A

A is heat stable and phage encoded
B is heat labile and plasmid encoded

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44
Q

This is a superantigen found in S. aureus that is heat and protease resistant, chromosomally encoded, and requires elevated oxygen and neutral pH for expression

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1

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45
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 is a superantigen found in this organism

A

Staph aureus

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46
Q

Superantigen found in Staph aureus that is heat and protease resistant

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1

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47
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 in Staph aureus is encoded here

A

Chromosomally

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48
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 in Staph aureus requires these 2 conditions for expression

A

Elevated oxygen
Neutral pH

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49
Q

Superantigen in Staph aureus that requires elevated oxygen and neutral pH for expression

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1

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50
Q

Clumping factor in Staph aureus that binds fibrinogen and converts it to insoluble fibrin

A

Coagulase

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51
Q

Coagulase is a clumping factor (binds fibrinogen and converts it to insoluble fibrin) found in this organism

A

Staph aureus

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52
Q

Staph aureus has this type of capsule

A

Polysaccharide

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53
Q

How many serotypes of Staph aureus are there?

A

11

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54
Q

Toxin-based disease where slight pressure displaces skin (Nikolsky sign positive)

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

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55
Q

Most adults are protected from Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome by neutralizing antibodies, and present with this

A

Bullous impetigo

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56
Q

In this condition, redness/inflammation spreads over the entire body followed by cutaneous blisters and later by desquamation of the epithelium

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

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57
Q

Condition involving localized growth of disease causing strains in the vagina (menstrual) or wounds (non menstrual); toxin released into the blood

A

Toxic shock syndrome

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58
Q

Fever, rash, desquamation and hypotension are major criteria for this condition
Minor criteria includes multisystem involvement in 3 or more organ systems

A

Toxic shock syndrome

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59
Q

What are the 4 major criteria for Toxic shock syndrome?

A

Fever
Rash
Desquamation
Hypotension

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60
Q

Hypotension is seen in this condition

A

Toxic shock syndrome

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61
Q

Staph aureus can be cultured on these two agars

A

Blood agar
Mannitol Salt agar

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62
Q

Mannitol Salt agar is selective (high salt) and differential (ferment mannitol) for this organism

A

Staph aureus

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63
Q

Most Staph aureus are resistant to this

A

Penicilin

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64
Q

This organism is resistant to all forms of penicillinase resistant beta lactam antibiotics (methicillin, oxacillin, floxacillin, etc.)

A

Staph aureus

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65
Q

Staph aureus have acquired this, which encodes penicillin binding protein 2A

A

mecA

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66
Q

Staph aureus have acquired mecA, which encodes this

A

Penicillin binding protein 2A

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67
Q

Antibiotic that is used empirically for serious infections with Staph aureus

A

Vancomycin

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68
Q

Vancomycin intermediate S. aureus (VISA) have this

A

A thickened wall

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69
Q

Vancomycin resistant S. aureus (VRSA) acquired the vanA gene from this organism

A

Enterococcus

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70
Q

Vancomycin resistant S. aureus (VRSA) acquired this gene from Enterococcus

A

vanA

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71
Q

This organism has vancomycin resistance by acquiring the vanA gene from Enterococcus

A

Vancomyin resistant S. aureus (VRSA)

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72
Q

Cell division occurs in a single plane in this organism

A

Streptococci

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73
Q

Streptococci require this kind of environment

A

Are facultative anaerobes

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74
Q

Type of media required for Streptococci

A

Need blood or serum enriched media

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75
Q

Is Streptococci catalase positive or negative?

A

Negative

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76
Q

Streptococci typing scheme where group-specific carbohydrates are detected by antisera

A

Lancefield typing scheme

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77
Q

The Lancefield typing scheme is used to type this organism

A

Streptococci

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78
Q

What is the basis of the Lancefield typing scheme?

