ID Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria

A
  1. Tachycardia (> 90BPM)
  2. Tachypnea (> 20 RPM)
  3. Fever ( >38C or <36C)
  4. Increased/decreased WBC count (> 12,000 or <4,000 or >10% immature forms (bands))
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2
Q

Normal WBC count

A

4,500-11,000 cells/mm3
(represents total number of WBC - neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils)

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3
Q

Non-infectious causes of elevated WBC count

A

steroids, leukemia, stress, pregnancy, RA

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4
Q

Percentage of mature neutrophils (PMNS, polys, segs) in normal WBC differential

A

36-73% (most common WBC)

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5
Q

Percentage of immature neutrophils (bands) in normal WBC differential

A

0-5%
(increased during infection = “left shift”)

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6
Q

Leukocytosis is associated with _________ infections (as opposed to lymphocytosis)

A

bacterial

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7
Q

Lymphocytosis is associated with _________, _________, and __________ infections

A

viral, fungal, tuberculosis

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8
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

an increase of neutrophils +/- bands

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9
Q

What is leukopenia? It might be a sign of what?

A

abnormally low WBC, which may be a sign of overwhelming infection

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10
Q

ANC =

A

WBC x (% segs + % bands/100)

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11
Q

Neutropenia = ANC < ________

A

500 cells/mm3
(or if ANC is expected to decrease to < 500 in the next 48 hours)

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12
Q

ANC < 500 is associated with a substantial risk of __________

A

INFECTION (especially by opportunistic pathogens)

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13
Q

ESR normal values

A

0-15 mm/hr (males)
0-20 mm/hr (females)

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14
Q

CRP normal value

A

0-0.5 mg/dL

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15
Q

Procalcitonin normal level

A

<0.05 mcg/L

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16
Q

Procalcitonin is _____ specific for bacterial infections than ESR and CRP

A

more

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17
Q

PCT < 0.25mcg/L =

A

low risk of infection

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18
Q

PCT > 0.5 mcg/L =

A

antibiotics should be continued

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19
Q

Serial measurements of PCT every 1-2 days are useful for what?

A

to assess response to therapy and when to discontinue antibiotics

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20
Q

Allergenicity of B-lactams

A

They acylate host cell proteins which raise antibodies that result in an allergic reaction

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21
Q

What chemical feature of penicillins confer resistance to degradation under acidic conditions?

A

The electronegativity of the substituent on the side chain carbonyl - if it reduces nucleophilicity/takes electron density away from carbonyl oxygen atom = stabilization

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22
Q

Which has a thicker peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

Gram (+)

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23
Q

In which type of bacteria are beta-lactamases confined to the periplasmic space?

A

Gram (-)

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24
Q

In Gram (-) cells, peptidoglycan is bridged between the terminal D-Ala and the ______ residue

A

DAP (mesodiaminopimelic acid) residue

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25
Q

In Gram (+) cells, peptidoglycan is bridged between the terminal D-Ala and the ______ residue

A

L-lysine

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26
Q

How many cell membranes do gram (+) bacteria have?

A

one

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27
Q

How many cell membranes do gram (-) bacteria have?

A

two - more complex cell wall that is lipoidal

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28
Q

What catalyzes penicillin degradation and should therefore be kept away from penicillin solutions?

A

Heavy metal ions

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29
Q

As lipophilicity of penicillins ________, serum protein binding increases

A

increase

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30
Q

As serum protein binding of pencillins increases, bioavailability ___________

A

decreases

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31
Q

How does renal disease affect half-life of penicillins?

A

prolonged

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32
Q

How does administration of probenecid with penicillins affect their half-life?

A

increases because they are competing for the anionic tubular secretion in the kidneys

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33
Q

Which is more stable in the stomach: Pen G or Pen V?

A

Pen V

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34
Q

Pen G antimicrobial spectrum

A

Gram (+) cocci

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35
Q

Is Pen G sensitive to B-lactamases?

A

Yes

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36
Q

Pen G precautions

A

should be used with caution in individuals with history of significant allergies or asthma

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37
Q

What chemical feature of methicillin confers resistance to Beta-lactamases?

A

The B-lactam carbonyl is sterically hindered (to a nucleophilic attack)

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38
Q

B-Lactamase-sensitive penicillins

A

Pen G
Pen V
Amoxicillin
Ampicillin

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39
Q

B-Lactamase-resistant parenteral penicillins

A

Methicillin
Nafcillin

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40
Q

B-lactamase-resistant oral penicillins

A

Oxacillin (d/c for oral use)
Cloxacillin (d/c for oral use)
Dicloxacillin

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41
Q

Which is more stable in acid: methicillin of nafcillin?

