histology - block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

3 kinds of arteries

A

elastic - conducting veseels - aorta - main branches

muscular - main distribution

arterioles - terminal branches

as vessels decrease in size, elastic decreases and smooth muscle has more prominence

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2
Q

3 layers of wall

A

tunica intima, media, adventintia

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3
Q

tunica intima?

A
  1. endothelium and basal lamina
  2. subendothelium (very think loose CT - may have smooth muscle fibers

collagen and smooth longitudinally

  1. internal elastic membrane (optional
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4
Q

tunica media?

A
  1. concentric layers of helically arranged smooth muscle
  2. between muscle fibers - elastic and lamellae, collagen and proteoglycans - SYNTHESIZED by smooth muscle
  3. thin external elastic lamina - - found in larger arteries
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5
Q

tunica adventitia?

A

Loost CT - longitudinall collagenous and elastic fibers -

collagen type 1 merges w/ surrounding tissue

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6
Q

VASO VASORUM,

A

small vessels in adventitia and outer media of larger vessle -

nourish to thick layers - more frequent in veins

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7
Q

innervation?

A

sympathetic - unmylienated - norephinephrine - vasoconstriction

arteries in skeletal also receive cholingergic nerve supply

smooth muscle relax (vasodilate when sympathetic stim decreases or when NO, K+, N+, or lactic acid are present

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8
Q

What can cause vasodilation?

A

smooth muscle relax (vasodilate) when sympathetic stim decreases or when NO, K+, N+, or lactic acid are present

Para? arteries in skeletal also receive cholingergic nerve supply

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9
Q

elastic arteries - tunica intima layer?

A

look yellow in sample,

wall is thinner for size of vessel

  1. tunica intima thicker

endothel - simple squamous - microvilli, pinocytotic vesicles, RER, microfilaments, Intercellular junctions, Lysosomed

ROD like inclusions - WEIBEL palade bodies - contain factor VIII antigen (von-Willebrand factor), interleukin 0, P selectin, adn endothelin

  1. Thick subendothelium - collagen and elastic with some smooth muscle
  2. indistinct internal elastic lamina - (hidden by elastic laminae)
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10
Q

elastic arteries - tunica media

A

> 40 layers of concentric smooth muscle fibers - THICK

elastic laminae secreted by smooth muscle - number and thickness INCREASE with AGE and HYPERtension

collagen fibers and proteoglycans, mainly chondrolitin sulfate - between layers

NO distrinct external elast

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11
Q

elastic arteries - tunica adventitia?

A

smaller than media in thickness

Loose CT, fibroblasta dn collagen bundles longitudinally - some elastic

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12
Q

Can elastic arteries actually propel the blood?

A

Yes - the store mechanical energy for short time - smooth muscles with high elastic wall stretch

elastin recoils and propels blood when ventricles relax

blood is ejected from heart into elastic arteries, walls strech - accommodating surge - by stretch the elastic sheet and fibers store energy - and function as pressure reservoir.

elastin recoils - stored energy is used to propels blood -

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13
Q

Muscular arteries?

A

distributing arteries - medium sized -

TUNICA INTIMA

endo + basal

subendo (delicate elastic and collagen fibers, few fibroblasts, some smooth muscle)

internal elastic lamina prominent - thick fenestrated band - junctions with smooth muscle cells of mediat

TUNICA MEDIA

4 - 40 layers of circular smooth - they regulated diameter of lumen and at injury site may close to reduce hemorrhage

elastic and reticular fibers

EXTERNAL elastic lamina - with nerve axons and elastin

TUNICA ADVENTITIA -

loose CT, fibrobalasts, elastic fibers, collagen - longitudinally - lympathtics, vasa vaorum, nerve and adipose
merges with surrounding CT

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14
Q

what happens when an artery is injured?

VASCULAR SPASM

A

small artery can close - smooth muscle contracts in a vascular spasm - shutting down blood flow

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15
Q

arterioles?

A

principle blood flow regulator -

tunica intima -

endo on thin basal lamina

very thin subendothelial CT -
Internal elastic thin and fenestrated - absent from terminal arterioles

TUNICA MEDIA

1 - 5 layers of smooth muscle with some elastic - no definite external elastic layer

TUNICA ADVENTITIA - thinner than media - loos, longitudianlly oriented collagen and elastic fibers

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16
Q

Carotid bodies? where are they?

A

near bifucation of common carotid

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17
Q

What do carotid bodies do?

