ICU/ER/meds Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment for malignant hyperthermia

A

Hyperventilation, oxygen, dantrolene

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2
Q

What predicts risk for future deterioration in near drowning events

A

Hx of apnea and cpr in the field

Neurological signs (seizure or disorientation) or respiratory failure from aspiration

Arterial desaturation and or tachypnea

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3
Q

What is the key to prognosis in a near drown event

A

Duration of asphyxia

If a pt requires less than 10 mins of cpr there is a good chance they will survive with no neurological impairment

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4
Q

Factors that worsen prognosis in near drowning

A

Submersion > 25 mins
Apnea or coma at admission
Initial arterial pH of < 7

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5
Q

Initial tx for caediogenic shock

A

Dobutamine

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6
Q

Tx with presented with acute heart failure

A

Furosemide

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7
Q

What findings are consistent with brain death

A

Absense of vertebral and carotid artery blood flow

Must make sure there are no other disorders which obscure neurological functioning

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8
Q

Formula for calculating ET tube size

A

Age divided by 4 plus 4

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9
Q

If an intubation pt experiences deterioration what should you consider

A

Displacement of ET tube
Obstruction
Pneumothorax
Equipment failure

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10
Q

What medications can be given by ET tube

A

Lidocaine
Atropine
Narcan
Epi

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11
Q

What medication can you give for bradycardia

A

Atropine

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12
Q

When are antibiotics for bites indicated

A
When dogs, cats, humans
When on hands, feet, face
Dirty wound
Crush injuries 
Cartilage involvement 
Immunocompromised
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13
Q

Antibiotic for bite wounds

A

Augmentin

If penicillin allergic clinda plus Bactrim

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14
Q

How does brown recluse spider bite present

A

Target lesion consisting of a red circle surrounding a white ring that appears within hours

Bite becomes necrotic

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15
Q

Tx of brown recluse spider bite

A

Self limited

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16
Q

How does black widow spider bite present

A

Puncture wound barely noticed

Systemic symptoms within 8 hrs - muscle aches and HTN

17
Q

Tx of black widow bite

A

Local wound care and pain control

Benzodiazepine in severe muscle spasms

In severe cases may use anti venom

Verify tetanus

18
Q

Initial management of venamous snake bite

A

ABCs and then immobilize the limb and let it hang at the patients side

19
Q

When is a head CT indicated

A
Prolongues LOC
Protracted vomiting 
Progressing headache 
Retrograde amnesia 
Lethargy
20
Q

Poor prognostic signs for a pt in coma

A

Cerebral bleeding
Brain edema
Coma lasting longer than 6 hrs
Low Glasgow score (less than 8 severe)

21
Q

Fractures due to abuse

A
Bucket handle fractures
Corner fractures 
Spiral fractures in infants 
Rib fractures
Multiple skull fractures 
Spinous process fractures 
Scapular fractures
Sternum fractures
22
Q

What could Peri-orbital ecchymoses be a sign of

A

Neuroblastoma

23
Q

Female athlete triad

A

Menstrual irregularity
Eating disorder
Low bone mass

24
Q

What is the half life for 5 cycles

A
After 1 - 50% of the drug remains
After 2 - 25% of the drug remains 
After 3- 12.5% of the drug remains
After 4 - 6.25% of the drug remains
After 5- 3.125% of the drug remains 

After 5 half lives 97% of the drug would have been cleared from the body

25
Q

What is steady state

A

When the drug is administered at a steady interval and the Amt in equals the amt out

A drug will reach 97% of steady state after 5 half lives

26
Q

Which medications should you not have with dairy

A

Tetracycline, doxycycline, ciprofloxacin

27
Q

What happens when an antacid is administered with iron

A

Antacid binds iron and prevents its absorption

28
Q

Which medications should be taken with fatty foods

A

Isotretinoin and griseofulvin

29
Q

Erythromycin, ciprofloxacin, cimetidine and omeprazole have inhibitory effects on hepatic enzymatic systems how does this impact other drugs

A

Reduces theophylline, codeine, beta blocker, antidepressants, corticosteroids, warfarin and metronidazole metabolism resulting in increased bioavailability and toxicity

30
Q

Which drugs inhibit renal metabolism of digoxin resulting in elevated levels

A

Quinidine and amiodarone

31
Q

What are dose related side effects of furosemide

A

Ototoxicity and renal toxicity

32
Q

Mechanism of action of furosemide

A

Blocks absorption of Na and Cl results in wasting of calcium, potassium and hydrogen chloride

33
Q

Mechanism of action of acetazolamide

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

In proximal tubule presents reuptake of bicarb and causes metabolic acidosis with alkaline urine

34
Q

What happens with potassium with spironolactone

A

Potassium sparring

35
Q

What is required for monitoring during conscious sedation

A

Pals certified member to monitor
Pulse ox, Bp and vitals q5min
Bag mask and oxygen should be immediately available
Reversal agents like naloxone (opiates) and flumazenil (benzos) should be available

36
Q

Define moderate sedation

A

Pt retains ability to respond normally to verbal commands and cardio respiratory function are unaffected

37
Q

Define deep sedation

A

Responds to repeated or painful stimuli. Partial or complete loss of protective airway reflexes

38
Q

Define minimal sedation

A

Relief of apprehension with minimal effect on perception and sensorium

39
Q

Parkland formula for first 24 hr fluid replacement

A

4 x wt (kg) x %TBSA