Exam 1 Oncology - Mabe Flashcards

1
Q

Hyperplasia

A

an increase in organ or tissue size due to an increase in number of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Metaplasia

A

an adaptive substitution of one type of adult tissue to another type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dysplasia

A

an abnormal cellular proliferation where there is loss of normal architecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Anaplasia

A

A loss of structural differentiation
Cells de-differentiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Carcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm of squamous epithelial cell origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

malignant neoplasm derived from glandular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sarcoma

A

malignant neoplasm with origin in mesenchymal tissues (bone, muscle, fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lymphoma and Leukemia

A

malignant neoplasm of hematopoietic tissues (blood, white blood cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Melanoma

A

type of cancer of pigment producing cells (melanocytes) in the skin or eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Blastoma

A

malignancies in precursor cells (blasts) which are more common in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Teratoma

A

A germ cell neoplasm made of several different differentiated cell/tissue types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define TX, NX, and MX

A

TX: primary tumor cannot be evaluated
NX: regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated
MX: distant metastasis cannot be evaluated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define T0, N0, and M0

A

T0: no evidence of primary tumor
N0: no regional lymph node involvement
M0: no distant metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: A well-differentiated tumor is spreads slower than a poorly differentiated tumor

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between a benign tumor and cancer?

A

A benign tumor and cancer both involve uncontrolled cellular growth, but cancer also indicates tissue invasion and metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a tumor in the brain originates from the breast, is it considered a brain or breast cancer?

A

Breast cancer

17
Q

Define proto-oncogene

A

Any gene in a healthy cell capable of promoting tumor growth

18
Q

T/F: Carcinogen-induced cancers have very high mutation rates.

A

True

19
Q

Do tumors of the same classification have a unifying genetic “driver”?

A

They can but often do not

20
Q

What type of gene is BRCA1/BRCA2?

A

Tumor suppressor genes - they encode for proteins involved in DNA repair

21
Q

BRCA mutations in breast cancer ________ susceptibility to PARP inhibitors
(hint: PARP inhibitors are primarily used in cancers with BRCA1/2 mutations)

A

increase

22
Q

How do PARP inhibitors work?

A

They trap PARP in the DNA so it’s unable to uncouple from the DNA and therefore leads to cell death

23
Q

Olaparib drug class

A

PARP inhibitor

24
Q

The cell cycle clock is driven by what?

A

Cyclins paired with cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)

25
Q

What is the R point?

A

time when cells decide whether or not to enter the cell cycle after G1

26
Q

Cyclin __ and CDK ____/_____ are master regulators of cell cycle initiation

A

Cyclin D
CDK 4/6

27
Q

Palbociclib drug class

A

CDK 4/6 kinase inhibitor

28
Q

Hormonal therapies are primarily targeting _________ in breast and endometrial cancer and ____________________ in prostate cancer.

A

estradiol
dihydrotestosterone

29
Q

What are the two major strategies of anti-endocrine therapy?

A
  1. stop steroid receptor function
  2. decrease production of steroids
30
Q

What are the four subtypes of breast cancer?

A
  1. Luminal A (ER+, PR+)
  2. Luminal B (ER+)
  3. HER2+
  4. Triple negative
31
Q

What type of therapy will most likely be used for a luminal A breast cancer?

A

Endocrine therapy

32
Q

What is the most common reason for resistance to multiple chemotherapies at once?

A

Drug transport out of cell

33
Q

Tamoxifen is a prodrug that is metabolized to ________________ by CYP __________

A

4-hydroxy tamoxifen
CYP2D6

34
Q

T/F: SERMs (i.e. tamoxifen) are effective in both pre- and postmenopausal women.

A

True

35
Q

Which drug has both agonist and antagonist effects: tamoxifen or fulvestrant?

A

Tamoxifen

36
Q

Where does tamoxifen exhibit antagonist effects?

A

Brain

37
Q

Where does tamoxifen exhibit agonist effects?

A

Bone, endometrium

38
Q

What is the primary indication for tamoxifen?

A

resected and metastatic ER+/PR+ breast cancer

39
Q

Treatment options for postmenopausal women with ER+ disease:

A
  1. Tamoxifen
  2. Aromatase inhibitors
  3. Estrogen antagonists