A

chemoreceptor sensitive to low oxygen tension high carbon dioxide , and low PH of arterial blood

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18
Q

what are carotid bodies made of? SENSORY organs of arteries

A

glomuc cells - type 1, and sheath cells or sustentacular Typpe OO cells with rich vascular supply - capillaries fenestrated - many nerves throughout.

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19
Q

What are aortic and jugular glomeruli?

A

similar in structure to carotid bodies ??

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20
Q

Carotid body? and cartodi sinus?

A

catotid body - at bifucation, chemoreceptor for Oxy level -

visceral sensory - glossopharyngeal - CN IX, some via vagus CN X

cartoid sinus

prosimal internal carotid

barorecpetor -

same nerves as above

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21
Q

carotid sinus

stim by STRETCH

A

appears as dilation of lower end of internal cartodi - baroreceptor

tunica media thinner, adventitia thicker - w/ larger no. of senosry nerve ending with glossopharyngeal nerve - stimulated by STRETCH

reaccts to change in blood pressure - and inittiated reflexes tha modigy pressure

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22
Q

age changes in artieres?

A

tunica intima -

more connective tissue fiber and proteoglycans - become thicker

smooth muscle appear and synthesize collagen and elastic fibers -

vessels become MORE RIGID

ELASTIC arteries - lay down more elasti lamellae

MUSCULAR - increase in muscle w/0 elastic fibers - advanced age - loss of elastic tissue mades vessels elongate and become tortuous

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23
Q

clinical disorders?

aneurysm?

TYPE IV Ehler’s Danlos

translucent skin with highly visible subcutaneous vessels on the trunk and lower back, easy bruising, and severe arterial

Marfans

The most dangerous complications of Marfan syndrome involve the heart and blood vessels. Faulty connective tissue can weaken the aorta — the large artery that arises from the heart and supplies blood to the body. Aortic aneurysm.

the fibers that support and anchor your organs and other structures in your body. Marfan syndrome most commonly affects the heart, eyes, blood vessels and skeleton

A

media weakened by embryonic defect, deisea or lesion - wall of artery dilates and may rupture

TYPE IV Ehler’s Danlos

Marfans (autosomal dominant - asso w/ aortic dissecting

Aortic dissection (AD) occurs when an injury to the innermost layer of the aorta allows blood to flow between the layers of the aortic wall, forcing the layers apart. In most cases, this is associated with a sudden onset of severe chest or back pain, often described as “tearing” in character.

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24
Q

arteriosclerosi?

A

thickening of walls, loss of elasticity

Atherosclerosis - fibrofatty plagues in intima

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25
Q

Calcification of tunica media

A

calcium deposit in media

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26
Q

arteriolosclerosis?

A

thickening of walls of smaller arteris

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27
Q

formation of atherosclerotic plaque?

When plaque (fatty deposits) clogs your arteries, that’s called atherosclerosis. These deposits are made up of cholesterol, fatty substances, cellular waste products, calcium and fibrin (a clotting material in the blood). As plaque builds up, the wall of the blood vessel thickens.

A

1.increased permeability to LDL cholesterol.

2 endothelial injury increase ROS - which oxidized LDL in tunica intima

3 endothelial cell express cell adhesion molecules CAMS - that intiiate monocyte migration that differentiate in to macrophages

4 Macrophages phagocytize oxidized LDL - become FOAM cells - with spongy appearance loaded with lipid containing vesicles

  1. platelet derived growth factor PDGF and other growth factors stimulate migration of smooth from media to intima
  2. in intima, smooth produce lots of ECM increases thicken of Intime
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28
Q

What are FOAM cells?

A

macrophages or smooth muscle full of lipid material

BLOCKS lumen?

angioplasty - mechanical widening of narrowed/ obstructed arteries

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29
Q

What happens when you eat a cheeseburger?

A

LIPASE from saliva - breaks into free fatty acids, monoglicerides, cholesterol.

Lipase also comes from pancreas - will be used in small intestine fat breakdown

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30
Q

Path past stomach of cheeseburger?

A

small intestines, packaged into big fat globules, Liver releases bile which acts on globules, breaking them into smaller droplets

GOAL - adequate surface area

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31
Q

What acts first on fat? bile salts or pancreatic lipase?

A

Bile salts break down into small droplets - then pancreas lipase

If bile salt step doesn’t happen, trouble - because pancreatic lipase is not as effective

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32
Q

What does pancreatic lipase do to reduced (via bile) fat droplets?