A

Carbohydrates

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79
Q

Strep pyogenes is in this Lancefield typing group

A

Group A

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80
Q

Strep agalactiae is in this Lancefield typing group

A

Group B

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81
Q

Streptococcus species that is beta-hemolytic

A

Strep pyogenes

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82
Q

Strep pyogenes is sensitive to this antibiotic

A

Bacitracin

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83
Q

This is a major type specific antigen in Strep pyogenes that also blocks phagocytosis and C3b

A

M protein (emm gene)

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84
Q

M protein (emm gene) is a major type specific antigen of this organism

A

Strep pyogenes

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85
Q

Human pharynx, skin, and mucosal surfaces are the natural habitat for this organism that transmits by droplets or direct contact

A

Strep pyogenes

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86
Q

Where is the natural habitat of Strep pyogenes?

A

Human pharynx, skin, and mucosal surfaces

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87
Q

Heat labile superantigens in Strep pyogenes

A

Spe (strep pyrogenic exotoxins)

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88
Q

Does Strep pyogenes have endotoxin or exotoxin?

A

Has exotoxins
Spe (strep pyrogenic exotoxins)

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89
Q

Toxin of Strep pyogenes that is oxygen stable, non-immunogenic cell bound hemolysin

A

Streptolysin S

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90
Q

Toxin of Strep pyogenes that is an oxygen labile, pore forming toxin

A

Streptolysin O

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91
Q

Which Strep pyogenes toxin is oxygen stable, Streptolysin S or O?

A

Streptolysin S

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92
Q

Which Strep pyogenes toxin is a pore forming toxin?

A

Streptolysin O

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93
Q

Which Strep pyogenes toxin is a non-immunogenic cell bound hemolysin?

A

Streptolysin S

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94
Q

Streptolysin S and O are toxins of this organism

A

Strep pyrogens

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95
Q

Virulence factor in Strep pyogenes that mediates the cleavage of plasminogen (which releases plasmin which cleaves fibrin and fibrinogen; promotes spreading)

A

Streptokinase A and B

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96
Q

Streptokinase A and B mediate the cleavage of this

A

Plasminogen

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97
Q

Streptokinase A and B are virulence factors found in this organism

A

Strep pyogenes

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98
Q

Some Strep pyogenes have this kind of capsule

A

Hyaluronic acid

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99
Q

Some organisms of this species have a hyaluronic acid capsule

A

Strep pyogenes

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100
Q

PYR (L-pyrrolidonyl arylamidase) is found in this organism

A

Strep pyogenes

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101
Q

Scarlet fever is a complication of this organism

A

Strep pharyngitis

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102
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis is a post infection sequelae that can occur after skin infection with this

A

Strep pyogenes

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103
Q

Acute rheumatic fever/heart disease and Pediatric neurological diseases are post infection sequelae that can occur after throat infection with this

A

Strep pyogenes

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104
Q

Can penicillin be used to treat S. aureus?

A

No
Most are resistant to penicillin

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105
Q

Can penicillin be used to treat S. pyogenes?

A

Yes, is still effective

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106
Q

Is Cutibacterium acnes gram positive or negative?

A

Gram positive

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107
Q

What is the shape of Cutibacterium acnes?

A

Rod

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108
Q

Does Cutibacterium acnes require oxygen?

A

No, is anaerobic

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109
Q

Does Cutibacterium acnes form spores?

A

No

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110
Q

Is Cutibacterium acnes catalase positive or negative?

A

Positive

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111
Q

Is Clostridia gram negative or positive?

A

Gram positive

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112
Q

Is S. pyogenes beta-hemolytic?