A

Nafcillin

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42
Q

B-lactamase sensitive, broad-spectrum, oral penicillins

A

Ampicillin
Amoxicillin

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43
Q

Ampicillin antibacterial spectrum

A

Gram (+) and Gram (-)

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44
Q

Which has better oral absorption: ampicillin or amoxicillin?

A

Amoxicillin

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45
Q

Mechanism of action of B-lactamase inhibitors

A

They acylate the serine hydroxyl group in the active site of the B-lactamase

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46
Q

B-lactamase-sensitive, broad-spectrum, parenteral penicillin

A

Piperacillin

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47
Q

Why does piperacillin, a acylureidopenicillin, have enhanced potency?

A

Because the added side chain fragment resembles a longer section of the peptidoglycan chain

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48
Q

Cephalosporins mechanism of action

A

Reaction with transpeptidases (penicillin binding proteins) that results in inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking (same as penicillins)

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49
Q

Allergic reactions to cephalosporins is ______ common than with penicillins

A

LESS common (and less severe)

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50
Q

What is the general trend from first generation to third generation cephalosporins?

A

enhanced Gram-negative activity and a loss of efficacy toward Gram-positive bacteria

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51
Q

What is the structural difference between orally active and parenteral cephalosporins?

A

Orally active cephalosporins have unreactive C-3 substituents

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52
Q

What side chain do first-generation orally active cephalosporins have at C-3?

A

Methyl group

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53
Q

Why are syn oxime ethers (at the C-7 side chain) more resistant to B-lactamase hydrolysis than anti oxime ethers?

A

The syn oxime ether hangs under the carbonyl protecting it from attack

54
Q

What effect does the large oxime ether at C-7 on ceftazidime have on stability vs B-lactamases?

A

Enhanced stability/more resistant

55
Q

What effects does the charged pyridinium ring ring at C-3 on ceftazidime have on aqueous solubility and B-lactam reactivty?

A

Enhances aqueous solubility and makes it parenterally active (too reactive for oral use)

56
Q

What effect does the charged methylpyrrolidine on cefepime have on reactivity and antibiotic spectrum?

A

-Increased reactivity (good leaving group) making it parenterally active
-More activity against gram (-) organisms because porins are polar

57
Q

Why can’t thienamycin be used as a drug?

A

Too reactive, the primary amino group attacks the B-lactam ring intermolecularly

58
Q

Why are carbapenems more reactive than penicillins?

A

The sulfur in penicillins is replaced by a carbon, which causes an increase in the ring strain of the b-lactam ring (since the carbon is smaller than sulfur)

59
Q

What unique feature does imipenem have against B-lactamases?

A

It reacts and inhibits B-lactamases

60
Q

Why is cilastatin administered with imipenem?

A

Imipenem is hydrolyzed by renal dehydropeptidase-1, and cilastatin is dehydropeptidase-1 inhibitor

61
Q

What structural feature do monobactams have that replaces the carboxyl group in penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

sulfamic acid - which allows them to be biologically active

62
Q

Antibiotic spectrum of monobactams

A

Almost completely gram (-) bacteria

63
Q

How does the sulfamic acid in monobactams affect reactivity?

A

The electronegativity of the sulfamic acid activates the beta-lactam ring to react with the penicillin-binding proteins

64
Q

Cross allergenicity of monobactams with penicillins and cephalosporins

A

Has not been reported except with ceftazidime which an identical oxime ether sidechain

65
Q

What type of bacteria does vancomycin cover? Why?

A

Gram (+) because it is too big to get through porins of gram (-) bacteria

66
Q

Vancomycin mechanism of action

A

Binds to the D-ala-D-ala terminus of peptidoglycan - inhibits Gram (+) cell wall synthesis

67
Q

Mechanism of bacterial resistance against vancomycin

A

Mutation of D-ala-D-ala to D-ala-D-lactate - vancomycin has 1000 times less affinity for D-ala-D-lactate and will therefore not bind

68
Q

Main toxic effects of vancomycin

A
  1. Hypersensitivity rxn resulting in red skin rash - “red man syndrome”
  2. Nephrotoxicity
  3. Ototoxicity
69
Q

Vancomycin therapeutic uses

A
  1. Given orally for c. diff (after flagyl treatment is ineffective)
  2. MRSA
70
Q

How is vancomycin eliminated?

