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immuno Flashcards

1
Q

Cell that does not present antigens (phagocytes only)

A

Neutrophils

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2
Q

Macrophages phagocytes and ____?

A

Present Antigens

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3
Q

What are opsonins?

A

Cells that attract neutrophils

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4
Q

Mention 3 type of opsonins

A
  1. IL - 8 (from Macrophages)
  2. c5a
  3. igG
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5
Q

Eosinophils granules appear ___ in Wright Stain

A

Red

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6
Q

Eosinophils are activated by:

A

IgE

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7
Q

Eosinophils are stimulated by:

A

IL -5 from Th2

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8
Q

Normal % of eosinophils:

A

<5% or <500 eosinophils/microL

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9
Q

Increased eosinophil count you think in:

A

Helminth infection / allergic diseases

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10
Q

Blue granules in Wright stain are characteristic of what cells?

A

Mast cells and basophils

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11
Q

How do you call a mast cell once it goes to the bloodstream?

A

Basophil

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12
Q

CD4 cells are activated by

A

APC and MHC class II

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13
Q

APCs that activate CD4 cells are:

A

dendritic cells, macrophges, B cells,

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14
Q

cd4 subtypes are

A

th1 and th2 cells

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15
Q

Th 1 cytokines are

A

IL 2 and IFN γgamma

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16
Q

Very powerful T cell growth factor (stimulates growth of CD4, CD8 t -cells. also acts b cells and NKC

A

IL - 2

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17
Q

cytokine used for renal cell carcinoma and metastatic melanoma

A

IL 2 (Aldesleukin)

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18
Q

what does IFN γgamma activates ?

A

Th1, macrophages, and MHC class I and II expression

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19
Q

major Th 2 cytokine

A

IL-4

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20
Q

Promotes IgE production

A

IL-4

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21
Q

Cytokine that activates Eosinophils (Helminths)

A

IL-5

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22
Q

Promotes IgA production

A

IL-5

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23
Q

Anti-inflammatory cytokine / Inhibits Th1 production

A

IL-10

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24
Q

what does IFN γgamma shut down?

A

Th 2

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25
Q

IL 10 and IL 4 shut down:

Are produced by:

A

Th 1

Th2

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26
Q

Th1 is important for __ infections; for example:

A

Intracellular

Mycobacterium tb and Listeria

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27
Q

Crohn’s granulomas are ___ mediated

A

Th 1

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28
Q

Ulcerative Colitis lesions are ___ mediated

A

Th2

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29
Q

How deep goes Crohn’s dz inflammation?

A

Transmural

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30
Q

How deep goes Ulcerative Colitis inflammation?

A

Mucosal and Submucosal only

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31
Q

Diarrhea is ALWAYS bloody:

A

Ulcerative Colitis

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32
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death w/ no significant inflammation

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33
Q

2 pathways for apoptosis are

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

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34
Q

Fas ligand is an example of which apoptosis pathway

A

Extrinsic

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35
Q

adaptive immunity components

A

T cells, B cells, antigens

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36
Q

mechanism of adaptive immunity

A

V (D) J recombination

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37
Q

mechanism of innate immunity

A

Germ line encoded

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38
Q

Microbial resistance does not occur in this type of immunity

A

Adaptive immunity

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39
Q

Hassal corpuscle. location and content

A

thymus medulla.

contains reticular cells and mature T cells

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40
Q

Sail sign

A

thymus in CXR

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41
Q

Name the B cell activation pathways

A
  1. T cell-dependent (proteins)

2. T cell-independent (non-proteins)

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42
Q

Signals required for T cell dependent activation (of B cells) pathway:

A
  1. Cross-linking of receptors bound to antigen

2. T cell binding.

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43
Q

explain T cell binding (2nd signal to activate B cells in the T- cell dependent pathway

A

B cells present antigen to T cells via MHC class II

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44
Q

Activated B cells initially produce

A

IgM

and small amount of IgD

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45
Q

Tiggers for Antibodies class switching:

A

cytokines IL4, IL 5 and Th2

T cell binding CD40

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46
Q

most abundant antibody in a new born (can cross placenta)

A

IgG

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47
Q

Most abundant antibody in plasma

A

IgG

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48
Q

Which antibody last longer (several weeks)

A

IgG

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49
Q

Which antibodies are the best opsonins

A

IgG1 and IgG3

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50
Q

After activation, B cells have 2 possible fates:

A
  1. plasma cell to make Antibodies

2. Memory B cells

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51
Q

What type of vaccine is MMR?