A

Yes

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113
Q

Organism that is rapid spreading growth, beta hemolytic, and produces gas

A

Clostridium perfringens

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114
Q

Clostridium perfringens produces this foul smelling gas

A

H2S

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115
Q

This organism produces gases, including H2S (foul smelling)

A

Clostridium perfringens

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116
Q

This is the only toxin produced by all 5 types of Clostridium perfringens

A

Alpha toxin

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117
Q

Toxin in Clostridium perfringens that is a lecithinase (PLC C) that lyses RBCs, plates, WBCs, endothelial cells

A

Alpha toxin

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118
Q

Alpha toxin, a lecithinase that lyses RBCs, platelets, WBCs, endothelial cells, is found in this organism

A

Clostridium perfringens

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119
Q

Toxin of Clostridium perfringens that causes massive hemolysis, increased vascular permeability and bleeding, tissue destruction, liver toxicity and myocardial dysfunction

A

Alpha toxin

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120
Q

Toxin of Clostridium perfringens that is heat labile, only during sporulation

A

Enterotoxin

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121
Q

Enterotoxin is heat labile, only during sporulation, found in this organism

A

Clostridium perfringens

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122
Q

Does Clostridium perfringens require oxygen?

A

No, is anaerobes

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123
Q

Nagler’s reaction is used to diagnose this organism

A

Clostridium perfringens

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124
Q

This is used to distinguish Clostridium perfringens from other Clostridia which are lecithinase positive

A

Nagler’s reaction

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125
Q

What is the treatment for Clostridium perfringens?

A

Surgical debridgement and high dose Penicillin G

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126
Q

Surgical debridement and high dose Penicillin G are the treatment for this condition

A

Clostridium perfringens

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127
Q

Surgical debridement and high dose of this is treatment for Clostridium perfringens

A

Penicillin G

128
Q

Does Bacillus require oxygen?

A

Is aerobic

129
Q

What is the gram staining of bacilli?

A

Gram positive

130
Q

Are Bacillus motile?

A

No, are nonmotile

131
Q

This organism is large, aerobic, nonmotile gram positive forming endospores

A

Bacillus

132
Q

Does Bacillus form spores?

A

Form endospores

133
Q

What type of hemolysis occurs in Bacillus?

A

Gamma hemolytic

134
Q

What type of hemolysis occurs in Strep pyogenes?

A

Beta hemolytic

135
Q

What type of hemolysis occurs in Clostridium perfringens?

A

Beta hemolytic

136
Q

What conditions do Bacillus require for growth?

A

None; are non-fastidious

136
Q

2 reservoirs for Bacillus anthracis

A

Domestic cattle and sheep

137
Q

Endospores of this organism survive in soil for decades

A

Bacillus anthracis

138
Q

2 ways Bacillus anthracis may be transmitted

A

Inoculation into cuts or abrasions
Inhaling endospores

139
Q

Gram staining of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Gram positive

140
Q

Is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae catalase positive or negative?

A

Positive

141
Q

What is the shape of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

A

Rods

142
Q

Is Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae motile?

A

No

143
Q

Localized cutaneous form of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

Erysipeloid

144
Q

Erysipeloid is a localized cutaneous form of infection with this organism

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

145
Q

Infection in humans with this organism is occupationally related, principally occurring as a result of contact with contaminated animals, their produces or wastes, or soil

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

146
Q

Infection with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is related to this

A

Occupationally related

147
Q

Is Mycobacteria motile?

A

No

148
Q

Does Mycobacteria form spores?

A

No

149
Q

What shape is Mycobacteria?

A

Rods

150
Q

Do Mycobacteria require oxygen?

A

Facultative intracellular aerobic

151
Q

Mycobacteria cell wall is rich in this

A

Lipids
Made of mycolic acids

152
Q

This organism can form branched filaments

A

Mycobacteria

153
Q

Mycobacteria cell wall is gram negative or positive?

A

Gram positive

154
Q

Lipoarabinomannan (LAM) is found anchored in the plasma membrane of this organism

A

Mycobacteria

155
Q

Organism detected in an Acid fast stain

A

Mycobacteria

156
Q

Is Mycobacteria fast or slow growing?