A

90% glomerular filtration

71
Q

Oritavancin, Telavancin, and Dalbavancin antibiotic spectrum

A

Gram (+), including MRSA

72
Q

Which drugs are lipoglycopeptides?

A

oritavancin, telavancin, dalbavancin

73
Q

Lipoglycopeptide antibiotic mechanism of action

A

Binds to D-ala-D-ala terminus of peptidoglycan inhibiting cell wall synthesis - identical to vancomycin

74
Q

How do the half-lives of oritavancin and dalbavancin differ from those of vancomycin and televancin? Why?

A

Greatly increased - this is because of their lipophilic side chains which increases protein binding

75
Q

Which structural feature of quinupristin and dalfopristin allow for salt formation and enhance water solubility?

A

The amino side chains (R-NH2)

76
Q

Quinupristin and dalfoprisitin: bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bacteriostatic on their own

77
Q

Synercid therapeutic uses

A
  1. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium bacteremia and UTIs
  2. Skin infections caused by MRSA

*NOT effective against Enterococcus faecalis

78
Q

Quinupristin mechanism of action

A

binds in the ribosomal tunnel and causes blockage of tunnel

79
Q

Dalfopristin mechanism of action

A

binds to the 23S portion of the 50s ribosomal subunit, enhancing the binding of quinupristin

80
Q

Streptogramin drug interactions

A

streptogramins inhibit CYP3A4 so drugs metabolized by CYP3A4 i.e. cyclosporine and macrolides

81
Q

Streptogramin resistance mechanisms

A
  1. Quinupristin ONLY - Adenine methylation of A2058 (this makes Synercid bacteriostatic)
  2. Continued use of streptogramins in animal feeds
82
Q

Linezolid mechanism of action

A

It acts early on the 50S subunit which prevents formation of the 70S initiation complex - it interacts specifically with 23S rRNA

83
Q

Linezolid therapeutics uses

A
  1. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium
  2. Nosocominal pneuomonia caused by MRSA
  3. Skin infections caused by MRSA
84
Q

Why should linezolid only be used to treat or prevent infections that are proven/strongly suspected to be caused by multi-drug resistant Gram (+) bacteria?

A

To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria and maintain the effectiveness of linezolid

85
Q

Resistance mechanism to linezolid

A

G -> U substitution in the 23S rRNA at position 2576 - results in reduced affinity of linezolid to the 50S subunit

86
Q

Linezolid side effects

A
  1. GI: N/V/D
  2. Tongue discoloration or oral thrush
87
Q

How is linezolid metabolized?

A
  1. The morpholine ring undergoes oxidation
  2. 30% is excreted in urine as parent drug
88
Q

Linezolid is _____% bioavailable after oral administration

89
Q

Linezolid drug interactions

A
  1. it inhibits monoamine oxidase - therefore may interact with adrenergic and serotonergic drugs
  2. Pseudoephedrine - caution in patients with HTN
  3. Foods rich in tyramine
90
Q

Tedizolid is _____ potent that linezolid

91
Q

Aminoglycoside mechanism of action

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit, specifically 16S rRNA forming the A site

92
Q

Symptoms of aminoglycoside ototoxicity

A
  1. high-frequency hearing loss
  2. vertigo
  3. loss of balance
  4. ataxia
  5. tinnitus
93
Q

Which toxicity caused by aminoglycosides is irreversible: ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity?

A

ototoxicity

94
Q

Resistance mechanisms to aminoglycosides

A

Bacteria inactivate aminoglycosides by acetylation, adenylation, and phosphorylation

(aminoglycosides are not metabolized in humans, as opposed to bacteria)

95
Q

Concurrent use of which drugs with aminoglycosides may potentiate nephrotoxicity?

A

-Loop diuretics
-Vancomycin
-Amphotericin

96
Q

How are curare-like effects caused by aminoglycosides treated?

A

respiratory paralysis usually reversed by neostigmine or calcium gluconate

97
Q

What might cause aminoglycoside toxicities?

A
  1. large doses
  2. treatment > 5 days
  3. eldery patients
  4. renal impairment
98
Q

What are the core structures of aminoglycosides?

A
  1. streptidine
  2. 2-deoxystreptamine
99
Q

Aminoglycoside antibiotic spectrum

A

broad spectrum Gram (+) and Gram (-), but is almost always reserved for Gram (-)

100
Q

Why should penicillins and aminoglycosides not be administered in same solution?