A

MICELLE _ package

This is what can enter enterocyte - releasing free fatty acid, monoglycerides, cholesterol.

didn’t salivary lipase already do this? It couldn’t do it all -

MUCH stronger! so strong - would hurt your mouth

Micelles are essentially small aggregates (4-8 nm in diameter) of mixed lipids and bile acids suspended within the ingesta. As the ingesta is mixed, micelles bump into the brush border of small intestinal enterocytes, and the lipids, including monoglyceride and fatty acids, are taken up into the epithelial cells.

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33
Q

In enterocyte, what do free fatty acid, monogliceride, and cholesterol form?

A

TRIglycerides form CHYLOMICRONS (also fat soluble vitamins)

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34
Q

Where does chylomicron go from small intestine?

A

LYMPH - apo48 (bombs) drops chylomicrons from GI into Lymphatic system

apob48 DROPS these bombs from GI to LYMPH system

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35
Q

once in lymph, where go?

A

blood system -

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36
Q

differences between HDL (good) and LDL (bad)

A

high density vs low.

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37
Q

Why is HDL good?

A

puts more APO proteins on chylomicron - which helps processing - HDLs carry APO proteins around - and drop them off -

Donates - APOC2 and APOE

Now chylo - has THREE APOS on its surface.

apo48, APOC2, and APOE

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38
Q

APOC2? APOE?

A

APOc2 - activates LPL -

LPL hydrolyze - cuts triglicerideas into fatty acids to be absorbed by body

APOc2 - CUTS and CLEAVES

(insulin also activates LPLs) causing weight loss Type 1 diabetes

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39
Q

APOe?

A

super important in pathway -

everything has to be broken down into remnants -

APOE gatekeeper - lets remnants be recycles -

APOE EATS the remnants - recycles,

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40
Q

where does the smaller chylomicron remnant go?

A

to the liver - where it is allowed in.

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41
Q

what secretes VLDL? what does it have inside?

A

liver -

triglycerides and cholesterol inside

with apoB100 on shell.

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42
Q

what does HDL do to VLDL?

A

HDL - good fat -

loads VLDL - giving away APOc2 and APOE

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43
Q

Role of apoc2?

A

activate LDL to hydrolize and convert triglycerideas into fatty acids for absorption.

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44
Q

once apoc2 reacts on vldl?

A

changes to IDL - intermediate density - on its shell is APOE and APOB100

can ENTER liver and there be converted to LDL

What doesn’t enter liver is converted into LDL also (still has APOB100)

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45
Q

peripheral cells and LDL getting in?

A

needs APOB100 - that’s the receptor key

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46
Q

why is LDL bad?

A

because it takes triglycerides and ? and takes them from the liver where they are stored and puts them into peripheral cells - using the APOB100 key to get inside.

which can cause disease

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47
Q

High YIELD - if see APOB100

APO B100 makes you fat - makes you gain 100 pounds.

A

know that this will allow fat, cholesterol, etc LDL entry into peripheral cells. endocytosis

APO B100 makes you fat - makes you gain 100 pounds.

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48
Q

why is HDL the good one?

A

donates APO#, APOC2 - allowing reuptake and cleaver triglycerides into fatty acids for absorption.

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49
Q

where does HDL come from?

A

secreted from liver and small intestine - baby HDL - nascent

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50
Q

What converts nascent HDL to mature HDL?

A

Lcat - activated by APOA1 -

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51
Q

What would happen if no APOA1?

A

this allows creation of HDL - APOA1 -

Activates Awesome fat!

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52
Q

How does body make Vitamin D?

A

skin uses sun and cholesterol.

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53
Q

What parts of body use cholesterol in hormones?

A

testosterone, adrenal glands.

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54
Q

How does liver use cholesterol?

A

Makes bile acids to digest food.

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55
Q

Where do triglycerides come from?

A

food and liver -

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56
Q

Does body need triglycerideas?

A

yes, uses fat as energy. But fat can’t be directly put in blood stream, needs to be packaged. Lipoprotein - then can move through body to cells that need it.

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57
Q

Cholesterol can be packaged differently - and depending upon that?

A

things are better or worse. liver makes VLDL (very low density) which makes LDL - Bad. VLDLs are stuffed with cholesterol and triglycerides

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58
Q

Does VLDL travel through your bloodstream?

A

Yes, and they provide energy to your cells.

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59
Q

What if body makes more VLDL than you need?

A

Stores the extra triglycerides as body fat. When gives up the triglyceride - becomes LDL the LDLs then travel thru blood providing cholesterol to cells that need it.

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60
Q

What does body do if it has more LDLs than it needs?

A

Builds up depositing plaque in blood vessels. If vessel walls are damaged, it is easier for plaque to form. Over time, builds up, narrows vessels. Hence BAD LDLs

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61
Q

Where do LDLs often form plaque?