A

Slow

157
Q

Organism that causes Tuberculoid leprosy and Lepromatous leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae

158
Q

Infection caused by Mycobacterium leprae that is a strong cellular reaction with many lymphocytes and granulomas present in tissue with few bacteria
Dry, scaly lesions that lack sensation

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

159
Q

Infection caused by Mycobacterium leprae that is a strong antibody response
Chronic infection affecting skin and peripheral nerves
Disfiguring skin lesions

A

Lepromatous leprosy

160
Q

Organism with toxin mycolactone that causes tissue damage and inhibits the immune response allowing disease to progress with no pain or fever

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

161
Q

Mycobacterium ulcerans has this toxin that causes tissue damage and inhibits the immune response allowing disease to progress with no pain or fever

A

Mycolactone

162
Q

A Buruli Ulcer can occur with this organism

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

163
Q

Infection with this organism causes a nodule that will ulcerate within 4 weeks with the classical, undetermined borders

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

164
Q

Infection with Mycobacterium ulcerans involves a nodule that will ulcerate within 4 weeks with this

A

Undetermined borders

165
Q

This is the most commonly used method to diagnose Mycobacterium ulcerans

A

PCR

166
Q

Are Vibrio gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

167
Q

What is the shape of Vibrio?

A

Curved rods with polar flagella

168
Q

This organism is gram negative rods with polar flagella

A

Vibrio

169
Q

Are Vibrio oxidase positive or negative?

A

Positive

170
Q

Most Vibrio require this for growth

A

Salt

171
Q

Most of this species have toxin coregulated pili

A

Vibrio

172
Q

Does Vibrio require oxygen?

A

Are facultative anaerobes

173
Q

Organism that causes wound infections and secretory diarrhea
Increased susceptibility with high iron in the blood or liver dysfunction

A

Vibrio vulnificus

174
Q

What does Vibrio vulnificus cause?

A

Wound infections and secretory diarrhea

175
Q

Vibrio vulnificus causes wound infections and secretory diarrhea, and patients with these have increased susceptibility

A

High iron in the blood or Liver dysfunction

176
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

177
Q

Does Pseudomonas aeruginosa require oxygen?

A

Is aerobic

178
Q

What is the shape of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Bacillus

179
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa oxidase positive or negative?

A

Positive

180
Q

This organism has a polysaccharide slime layer or capsule

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

181
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa motile?

A

Yes, via a polar flagellum

182
Q

This organism forms large, moist, fluorescent greenish colonies with a characteristic “fruity” smell

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

183
Q

Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa resistant to antibiotics?

A

yes, is inherently antibiotic resistant

184
Q

Does Pseudomonas aeruginosa ferment?

A

No

185
Q

Does Pseudomonas aeruginosa have a polysaccharide slime layer or capsule?

A

yes

186
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa are motile via this

A

Polar flagellum

187
Q

Gram negative, aerobic, nonfermentative bacilli with a polysaccharide slime layer or capsule

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

188
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that is blue, catalyzes the production of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide, stimulates IL-8 release

A

Pyocyanin

189
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that is yellow-green, siderophore that binds iron, and regulates virulence factor secretion

A

Pyoverdin

190
Q

Pyocyanin and Pyoverdin are diffusible pigments produced by this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

191
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that catalyzes the production of superoxide and hydrogen peroxide

A

Pyocyanin

192
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that stimulates IL-8 release

A

Pyocyanin

193
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that is a siderophore that binds iron

A

Pyoverdin

194
Q

Diffusable pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa that regulates virulence factor secretion

A

Pyoverdin

195
Q

Virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa that is a mucoid exopolysaccharide that forms the capsule

A

Alginate

196
Q

Alginate is a mucoid exopolysaccharide that forms the capsule and is a virulence factor of this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

197
Q

Virulence factors of Pseudomonas aeruginosa that synergistically degrade elastin

A

Elastases LasA (serine protease) and LasB (zinc metalloprotease)

198
Q

Elastases LasA (serine protease) and LasB (zinc metalloprotease) are virulence factors of this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