A

They react with each other which inactivates them

101
Q

Penicillin/aminoglycoside combination therapeutic use

A

bacterial endocarditis

102
Q

Streptomycin therapeutic uses

A
  1. tuberculosis
  2. bubonic plague
  3. tularemia
103
Q

Gentamicin therapeutic uses

A
  1. UTIs
  2. burns - topically
  3. joint and bone infections caused by Gram (-) infections
  4. pneumonias
  5. eye infections - ophthalmic
104
Q

Tobramycin therapeutic uses

A

same as gentamicin:
1. UTIs
2. burns - topically
3. joint and bone infections caused by Gram (-) infections
4. pneumonias
5. eye infections - ophthalmic

AND gentamicin-resistant P. aeruginosa infections

105
Q

Oral aminoglycosides

A
  1. Neomycin B
  2. Paromomycin
106
Q

Amikacin therapeutic uses

A
  1. aminoglycoside-resistant nosocomial infections
  2. severe P. aeruginosa infections
  3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  4. Francisella tularensis
107
Q

Neomycin therapeutic uses

A
  1. Suppress gut flora in traveler’s diarrhea
  2. Peritonitis prophylaxis prior to GI surgery
  3. Used as a topical ointment
108
Q

Paramomycin therapeutic uses

A
  1. Suppress gut flora in traveler’s diarrhea
  2. Peritonitis prophylaxis prior to GI surgery
  3. Amoebic dysentery
  4. Dwarf and beef tapeworm
109
Q

Plazomicin therapeutic uses

A

complicated UTIs + pyelonephritis caused by E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis, and Enterobacter cloacae

110
Q

Why is gentamicin the most important aminoglycoside?

A

because it’s low cost and has reliable activity against the most resistant Gram (-) aerobes

111
Q

How is tobramycin metabolized by bacteria?

A
  1. Adenylated at C2
  2. Acetylated at C3
112
Q

Which part of the macrolide structure is important for activity?

A

the desosamine sugar

113
Q

Which bacteria have intrinsic resistance to macrolides by not allowing entry of these drugs?

A

Pseudomonas spp. and Enterobacter spp.

114
Q

Macrolides mechanism of action

A

bind to the P site of the ribosome inhibiting translocation of growing peptide from the A site to P site

115
Q

What is the main route of erythromycin metabolism?

A

Demethylation in the liver

116
Q

Macrolides side effects

A
  1. 14-membered macrolides can cause vomiting, gastric cramps, abdominal pain
  2. Minor to severe allergic skin reactions
  3. Long term use (10-20 days) can cause reversible cholestatic hepatitis - manifests as jaundice with cramping/nausea/fever
  4. Erythromycin may increase risk of pyloric stenosis in children
117
Q

Clindamycin mechanism of action

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 50S subunit of ribosome - similar to macrolides MOA and has same binding site as erythromycin

118
Q

Clindamycin antibiotic spectrum

A

Aerobic gram (+) cocci
Anaerobic gram (-) bacilli

119
Q

Clindamycin therapeutic uses

A
  1. Topically for acne
  2. Bone infections from S. aureus
  3. Bacterial vaginosis (cream)
  4. Lung abscesses + pleural space infections
  5. MRSA
  6. Used in AIDS patients with encephalitis caused by Toxoplasma gondii
120
Q

What side effect of clindamycin limits its use?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. diff

121
Q

How is clindamycin metabolized?

A

by cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver to inactive metabolites

122
Q

Where is clindamycin absorbed?

A

90% is absorbed in GI tract

123
Q

What is the preferred route of tetracyclines?

124
Q

Why should tetracyclines not be administered to children who are forming their permanent teeth?

A

tetracyclines chelate calcium during formation of teeth resulting in permanently brown or gray teeth

125
Q

Epimerization of tetracycline is ______ in the solid state and _________ at pH ___

A

slow in solid state
most rapid at pH 4

126
Q

Why is 4-epianhydrotetracycline toxic?

A

it’s toxic to the kidneys and can produce a Fanconi-like syndrome

127
Q

Why do minocycline and doxycycline lack the renal toxicity risk of tetracycline?

A

they lack a C-6 hydroxyl group (which causes the dehydration reaction)

128
Q

Tetracyclines mechanism of action

A

binds to 30S subunit blocking the attachment of tRNA to A site of ribosome

129
Q

What might lower absorption of tetracyclines by about 20-50%?

A

food and milk

130
Q

Why is doxycycline the tetracycline of choice?

A

It has no potential for 4-epianhydrotetracycline toxicity and produces fewer GI symptoms

131
Q

Which tetracyclines are teratogenic?

A

omadacycline and sarecycline