A

in coronary arteries, carotid (increasing stroke risk bec lack of blood to brain).

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62
Q

What are HDLs?

A

Liver also makes these - GOOD - inside they have less triglyc and cholesterol than LDL.

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63
Q

What good things does HDL do?

A

Helps remove cholesterol from cells and from plaque in vessels.

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64
Q

What does HDL do with cholesterol it picks Up?

A

Takes to liver - which then removes excess cholesterol via bile ?

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65
Q

Cholesterol appropriate levels?

A

Cholesterol <200mg/dL

HDL>60 or higher

LDL < 100

Triglyc > 150

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66
Q

Saturated vs. Unsat fats?

A

Saturated / Trans - raise LDL - (solid at room temp)

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67
Q

Meds to reduce cholesterol?

A

Statins - reduce cholesterol made in liver - effect LDLs mostly

Niacin - reduces LDLs and triglyc and increases HDL made in liver

Bile Acid binding drugs - prevent reuse of bile after being used to help digest food - therefore liver uses up MORE cholesterol lost bile.

Fibrates mainly reduce trigly in blood but also raise HDL levels

Cholesterol absorption inhibitors - reduce cholesterol absorbed in intestines

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68
Q

4 types of lipoproteins?

A

Chylomicron, VLDL, LDL< HDL

HDL has most amount of protein in ratio to lipids

In this order - Lease protein to most

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69
Q

Is cholesterol a protein or a lipid?

A

a combo - lipoprotein

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70
Q

What do chylomicrons do?

A

transport and deliver fat to tissues

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71
Q

how are cholymicrons formed?

A

in small intestine - lipid broken into micelles

Micells in cells then package - with fatty acid, monodlyceroi, adopocytes, and cholesterol in to cholymicrons

Which GO into lymph - and then blood delivering where needed

remnants go to liver - bind on to LDL receptors - brought into liver.

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72
Q

how is cholesterol made? LONG story - but

A

in liver, from gluose, via mitochondria - pyruvate to acetyl-coa using enzyme HMG - coa reductase

STATINS inhibit HMG - so less cholesterol in created

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73
Q

Can body make HDL?

A

it just makes the container - EMPTY _ which goes through body collecting cholesterol.

OR it can make VLDLs - which main job is to transport triglyc and cholesterol to body.

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74
Q

How does VLDL once in blood stream deal w/ lipase?

A

Liberated fatty acids in Lipase - VLDL becomes IDL (intermediate DL) - and fatty acids can be stored as fat or used by tissues for energy.

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75
Q

How are LDLs created? What is its job?

A

IDL converts to LDL - which main job is to transport cholesterol to tissues (it has A LOT of cholesterol)

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76
Q

Why does body need cholesterol?

A

hormones and cell membrane liquidity, one more??

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77
Q

What happens to LDLs once they deliver cholesterol?

A

return to liver, bind to LDL receptors - can recycle in to golgi to make more lipoproteins or be excreted

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78
Q

What does empty HDL do?

A

picks up cholesterol in circulation - full HDL returns to liver binding to scavenger receptors - and takes cholesterol into liver.

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79
Q

Statins? action in hepatocyte

A

inhibits cholesterol formation in liver.

ALSO

gets rid of LDLs and creates HDL.

bad aspects? toxicity

Myology, rhab…

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80
Q

Niacin? action in hepatocyte and in vessles

A

in hepatocyte -

inhibits VLDL secreting into blood

inhibits Lipolisis in the vessels?

decreases LDL (as VLDL not around) 
HDL also increased
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81
Q

What is lypolosis?

A

the breakdown of fats and other lipids by hydrolysis to release fatty acid in the endothelial cells

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82
Q

Bile acid resins?

A

stops bile reabsorption when comes back to the liver.

fat soluble Vitamins also not able to get into liver

creates Gallstones

decreases LDL - because using up other cholesterol.
HDL - slight increase

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83
Q

Cholesterol absorption blockers

A

inhibits reabsorption of cholesterol (as opposed to reabsorption of bile)

decrease LDL
No effect on HDL

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84
Q

Fibrates?

A

work in vessels - decrease lipilosis - uptake of LDL

decrease LDL, huge TAG decresae?, HDL slightly increased.

toxicity - yes. rhabdomyolisis.

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85
Q

What are pericytes?

A

Pericytes (previously known as Rouget cells) are multi-functional mural cells of the microcirculation that wrap around the endothelial cells that line the capillaries and venules throughout the body. … Pericytes help to maintain homeostatic and hemostatic functions in the brain and also sustain the blood–brain barrier.