199
Q

Heat-labile hemolysin that breaks down lipids and lecithin and is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Phospholipase C

200
Q

Phospholipase C is a heat-labile hemolysin breaks down lipids and lecithin, and is a virulence factor of this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

201
Q

Alginate, Elastases LasA and LasB, and Phospholipase C are virulence factors of this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

202
Q

“Hot tub folliculitis” can occur from infection with this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

203
Q

Community-acquired infections of this organism include otitis externa, impetigo, folliculitis (immersion in contaminated water: “hot tub folliculitis”)

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

204
Q

In cystic fibrosis, most patients are colonized with this organism by adulthood and experience recurring infections

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

205
Q

Most patients with this condition are colonized with Pseudomonas aeruginosa by adulthood and experience recurring infections

A

Cystic fibrosis

206
Q

Healthcare-associated and opportunistic infections of this organism includes wound - especially burn

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

207
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be isolated on these 2 agars

A

Blood or MacConkey

208
Q

Positive nitrate reduction test is used in diagnosis of this organism

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

209
Q

Treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa usually includes these 2 drugs

A

3rd gen cephalosporins and Aminoglycosides

210
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei motile?

A

Yes

211
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei catalase positive or negative?

A

Positive

212
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

213
Q

What is the shape of Burkholderia pseudomallei?

A

Bacillus

214
Q

Is Burkholderia pseudomallei fermenting?

A

No
Lactose non-fermenting

215
Q

Melioidosis (aka Whitmore’s disease) is caused by this organism

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

216
Q

Disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

Melioidosis (aka Whitmore’s disease)

217
Q

Does Yersinia pestis require oxygen?

A

Is facultative anaerobe

218
Q

Is Yersinia pestis safe to handle in pure culture?

A

No, is extremely hazardous

219
Q

Are Yersinia pestis infections considered zoonotic?

A

Yes - all

220
Q

Reservoir for Yersinia pestis

A

Rats and a wide variety of other wild rodents

221
Q

Vector in Yersinia pestis

A

Rodent flea ectoparasites

222
Q

Urban and sylvatic plagues are caused by this organism

A

Yersinia pestis

223
Q

This condition caused by Yersinia pestis is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, chills, weakness, and headache, accompanied by regional lymphadenitis

A

Bubonic plague

224
Q

Diagnosis of this organism is made by smear and culture of blood or pus (which can be dangerous), fluorescent antibody staining and serology

A

Yersinia pestis

225
Q

What is the control for Yersinia pestis?

A

Avoiding exposure to rodents and their fleas

226
Q

This is the main treatment for Yersinia pestis

A

Gentamicin
(also streptomycin or doxycycline)

227
Q

Is Pasteurella multocida gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

228
Q

What is the shape of Pasteurella multocida?

A

Encapsulated rod

229
Q

Does Pasteurella multocida require oxygen?

A

Facultative anaerobe

230
Q

This organism is part of the normal flora of cats and dogs and is transmitted to humans by an animal bite or scratch

A

Pasteurella multocida

231
Q

Pasteurella multocida is part of the normal flora of this

A

Cats and dogs
Is transmitted to humans by bite or scratch

232
Q

Pasteurella multocida infections can become systemic in patients with this

A

Compromised immune systems

233
Q

Can penicillin be used to treat Pasteurella multocida?

A

Yes, is effective

234
Q

Is Streptobacillus moniliformis gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

235
Q

What is the shape of Streptobacillus moniliformis?

A

Filamentous bacillus

236
Q

Organism that causes streptobacillary fever or rat bite fever

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

237
Q

This bacteria is found in the oropharyngeal flora of 50% of healthy wild and laboratory rats

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

238
Q

How is Streptobacillus moniliformis transmitted to humans?