A

Live Attenuated

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52
Q

Examples of Killed vaccines

A 
RIP Always 
Rabies
Influenza
Polio (Salk)
Hep A
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53
Q

Examples of Subunit Vaccines

A 
HBV
HPV
Acellular pertussis
Neisseria meningitidis 
Strep
Haem typ B
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54
Q

Hyper IgM syndrome type of Inheritance

A

X linked R

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55
Q

Children with Hyper IgM syndrome suffer from _______ resp infection

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

56
Q

Which gene defect gives rise to Hyper IgM syndrome

A

Gene encoding for CD40 ligand

57
Q

Which signal is defective in Hyper IgM syndrome?

A

B cell response to T-dependent antigen

58
Q

All complement activation involves:

A

C3 → C3b

59
Q

Alternative pathway of complement needs C3b to bind to:

A

amino and hydroxil groups (commonly found on surface of pathogens)

60
Q

The Alternative and Lectin pathways of the complement are both examples of which type of Immunity?

A

Innate immunity.

61
Q

Major way to protect organism against encapsulated bacteria is:

A

The Complement system

62
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Hereditary Angioedema

A

Lack of C1 inhibitor

63
Q

Diagnosis of Hereditary Angioedema:

A

Low C4 level

64
Q

Never give ___ to a pt with Hereditary Angioedema

A

ACE inhibitors

65
Q

This is an Anaphilatoxin and also facilitates the chemotaxis of neutrophils:

A

C5a

66
Q

What bacteria are particularly targeted by the MAC?

A

Neisseria

67
Q

Endotoxin fragments of gram neg cell walls triggers which complement pathway?

A

The Alternative Pathway

68
Q

What gene is defective in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?

A

PIGA gene

69
Q

where are peyer’s patches more common

A

terminal ileum

70
Q

Classical marker found in T Regulatory Cells

A

All express CD25

71
Q

what type of Cytokines do T Reg cells produce??

A

Anti inflammatory Cytokines IL-10 and TGF-β

72
Q

Activation of B cells via the T cell independent pathway is specially important for what type of organisms?

A

For non-protein antigens

like polysaccharides capsules of bacteria and LPS

73
Q

This B cell activation pathway has no memory, is weaker and is mostly IgM

A

T cell independent pathway

74
Q

Conjugated vaccines are

A

Hib
Neisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumo

75
Q

Which Immunoglobulins can activate the Complement , classic pathway?

A

IgG and IgM

76
Q

Administration of Monoclonal Antibodies/Antitoxins are examples of Passive or Active immunity?

A

Passive

77
Q

IgA en breast milk and IgG crossing placenta are examples of Passive or Active immunity?

A

Passive

78
Q

Name 3 examples of Active Immunity

A
  1. Vaccines
  2. Natural Infection
  3. Toxoid
79
Q

Name 2 Toxoids

A

Diphtheria

Tetanus

80
Q

Antibodies that bind to C1 in complement Classical pathway

A

IgM IgG

81
Q

Name the primary lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow and thymus

82
Q

Follicular dendritic cells location:

A

Follicles of a Lymph node Cortex

83
Q

What is the main immune action of the Follicles in the Lymph nodes?

A

B cell Activation

84
Q

Here happens B cell growth and differentiation, class switching.

A

Secondary follicles of lymph nodes. “germinal center”

85
Q

This part of the lymph node becomes engorged in immune response (swollen nodes)

A

Paracortex

86
Q

Medulla of the lymph node is composed of _

What cells do you find in these structures?

A

Sinus and Cords.
cords… plasma cells secreting Antibodies
Sinus.. macrophages (filters lymph)

87
Q

Spleen is a primary or secondary lymphoid organ?

A

Secondary

88
Q

Spleen filters blood or lymph?

A

Blood

89
Q

After blood enters the Spleen via Splenic Artery, what zones goes through before going out via Splenic vein?

A
  1. White pulp

2. Red pulp

90
Q

White pulp important structures are

A
  1. Follicles (B cells)
  2. PALS Periarteriolar lymphocyte sheath (T cells)
  3. Marginal zones (macrophages, remove debris, dendritic cells process antigen)
91
Q

Where are the Sinusoids in the Spleen?

A

Red pulp

92
Q

Sinusoids basement membrane is also called

A

Barrel hood membrane basement.

93
Q

Predominant pathogen of sepsis in Splenic Dysfunction

A

Strep pneumo

94
Q

Name the functional states of macrophages and their function:

A

M1 respond to bacteria and inhibit cancer growth

M2 support angiogenesis, suppress immunity, and promote cancer growth.