Pericytes and their stem cell potential in the brain: Pericytes are multi-functional cells located within the basement membrane that surrounds capillaries throughout the body. They can regulate blood flow, are involved in angiogenesis and inflammation, and display stem cell-like properties.

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86
Q

fibroblast

A

A fibroblast is a type of biological cell that synthesizes the extracellular matrix and collagen, produces the structural framework (stroma) for animal tissues, and plays a critical role in wound healing. Fibroblasts are the most common cells of connective tissue in animals.

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87
Q

papillary muscles

A

The papillary muscles are muscles located in the ventricles of the heart. They attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves (also known as the mitral and tricuspid valves) via the chordae tendineae and contract to prevent inversion or prolapse of these valves on systole (or ventricular contraction).

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88
Q

subendocardial layer is not found in what two types of heart structures?

A

papillary muscles and chordae tendineae

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89
Q

diuresis?

A

increased or excessive production of urine

ANF stimulates

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90
Q

natriuresis?

A

excretion of sodium in the urine.

ANF stimulates

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91
Q

What causes Hypervolemia?

A

The most common causes of hypervolemia include: heart failure, specifically of the right ventricle. cirrhosis, often caused by excess alcohol consumption or hepatitis. kidney failure, often caused by diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

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92
Q

when is ANF released?

A

in response to increased pressure across atrial wall - stretch and Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion.

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93
Q

Veins - are veins or arteries more numerous?

A

Veins - and caliber is larger - 70% of blood volume

walls thinner, more supple, less elastic

histologically - are seen as COLLAPSED structures - w/ irregular slit-like lumen unless special effort made

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94
Q

Are veins distensible?

A

Yes, can adapt to volune and pressure variations -

“capacitance” or reservoir vessels.

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95
Q

What does arginine vasopressin do?

A

The antidiuretic hormone in humans and most mammals is arginine vasopressin (AVP). AVP promotes the reabsorption of water from the tubular fluid in the collecting duct, the hydro-osmotic effect, and it does not exert a significant effect on the rate of Na+ reabsorption

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96
Q

Vascular capacitance?

A

refers to degree of active constriction of vessels (mainly veins) which affects return of blood to the heart and thus cardiac output. … Capacitance vessels are considered to be the blood vessels that contain most of the blood and that can readily accommodate changes in the blood volume.

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97
Q

Why veins are called blood reservoirs?

A

In addition to their primary function of returning blood to the heart, veins may be considered blood reservoirs, since systemic veins contain approximately 64 percent of the blood volume at any given time.

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98
Q

Vein structure?

A

tunica intima, media, adventitia - boundaries often indistinct

muscular and elastic tissue not as well developed as in arteries - but CT much more prominent

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99
Q

Classification of veins?

A

venules (post cap and muscular types)

small-med

large

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100
Q

What’s a venule, how formed?

A

When several caps unite - a venule is formed - 15 -20 um cylindrical vessel in diameter

layers of endothelium,

thin longit. retic fibers w/ fibroblasts

pericytes may be present

Similar to capillary - although caliber of vessel is larger

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101
Q

What happens in areas with post - cap venules?

A

imp sites of fluid exchange and leukocyte migration

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102
Q

Where/how are leukocytes collected?

A

in the lymph after exiting the caps of arteries or veins.

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103
Q

How does the lymphatic system work with the respiratory system?

A

The lymph is drained from the lung through two distinct but interconnected sets of lymphatic vessels. … Within the lung and the mediastinum, lymph nodes exert their filtering action on the lymph before it is returned into the blood through the major lymphatic vessels, called bronchomediastinal trunks.

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104
Q

lymph tissue of gut, bronchial walls, lymph nodes and thymus - what are the endothelial cells like?

A

cuboidal, incomplete intercellular junctions - permitting ready passage of lymphocytes to and from blood. Called HEVs - High endothelial venules

High endothelial venules (HEV) are specialized post-capillary venous swellings characterized by plump endothelial cells as opposed to the usual thinner endothelial cells found in regular venules. HEVs enable lymphocytes circulating in the blood to directly enter a lymph node (by crossing through the HEV).

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105
Q

intercellular junctions of post cap venules?

A

more sensitive to inflam agents - promoting leakiness of fluids and defensive cells in inflammatory response - eg histamine, serotinin, other substances known to increase vascular permeability)

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106
Q

muscular venules?

A

> 50 um - smooth muscle appears -

> 200 um - circular muscle forms layer 1 - 3 layers thick - - spaced with CT and elastic

THICK adventitia

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107
Q

small - med sized veins?

