histology - new for studying block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

vaso vasorum

A

vessels of the vessels -

The vasa vasorum is a network of small blood vessels that supply the walls of large blood vessels, such as elastic arteries (e.g., the aorta) and large veins (e.g., the venae cavae). The name derives from Latin, meaning ‘the vessels of the vessels’.

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2
Q

What can smooth muscles make?

A

Smooth muscle cells have a large role in modifying their microenvironment in disease by producing ECM protein (e.g., collagen, fibrin, fibronectin and proteoglycans [6]) and factors which regulate ECM formation (e.g., tissue factor in fibrin formation [

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3
Q

von Willdebrand - where made? clotting protein

A

Where is von Willebrand factor?
Von Willebrand factor is made within endothelial cells, which line the inside surface of blood vessels, and bone marrow cells.

Von Willebrand disease (VWD) is a genetic disorder caused by missing or defective von Willebrand factor (VWF), a clotting protein. VWF binds factor VIII, a key clotting protein, and platelets in blood vessel walls, which help form a platelet plug during the clotting process.

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4
Q

Weibel-Palade bodies - storage, von Wildebrand factor, P selectin, interleuken 0

A

contain von Willdebrand -

Weibel-Palade bodies are small storage granules located in endothelial cells comprising the intima of the heart and blood vessels. … It functions to bind coagulation factor VIII in the presence of vessel injury. vWF then cross-links basement membrane collagen of the vessel to gp1b seen on platelets.

bodies (WPBs) are secretory organelles used for post-synthesis storage in endothelial cells that can, very rapidly, be triggered to release their contents. They carry a variety of bioactive molecules that are needed to mount a rapid response to the complex environment of cells that line blood vessels.

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5
Q

What cells secrete interleukin 1?

A

The Interleukin-1 family (IL-1 family) is a group of 11 cytokines that plays a central role in the regulation of immune and inflammatory responses to infections or sterile insults.

Interleukin-1 (IL-1) is a highly proinflammatory cytokine produced by multiple cell types, including epithelial cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, endothelial cells and B cells.

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6
Q

Interleukin 2

A

What does IL 2 Do to T cells?
IL-2 plays a dual role in T cell activation by stimulating the proliferation and differentiation of ‘conventional’ T cells as well as maintaining and expanding the population of ‘suppressive’ Treg cells

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7
Q

elastic arteries - tunica media - what happens with age?

A

40 layers of concentric smooth muscle fibers - THICK

elastic laminae secreted by smooth muscle - number and thickness INCREASE with AGE and HYPERtension

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8
Q

What are aortic and carotid bodies?

A

Carotid and aortic bodies are clusters of cells located on the common carotid artery and the aortic arch, respectively. Each of these peripheral chemoreceptors is composed of type I glomus cells and glia-like type II cells. … The aortic body, by contrast, is connected to the medulla via the vagus nerve.

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9
Q

The internal elastic lamina

A

a layer of elastic tissue that forms the outermost part of the tunica intima of blood vessels. It separates tunica intima from tunica media.

The internal elastic lamina is a fenestrated sheet that forms the boundary between the intimal and medial layers, influencing both its mechanical and mass transport properties. The size and number of these fenestrae vary in the arterial system and change with maturation [

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10
Q

What is the difference between elastic and muscular arteries?

A

Elastic arteries include the largest arteries in the body, those closest to the heart. They give rise to medium-sized vessels known as muscular, or distributing, arteries. Elastic arteries differ from muscular arteries both in size and in the relative amount of elastic tissue contained within the tunica media.May 25, 2020

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11
Q

vasodilaters vs. constrictors?

A

dilaters? prosteoglandins, histamines, NO, etc

constrictors? angiotensin II, etc,

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12
Q

intima, media, adventitia?

A

intima - internal elastic

media - type 3 collagen, external elastic

adventitia, type 1 collagen,

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13
Q

arteriovenus shunts AVA - temp reg?

A

dilation CONSERVES body heat,

constriction - gets rid of hit (directs blood to capillary bed)

What is the major function of arteriovenous anastomoses?
Arteriovenous Anastomoses
AVAs are low-resistance connections between the small arteries and small veins that supply and drain the skin. These allow the shunt of blood directly into the venous plexus of the skin, without it passing through capillaries.

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14
Q

Continuous.

A

As their name suggests, continuous capillaries have a continuous endothelial lining. They have tight junctions between their endothelial cells along with intercellular clefts through which small molecules, like ions, can pass.

These capillaries have no perforations and allow only small molecules to pass through. They are present in muscle, skin, fat, and nerve tissue.

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15
Q

Are capillaries one cell thick?