A

By a rodent bite

239
Q

A patient bitten by a rat could have this condition

A

Rat bite fever
Caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis

240
Q

In this condition, bacteria multiply at the site of inoculation and spread to lymph nodes and blood, leading to lymphadenopathy, rash and arthralgia
Rash can include palms and soles

A

Rat bite fever
Caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis

241
Q

Does a rash from Rat bite fever (caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis) involve the palms and soles?

A

It can yes

242
Q

What is the treatment for Rat bite fever (caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis)?

A

Penicillin or doxycycline

243
Q

What is the treatment for Rickettsia species?

A

Tetracyclines (doxycycline)

244
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by this organism

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

245
Q

Mediterranean spotted fever is caused by this organism

A

Rickettsia conorii

246
Q

Rickettsialpox is caused by this organism

A

Rickettsia akari

247
Q

Epidemic typhus is caused by this organism

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

248
Q

Endemic (murine) typhus is caused by this organism

A

Rickettsia typhi

249
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii causes this condition

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

250
Q

Rickettsia conorii causes this condition

A

Mediterranean spotted fever

251
Q

Rickettsia akari causes this condition

A

Rickettsialpox

252
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii causes this condition

A

Epidemic typhus

253
Q

Rickettsia typhi causes this condition

A

Endemic (murine) typhus

254
Q

Human disease with this organism is characterized by a prominent macular skin rash involving palms and soles, which spreads centripetally
Pneumonia is common

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

255
Q

A macular skin rash involving palms and soles that spreads centripetally is characteristic of this organism

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

256
Q

What is the prognosis of a patient with Rocky mountain spotted fever (caused by Rickettsia rickettsii)?

A

Death occurs 7-15 days after onset of symptoms without appropriate treatment

257
Q

What is the reservoir for Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

Wild rodents

258
Q

What is the vector for Rickettsia rickettsii?

A

Ticks, e.g. Dermacentor species (wood ticks, dog ticks)

259
Q

Ticks, e.g. Dermacentor species (wood ticks, dog ticks) is the vector for this organism

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

260
Q

What is the reservoir for Rickettsia akari?

A

House mouse

261
Q

What is the vector for Rickettsia akari?

A

Mite ectoparasite

262
Q

This condition has the typical triad of fever, papulovesicular rash, and an eschar at the site of the mite bite

A

Rickettsialpox
(caused by Rickettsia akari)

263
Q

Eschar is often seen in this condition that is similar to chickenpox but not fatal

A

Rickettsialpox
(caused by Rickettsia akari)

264
Q

What is the typical triad of Rickettsialpox (caused by Rickettsia akari)?

A

Fever
Papulovesicular rash
Eschar at site of mite bite

265
Q

What is the reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii?

A

Humans
Vector is the head and body louse

266
Q

Does the rash from infection with Rickettsia ricketsii involve the palms and soles?

A

Yes, then spreads centripetally

267
Q

Does the rash from infection with Rickettsia prowazekii involve the palms and soles?

A

No

268
Q

Does the rash from infection with Rickettsia ricketsii spread centrifugally or centripetally?

A

Centripetally (starts in extremities and spreads to trunk)

269
Q

Does the rash from infection with Rickettsia prowazekii spread centrifugally or centripetally?

A

Centrifugally
Does not involve the face, palms or soles

270
Q

Condition where Rickettsia prowazekii organisms may remain dormant for decades after primary infection and cause mild relapses when immune system declines

A

Recrudescent typhus
Aka Brill-Zinsser disease

271
Q

Recrudescent typhus (Aka Brill-Zinsser disease) is caused by this organism which may remain dormant for decades after primary infection and cause mild relapses when immune system declines

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

272
Q

What is the reservoir for Rickettsia typhi?

A

Rats

273
Q

What is the vector for Rickettsia typhi?

A

Rat fleas

274
Q

Type of typhus that does not spread in epidemics
Gradual onset, less severe

A

Endemic typhus (caused by Rickettsia typhi)

275
Q

This organism is a Rickettsia-like organism and obligate intracellular parasite

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

276
Q

What is the reservoir for Orientia tsutsugamushi?