A

1 - 9 mm

tunica intima thin - endo cells short and polygonal, irregular shape

subendo - inconspicuous

no distinct internal elastic lamina

TUNICA MEDIA -thinner than in arteries - best developed in lower limbs

ADVENTITIA - thick - thicker than media, made of loose CT with longit. collage bundles and few smooth muscles - arranged in fascicles, longit along vessel.

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108
Q

Large veins

A

> 10 mm,

tunica intima - lining rests on thick subendothelial layer of CT

Media - poorly developed

Adventitia - THICK. 3 Zones -

inner - dense fibroelastic CT - course collage fibers - frequent spiral arrangement

Mid zone - many longit muscle fibers

outer - only course collag and elastic fibers

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109
Q

Large veins

A

> 10 mm,

tunica intima - lining rests on thick subendothelial layer of CT

Media - poorly developed

Adventitia - THICK. 3 Zones -

inner - dense fibroelastic CT - course collage fibers - frequent spiral arrangement

Mid zone - many longit muscle fibers

outer - only course collagenous and elastic fibers

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110
Q

Where are vaso vasorums found?

A

MANY in adventitia - providing nutrients and blood to veins.

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111
Q

Valves of veins?

A

prevent retrograde flow - formed by reduplcation of intima, strenthened by CT and elastic fibers -

covered in endothelium - arrangement differs on both surfaces.

between valve and wall in sinus - wall usually thin

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112
Q

different surfaces on valves?

A

current side - subendothelial CT has rich network of elastic fibers

generally valves lie against wall of vein, but when regurg occurs - valves distend, free margins coming into contact - backflow prevented

since venous wall is dilated on cardiac side of attachment, veins appear knotted when distended

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113
Q

Varicose veins?

A

caused (I think in part - may be sole reason?) by veins dilating and valve free margins can’t reach one another

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114
Q

Arteriovenous anastamosis?

A

some places (skin, etc) blood shunts from anterioles to venules w/o circulating through cap network. “AV SHUNT”

walls of shunt are thick, muscular, and lots of vasomotor nerve fibers

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115
Q

Glomus body? reg body temp

A

AV shunts in nail beds of fingers and toes and auricle of ear - branched and torturous - special organ formed called glomus

A glomus body (or glomus apparatus) is a component of the dermis layer of the skin, involved in body temperature regulation. The glomus body consists of an arteriovenous shunt surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue. Glomus bodies are most numerous in the fingers and toes.

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116
Q

What does constriction of AV shunt in skin cause?

A

lowers blood flow, conserves heat

if CLOSED - heat is lost, if OPEN - conserves heat

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117
Q

what does dilation in AV skin shunt cause?

A

increases heat loss

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118
Q

Can bacteria and tumor cells easily penetrate veins?

A

yes, thin walled - and three tunicas not well defined -

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119
Q

how is a varicose vein defined?

A

when diameter is greater than NORMAL - and is elongated and tortuous.

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120
Q

Where do vericose veins occur?

also in liver cirrhosist, portal vein, hepatic vein (see below)

A

superficial veins of lower limb

esophageal varices

hemorroids

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121
Q

varicose veins? are they ever caused by faulty valves as opposed to dilated veins?

A

Yes - often secondary valvular incompetence

valves also can not change size as veins dilate

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122
Q

What is a thrombosis?

A

formation of a blood clot, known as a thrombus, within a blood vessel. It prevents blood from flowing normally through the circulatory system.

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123
Q

Emboli?

A

Something that travels through the bloodstream, lodges in a blood vessel and blocks it. Examples of emboli are a detached blood clot, a clump of bacteria, and foreign material such as air.

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124
Q

incrased risk for varicose veins?

A

obese, familial, pregnancy

due to increased luminal pressure and weakened vessel wall support

tend to be blue and bulge - tortuous

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125
Q

Additional sites of varicosities?

A

liver cirrhosis,

portal vein obstruction

hepatic vein thrombosis - cause portal vein hypertensions - porto systemic shunting increases blood

butt, gut, caput

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126
Q

What is main cause of portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis

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127
Q

When is a hemorroid thrombosed?

A

External hemorrhoids can become thrombosed (develop blood clots inside) and become very tender. Large blood clots can produce pain with walking, sitting or passage of stool. It is not clear why healthy people suddenly develop clots in external hemorrhoids

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128
Q

What are hemorroids associated w?

A

constipation and pregnancy

can be complicated by bleeding and thrombosis (pain)

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129
Q

When internal elastic membrane genetically fails to be produced, what are the two disorders?