A

Capillaries. … The walls of capillaries are just one cell thick. Capillaries therefore allow molecules to diffuse across the capillary walls. This exchange of molecules is not possible across the walls of other types of blood vessel because the walls are too thick.

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16
Q

histiocyte - macrophages in tissue

A

a stationary phagocytic cell present in connective tissue.

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17
Q

Somatic capillary (continuous) vs visceral (fenestrated)

A

Non-fenestrated (continuous or somatic) capillaries. The endothelium does not have fenestrae or open channels. This most common type is found in connective, muscle, nervous, and endocrine tissues. … This type of capillary is found in the kidney, intestine, and endocrine organs.

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18
Q

size of capillaries? just 2 layers - RBC need to flow thru single file

A

Capillaries are very thin, approximately 5 micrometers in diameter, and are composed of only two layers of cells; an inner layer of endothelial cells and an outer layer of epithelial cells. They are so small that red blood cells need to flow through them single file.

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19
Q

where see fenestrated capillaries?

A

These are found in some tissues where there is extensive molecular exchange with the blood such as the small intestine, endocrine glands and the kidney. The ‘fenestrations’ are pores that will allow larger molecules though. These capillaries are more permeable than continuous capillaries.

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20
Q

sinusoidal caps?

A

liver, spleen, bone marrow

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21
Q

eosinophils?

A

parasitic infection, allergy, cancer

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22
Q

basal lamina is made of?

A

lamina lucide, densa

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23
Q

The apical surface of a hepatocyte

basal surfaces that face the endothelial lining.

A

occurs along a band around the cell’s middle, half-way between the opposing basal surfaces. It is across this surface that bile is secreted. The edges of this apical surface are attached by junctional complexes to those of adjacent hepatocytes, thereby forming the bile canaliculi.

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24
Q

marfan’s syndrome, problem what layer?

A

tunica media

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25
Q

Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed?

A

leukocyte

White blood cells (leukocytes), unlike red cells, are nucleated and independently motile. Highly differentiated for their specialized functions, they do not undergo cell division (mitosis) in the bloodstream, but some retain the capability of mitosis.

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26
Q

DiGeorge syndrome problems?

A

Conditions related to autoimmunity

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27
Q

Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue?

A

polyribosomes

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28
Q

Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?

A

basophils, mast cells

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29
Q

In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?

A

Basophilic erythroblast

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30
Q

Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not during erythropoiesis?

A

Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated

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31
Q

What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?

A

Myelocyte

A myelocyte is a young cell of the granulocytic series, occurring normally in bone marrow (can be found in circulating blood when caused by certain diseases).

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32
Q

20 A 62-year-old man of African descent presents with exercise-induced angina. His serum cholesterol is 277 mg/dL (normal < 200), LDL is 157 (normal < 100), HDL is 43 (normal > 35), and triglycerides 170 (normal < 150). His body mass index (BMI) is 34 and his coronary risk ratio is 6.84 (normal < 5). Cardiac catheterization reveals an occlusion of the left anterior descending and the origin of the right coronary artery. This disease process initially involved which one of the following?

A

Injury to endothelial cells

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33
Q

21 Which function is carried out by all lymphoid tissues and organs?

A

Production of lymphocytes

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34
Q

22 A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?

A

Promyelocytic leukemia

35
Q

What fate often awaits granulocytes that have entered the marginating compartment?

A

Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective tissue

36
Q

27 During light microscopic examination of a tissue, you note a vessel that has no smooth muscle but a large amount of connective tissue at its periphery. Which of the following vessels are you examining?

A

Venule

smooth muscle is absent in venules <30 μm of skeletal muscle and sparse in larger venules and venules in skeletal muscle lack sympathetic nerve innervation.

37
Q

30 A 66-year-old man diagnosed with type II diabetes 10 years earlier presents with an aching pain in the muscles of his lower extremities. He says the pain is relieved by rest and worsened by physical activity. His lower limbs appear cold, pale, discolored, and he has a sore on the skin of his left heel. He has a weak tibial pulse on both sides and poor skin filling from dermal capillaries. The problems with blood distribution in this patient’s leg are most likely associated with what vascular structures?

A

Arterioles

38
Q

Pericytes?

A

associated with basal lamina of capillary endothelial cells

are multi-functional mural cells of the microcirculation that wrap around the endothelial cells that line the capillaries and venules throughout the body. … Pericytes help to maintain homeostatic and hemostatic functions in the brain and also sustain the blood–brain barrier.

39
Q

34

A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted?

A

Basophilic erythroblasts

Hemocytoblast, which is a pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell.
Common myeloid progenitor, a multipotent stem cell.
Unipotent stem cell.
Pronormoblast.
Basophilic normoblast also called an erythroblast.
Polychromatophilic normoblast.
Orthochromatic normoblast.
Reticulocyte.