95
Q

FoxP3 is unique to ___ T cells.

A

Regulatory

96
Q

Activated T cells and Reg T cells express

A

CD25+

97
Q

All T cells express

A

CD3

98
Q

Gamma delta T cell are mostly found in

A

gut mucosa

99
Q

What type of lymphocytes search and produce antibodies to recognize polysaccharides found on bacteria?

A

B-1

100
Q

Syncitial cells are often found in

A

Granulomas

101
Q

____are short-lived cells in the circulation but will take longer term residence in draining lymph nodes and will direct inflammatory responses.

A

Basophils

102
Q

Which Cytokine stimulates hepatocytes to secrete acute phase proteins

A

IL-6

103
Q

Mature dendritic cells have high expression levels of both ___ and ____

A

MHC Class II and CD80/88.

104
Q

NK surface markers

A

CD16, 56

105
Q

Anergic B cells express high levels of ____ rendering them inactive

A

IgD

106
Q

Which Interleukin promotes class-switching of B cells from IgM to IgE and IgG?

A

Interleukin (IL)-4

107
Q 
This type of graft is transplanted between genetically
identical individuals (monozygotic twins).
A

Isografts (or syngeneic grafts

108
Q

These grafts are those transplanted between genetically different members of the same species

A

Allogeneic (kidney transplant).

109
Q

These grafts are those transplanted between members of different species

A

Xenogeneic (pig heart valves into human)

110
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection is an example of Hypersensitivity type ___?

A

II

111
Q

Chronic Graft Rejection. Main cells that are responsible?

A

T cells

112
Q

Which areas are drained into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes?

A

Anal canal, skin below umbilicus, scrotum, vulva

113
Q

Which areas are drained into the superficial internal iliac lymph nodes?

A

Lower rectum to anal canal, bladder, vagina, cervix, prostate.

114
Q

Which areas are drained into the paraAortic lymph nodes?

A

Testes, Ovaries, kidneys, uterus

115
Q

The cytokine most strongly associated with stimulation

of production of lymphoid cells from the bone marrow is

A

IL-7

116
Q

Is the cytokine that is most strongly associated with stimulation of myeloid cell precursors in the bone marrow.

A

IL-3

117
Q

best markers to identify B lymphocytes are

A

CD19, CD20, and CD21

118
Q

This MHC has β2 microglobulin, It is designed to bind endogenously produced peptides It possesses two chains of unequal length

A

Class I MHC molecule

119
Q

It should be present on all nucleated cells in the body

A

Class I MHC molecule

120
Q

Only Cell-mediated type of HS?

A

type IV HS

121
Q

Transplant rejection (not hyperacute) and Contact dermatitis (poison ivy) usually are HS type __?

A

Type IV HS

122
Q

PPD is

A

Delayed type HS type IV

123
Q

penicillin - induced hemolytic anemia is an example of HS type ___

A

type II HS

124
Q

These are are IL-2 receptor antibodies that reduce inflammatory autoimmune effects.

A

Daclizumab and basiliximab

125
Q

The mechanism of NK Fc receptor-mediated destruction is called:

A

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. ADCC

126
Q

Reg T cell markers are

A

CD4, CD25

127
Q

IL-1 is also known as

A

Osteoclast- activation factor

128
Q

promotes cachexia and malignancy

A

TNF alpha

129
Q

role of TNF alpha in TB is

A

TNF alpha mantains granulomas

130
Q

function of IL-3?

A

Growth & differentiation of stem cells in the bone marrow; functions similar to GM-CSF

131
Q

inactivated vaccines only induce _____immunity

A

humoral

132
Q

Filgastrim and Sargramostim are both ____

Clinical use is for ____

A

CSF

Leukopenia

133
Q

Romiplostin is a

A

TPO analogue

134
Q

Eltrombopag mechanism of action

A

TPO receptor agonist

135
Q

Which bone marrow stimulants are used in Autoimmune Thrombocytopenia

A

Thrombopoietin analogue Romiplostin

and TPO agonist Eltrombopag

136
Q

CD34 is expressed on

A

pluripotent stem cells.
CD34+ cells include those from the umbilical cord /bone marrow, endothelial progenitors of the blood vessels, mast cells, and certain dendritic cells. In the hematopoietic lineage, CD34+ stem cells can be stimulated to differentiate into erythroblasts and myeloblasts using G-CSF.

137
Q

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are CD34+ and

A

CD38-,

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