Marfan’s - fibrullin - forms ELASTIC fibers

Ehler -Danlos Syndrome - lack of collagen type V
ZEBRA - 5 Zebras - (collagen type 5 - make 1 and 2)

A

Marfan’s - fibrullin

essential for the formation of elastic fibers found in connective tissue. Fibrillin is secreted into the extracellular matrix by fibroblasts and becomes incorporated into the insoluble microfibrils, which appear to provide a scaffold for deposition of elastin.
Ehler -Danlos Syndrome - lack of collagen type V

Classical Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS) is characterized by skin hyperelasticity, joint hypermobility, increased tendency to bruise, and abnormal scarring. Mutations in type V collagen, a regulator of type I collagen fibrillogenesis, have been shown to underlie this type of EDS

The EDS community adopted the zebra as its mascot because “sometimes when you hear hoofbeats, it really is a zebra.”

Skin. Soft velvety-like skin; variable skin hyper-extensibility; fragile skin that tears or bruises easily (bruising may be severe); severe scarring; slow and poor wound healing; development of molluscoid pseudo tumors (fleshy lesions associated with scars over pressure areas).

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130
Q

Tunica media is under what nerve control?

A

sympathetic - “vasomotor tone” - one method of controls our blood pressure -

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131
Q

Does collagen contain elastin?

A

Elastin is also a protein found in connective tissues—but a different type of protein than collagen. It has the actual property of being elastic. It’s responsible for allowing tissues in the body to “snap back” to their original shape after being stretched or contracted.

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132
Q

Fibrillin?

A

is a glycoprotein, which is essential for the formation of elastic fibers found in connective tissue. Fibrillin is secreted into the extracellular matrix by fibroblasts and becomes incorporated into the insoluble microfibrils, which appear to provide a scaffold for deposition of elastin.

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133
Q

Type of connective tissue in tunica adventitia?

tertiary syphilis destroys VV (vaso vasorum)- VV/VD

A

Dense irregular CT - with vaso vasorom - also supplies some of tunica media

tertiary syphilis - destroys these v vasorom - destroys blood vessels - which means adventitia dies, and blood vessel wall weakens leading to dissections and aneurysms

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134
Q

main differences between arteries and veins?

A

tunica media - much thicker in arteries

adventitia THICK in veins

Lumen - collapsed - veins when see on slide

internal elatisic lamina - much more prominent in arteries

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135
Q

3 types of capillaries - sinusoidal:

A

sinusoidal - liver, spleen, bone marrow -

huge clefts in endothelial cells (intercellular clefts) RBC, plasma, albumin can leak out - in both layers - epithelial and basal lamina

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136
Q

continuous capillaries? LEAST permiable

A

SKIN, Muscles, BBB, lungs

small clefts (exception is BBB where have tight junctions)

have PERICYTES - believe control endothelial cell growth, constriction, phagocytes, and pericytes - blood

small things can leak out and PINOCYTOSIS - transcytosis

so passage via pinocytosis and passive diffusion

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137
Q

Fenestrated capillaries?

A

medium intercellular clefts, fenestration pores in endothelial cells - no blood cells can leave, but sollutes and plasma can leave

Pinocytosis possible

Kidneys, glands - exocrine (ducts) endocrine (no ducts - ductless)

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138
Q

microcirculation

A

terminal arteirial = feeding into AV shunt

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139
Q

metearteriole, true capillaries (where arch happens),
A metarteriole is a short microvessel in the microcirculation that links arterioles and capillaries. Instead of a continuous tunica media, they have individual smooth muscle cells placed a short distance apart, each forming a precapillary sphincter that encircles the entrance to that capillary bed.

A

vascular shunt - drained by post capillary venule

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140
Q

sphincters in true capillaries?

A

pre-capillary sphincter - sympathetic and chems control - when contracted, blood can’t enter true capillaries

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141
Q

Albumin, what does it have to do with water in blood stream?

A

keeps blood in blood stream.

Albumin, the main protein produced in the liver, has numerous functions in the body, the most important of which is maintaining intravascular colloid osmotic pressure (COP). COP helps fluid stay within the vasculature instead of leaking into tissue.

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142
Q

carotid bodies?

A

near common carotid -

chemoreceptor reads oxygen levels -

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143
Q

hypertension and plaque?

A

People with high blood pressure are more likely to develop coronary artery disease, because high blood pressure puts added force against the artery walls. Over time, this extra pressure can damage the arteries, making them more vulnerable to the narrowing and plaque buildup associated with atherosclerosis.