40
Q

Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type (eg, the A-B-O system).

A

carbohydrate

41
Q

Which description is true of all secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs?

A

contain lymphoid nodules

42
Q

Which of the following is true for ventricles?

A

Walls contain Purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle

43
Q

Which feature typifies specific granules?

A

Contain phagocytins or major basic protein

44
Q

Which cell type are null cells examples of?

A

NK cells, non t non b

A null cell is a large agranular lymphocyte that develops inside the bone marrow. Null cells lack the common characteristic surface markers that can be found in mature B-cells and T-cells.

45
Q

What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?

A

Myelocyte

46
Q

At what stage do azurophilic granules first accumulate?

A

Promyelocyte

47
Q

Appearance in the peripheral blood of large numbers of which cell type is termed a “shift to the left” and may signal a bacterial infection?

A

Band form

A “left shift” is a phrase used to note that there are a high number of young, immature white blood cells present. Most commonly, this means that there is an infection or inflammation present and the bone marrow is producing more WBCs and releasing them into the blood before they are fully mature.

48
Q

Which description is true of thymic epithelial reticular cells?

A

Components of the blood–thymus barrier

endodermal cells of the third pharyngeal pouch.

49
Q

Large numbers of which cell type in biopsy from a transplanted heart is a sign of graft rejection?

A

Lymphocytes

50
Q

How do electrical impulses pass from Purkinje fibers to ventricular cardiac muscle fibers?

A

gap junctions

51
Q

Which description is true of megakaryocytes?

A

Network of intracellular membranes

52
Q

Which B lymphocyte–derived cells contain abundant RER and are located in the spleen’s red pulp cords?

A

plasma cells

53
Q

When the oxygen tension in the blood of sickle cell anemia patients decreases, as it does at high altitudes, which of the following changes occurs?

A

Hematocrit values decrease owing to hemolysis

54
Q

Does altitude affect anemia?

A

Indeed, anemia does affect exercise performance at altitude, but there is no evidence that it increases susceptibility to altitude illnesses. … Red blood cell production increases around the third week at altitude and improves oxygen carrying capability of the blood. This response maybe impaired if iron stores are low.

55
Q

Through which structures blood cells cross capillary walls?

A

Intercellular clefts

56
Q

What is the first stage in the lineage in which cells are incapable of further mitosis?

A

Orthochromatophilic erythroblast

57
Q

Which process best accounts for the pale staining of the germinal centers of lymphoid nodules?

A

Blast transformation

58
Q

Which site is a “thymus-dependent” region of a peripheral lymphoid organ?

A

Periarterial lymphatic sheaths of the spleen

59
Q

Which structure would be most heavily labeled by an immunohistochemical method targeting the CD8 surface antigen?

A

Paracortical zone

60
Q

Which description is true of continuous capillaries?

A

Common in brain and muscle

61
Q

Which description is true of lymphatic vessels?

A

Tunica media has longitudinal smooth muscle

62
Q

do lymph vessels have valves?

A

Valves are found in larger lymph vessels and collecting vessels and are absent in the lymphatic capillaries. The valves is to prevent backflow of fluid, so that lymph eventually flows forward instead of falling backwards.

63
Q

Which description is true of the thymic cortex?

A

Site of the blood–thymus barrier

Hassall’s corpuscles (or thymic corpuscles (bodies)) are structures found in the medulla of the human thymus, formed from eosinophilic type VI epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically.

The thymic cortex is heavily filled with developing T-lymphocytes. … These are dividing lymphoblasts in the process of producing clones of smaller mature T-cells. The epithelial cells in the cortex express class I and class II MHC and serve to positively select immature T-cells.

64
Q

Which description is true of erythrocytes?

A

Removed from the circulation by macrophages after 120 days

65
Q

Which hemoglobin predominates in human erythrocytes at birth?

A

HbF

66
Q

Which protein is more likely to inhibit the rapid growth of a malignant tumor?

A

Angiostatin

67
Q

Which structure contains more vasa vasorum in its tunica media?

A

vena cava

68
Q

Which feature is true of the dark-staining central region of human platelets?

A

Contains the platelet granules

69
Q

Sensory nerve fibers enter arteries through the adventitia and extend further. As far as which layer do they penetrate?

A

Tunica intima

70
Q

Which cell type gives rise to both memory and effector cells and is primarily associated with humoral immunity?

A

B lymphocyte

71
Q

hich description is true of blood capillaries?

A

Carry lymphocytes

72
Q

Which of the following entities frequently presents with macrocytic anemia?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) are a group of cancers in which immature blood cells in the bone marrow do not mature, so do not become healthy blood cells. Early on, no symptoms typically are seen. Later, symptoms may include feeling tired, shortness of breath, easy bleeding, or frequent infections.