A

Small rodents

277
Q

What is the vector for Orientia tsutsugamushi?

A

Trombiculid mites

278
Q

Trombiculid mites are the vector for this organism

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

279
Q

Scrub typhus is caused by this organism

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

280
Q

Orientia tsutsugamushi causes this condition

A

Scrub typhus

281
Q

Eschar is seen in infections with either of these organisms

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi (scrub typhus)
Rickettsia akari (Rickettsialpox)

282
Q

Condition characterized by fever, mental changes, headache, inoculation eschar, rash, and lymphadenopathy

A

Scrub typhus
(caused by Orientia tsutsugamushi)

283
Q

Orientia tsutsugamushi is largely confined to this region

A

Eastern and Southeast Asia

284
Q

Is Francisella tularensis gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

285
Q

What is the shape of Francisella tularensis?

A

Coccobacillus

286
Q

Is Francisella tularensis motile?

A

No
Can be encapsulated

287
Q

Does Francisella tularensis require oxygen?

A

Yes, is strict aerobe

288
Q

Francisella tularensis requires this molecule for growth

A

Cysteine

289
Q

Organism that is fastidious and slow growing, and requires cysteine

A

Francisella tularensis

290
Q

Francisella tularensis localizes to this type of cells

A

Cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system
Form granulomas

291
Q

Organism that localizes to cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system forming granulomas

A

Francisella tularensis

292
Q

What is the reservoir of Francisella tularensis?

A

Wild mammals, especially rabbits

293
Q

Rabbits are the reservoir of this organism

A

Francisella tularensis

294
Q

Francisella tularensis causes this condition characterized by abrupt onset fever and chills

A

Ulceroglandular Tularemia

295
Q

Ulceroglandular Tularemia is caused by this organism

A

Francisella tularensis

296
Q

How long is the incubation period of Ulceroglandular Tularemia (caused by Francisella tularensis)?

A

3-5 days incubation period
Abrupt onset fever and chills

297
Q

Francisella tularensis can be cultured on this agar, but is extremely hazardous

A

Chocolate agar

298
Q

This organism may be cultured on chocolate agar, but is extremely hazardous

A

Francisella tularensis

299
Q

This is the treatment for Francisella tularensis

A

Streptomycin

300
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Ixodes deer tick (hard tick)

301
Q

The Ixodes deer tick (hard tick) is the vector for this organism

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

302
Q

What is the reservoir for Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Includes deer, deer mice, and birds

303
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi causes this condition

A

Lyme disease

304
Q

Lyme disease is caused by this organism

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

305
Q

This is the treatment for early manifestations of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Doxycycline

306
Q

This is the treatment for later manifestations of Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Ceftriaxone

307
Q

Opportunistic bacteria causing wound infections that is aerobic, nonmotile, gram negative rod

A

Acinetobacter baumannii

308
Q

Is Acinetobacter baumannii gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

309
Q

What is the shape of Acinetobacter baumannii?

A

Rod

310
Q

Septic arthritis may be caused by these 3 organisms

A

Staph aureus
Strep pyogenes
Strep agalactiae

311
Q

Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes and Strep agalactiae may cause this condition characterized by invasion of joint causing localized inflammation with fever

A

Septic arthritis

312
Q

Autoimmune disease prompted by infection at distal parts of body, not infection of the joint

A

Reactive arthritis

313
Q

Does Reactive arthritis or Septic arthritis involve infection of the joint?

A

Septic arthritis (joint is invaded by microbe)
Reactive arthritis is autoimmune disease prompted by infection at distal parts of body - NOT infection of the joint

314
Q

Infection of bone or bone marrow

A

Osteomyelitis

315
Q

Patients with Sickle Cell Anemia may develop Osteomyelitis due to infection with this organism

A

Salmonella

Skin & MSK (30 decks)

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