73
Q

high triponin levels?

A

heart death -necrosis

enzyme found specifically within cardiac myocytes. Release into the blood is associated with disruption of such cell membranes, a finding associated with cell death (i.e., necrosis)

74
Q

A 69-year-old obese woman with hypertension and hyperlipidemia suffered a large transmural acute anterior wall myocardial infarct that resulted several days later in papillary muscle rupture and an incompetent mitral valve.

Which major coronary artery was occluded?

A

Left anterior descending coronary artery

75
Q

The histological features most strongly related to prognosis in melanoma include:

Tumor thickness, mitotic rate, presence/absence of ulceration

A

The strongest prognostic indicator is tumor thickness (depth of invasion as measured from the top of the granular layer). Both mitotic rate and presence/absence of ulceration are prognostic factors, however, currently only presence/absence of ulceration is included in the most recent (2018) American Joint Committee on Cancer tumor staging parameters.

76
Q

n general, which of the below type of skin cancer has the worst prognosis (potential for mortality)?

A

Merkel cell carcinoma

77
Q

Which of the following descriptive terms would always raise clinical concern in a biopsy report?

A

Dysplasia is an abnormal change in the pattern of growth of cells in tissue. It is often considered as a precursor to neoplasia. All the other descriptors may be normative elements to physiological stress or may be indicators of pathogenesis

78
Q

A cook suffers a minor burn from hot oil and notes the immediate production of pain at the site. The most likely mediator (responsible for the pain) is which of the following?

bradyKININ

A

Kinins (and in particular bradykinin) are the chemical mediators of acute inflammation most directly associated with nociception (pain). Other mediators (prostaglandins) may also have a direct role.

79
Q

Which mechanism is involved in most suicidal hangings?

Asphyxia, the deprivation of oxygen to the body can result from the following mechanisms:

Choose?

A
Compromise of breathing

B
Compromise of circulation

A

The constricting ligature around the neck obstructs the carotid arteries depriving the brain from oxygen.

80
Q

A pathologist examines a specimen of cardiac tissues and describes it as demonstrating necrosis. This is most clearly demonstrated by

A

lack of nucleus

81
Q

Hairy cell leukemia? splenomegaly

A

hairy cell leukemia is often characterized by splenomegaly at diagnosis. Hairy cell leukemia expands the splenic red pulp and may also be seen in association with splenic “blood lakes.” Splenic marginal zone lymphoma is another lymphoma associated with splenomegaly.

82
Q

Some renal diseases are associated with the deposition of antibody antigen complexes within the renal glomerulus. Individuals with this condition often have low levels of complement in their circulation. The most reasonable explanation for this finding is which of the following?

Such individuals activate complement via the classical pathway.

A

The classical pathway of C′ activation is most often triggered by immune complexes. (A) likely does occur, but the initial activation is via (B). In fact individuals as in (D) often have immune complexes in their kidney (and low C′), but such is uncommon. (E) could occur with extreme glomerular injury, but such is not described in the question (and is far from the most likely choice).

83
Q

Functionally, the most important macromolecules in the lung are:

A

Mucin, elastin, and surfactant

Mucin is critical to the muco-ciliary movement of dust and debris out of the lung.

Elastin is critical to the lung’s elasticity, which reduces the work of breathing.

Surfactant allows alveolar inflation by reducing the surface tension of water in the alveoli.

84
Q

A 69-year-old obese woman with hypertension and hyperlipidemia suffered a large transmural acute anterior wall myocardial infarct that resulted several days later in papillary muscle rupture and an incompetent mitral valve.

What is the event that most likely caused the myocardial infarction?

A
Foam cell apoptosis

B
Plaque rupture

C
Arteriosclerosis

D
Deep venous thromboembolus

A

Arteriosclerosis is a general term used to describe a hardened artery with a thickened wall lacking elastic properties. It is caused by calcification (Monckeberg medial calcification), hypertension (arteriolosclerosis) or atherosclerosis. Myocardial infarction is due to atherosclerotic coronary artery disease and the development of atherosclerotic plaque that thickens the arterial wall and causes stenosis of the arterial lumen. Foam cell formation and apoptosis is part of early plaque development, however infarction is most often the result of advanced (vulnerable) plaque erosion or rupture leading to the formation of a mural thrombus that occludes the remaining residual arterial lumen, blocking blood flow to the downstream myocardial tissue. Deep venous thromboembolus was not directly discussed in this chapter. In this process, blood stasis, endothelial activation, and blood hypercoagulability lead to mural thrombus formation in a vein (often a deep vein of the extremities). A piece of the mural thrombus can break free and embolize to the right heart, pulmonary trunk, or pulmonary arteries, blocking blood flow to the lungs and potentially causing sudden death.