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144
Q

Renin secretion from kidneys?

Increases BP, increases Angiotensin 2

causing vasoconstriction mechanisms -

A

Increases - BP - juxtaglomera apparatus cells respond to NE - increases angiotensin 2 - increasing BP in number of ways - increasing aldosterone, ADH production, causing vasoconstriction mechanisms -

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145
Q

What causes high blood pressure? various - primary vs secondary

3 main -

hyperactivity
in symp nervous system

hyper activity in renin production

decreases sodium excretion (elder, Afric/Am)

A

hypersensitive nervous system - constricts vasoconstriction in arterioles -

Renin production heightened

SA node increases heart rate - and force of cardiac output

low renin hypertension (elderly and afro americans) Less salt in urine - increase in sodium retention - blood volume increased

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146
Q

Risk factors of people with hypertension?

25 - 55 yo - if outside of age range - probably NOT primary

A
primary - 
diabetic
obese
type A people
sedentary
obstrutive sleep apnea
disorder
vitamin d deficiency
alcohol
smoking
ethnicity
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147
Q

secondary causes of hypertension? 5% - not 25 - 55yo

A

Kidney - disease of renal tissue -

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148
Q

high BP and kidney - kidney has various ways to deal with

Intrinsic MYOGENIC

GFR mechanism (renin + restricting afferent via ca)

vs extrinsic systems

A
  1. VASOCONSTRICTION of afferent

protects kidney - too high flow can damage kidney and system in general

afferent delivery system, when stretched contracts delivery system to lower amount of blood coming in. -

smooth muscles contracting delivery system - sodium into smooth - release calcium, combine calmodulin, light chase kinase - contract

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149
Q

Low BP and kidney w/ afferent supply? not good

A

allow vasodilation - relaxes afferent

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150
Q

If too much salt coming through kidneys?

GFR high? over 120 - too much coming through

A

GFR is high - prox convoluted tubule cells - little hands catching all sodiums - many will make past - more than normal thru loop of henley

Goal of prox convoluted - to not let too much sodium to pass, but if there is SO much sodium, a lot will get by -

so how to stop this?

when sodium chloride gets by

macula densa cells - chemoreceptors - say OH NO too much, lots of sodium and chloride -
Sodium flows in cells, voltage goes up, atp released - leaves cell, converts to ADENOSINE - goes to

mesangial cells - help w/ phagocytosis, etc - adenosine activate g protein - stim SER - creates calcium

Calcium goes to

JUXTAGLOMERUAL cells (connected to mesangial cells via gap junctions) - releases RENIN

Calcium flows to juxta, in juxta there are granules, ca stim RENIN granules to fuse w/ membrane - renin granules released.

AND mesengial cells also connected to smooth muscle around vessels - constricts vessel, restricts blood flow - gfr rate reduced, sodium reduced

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151
Q

GFR levels?

A

kidney level

What is the normal GFR level?
Generally: In adults, the normal GFR number is 90 or higher. Having a GFR between 60 and 89 may be normal for some people, including those over age 60.

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a measure of the function of the kidneys. This test measures the level of creatinine in the blood and uses the result in a formula to calculate a number that reflects how well the kidneys are functioning, called the estimated GFR or eGFR

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152
Q

if GFR low - ?

A

macula densa not cause restriction - they dilate - so more blood flow, more sodium.

Also, Macula densa releases NO and Prosteglanda e too - which relaxes smooth muscle

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153
Q

What does the macula densa do?

A

Macula densa cells in the distal nephron, according to the classic paradigm, are salt sensors that generate paracrine chemical signals in the juxtaglomerular apparatus to control vital kidney functions, including renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin release

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154
Q

Extrinsic mechanism when Low BP?

A

Systolic < 80 - baroreptors in carotids - sympathetic - in carotid and aortic sinus - two nerves - glossophangeal (carotid sinus) and vagus (aortic sinus) nerve -

decreases GFR - odd because would think would want GFR to go up! but no, because symp is trying to save system.

on kidney, alpha 1 adrenergic receptor on smooth - CONTRACT powerfully, constricting urine, telling kidney to stop working - because symp trying to save body organs - not the kidney

need to keep urine inside to maintain systemic blood pressure - stops it from leaving

symp nerve also goes to juxta cells Beta 1 adr. - stimulates ca - stimulates renin release -

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155
Q

Renin - enzyme - liver producing angiotensinogen

A

renin takes amino acids from angiotensinogen -

NEED TO DO THIS.

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156
Q

What is renin?

A

Renin, which is released primarily by the kidneys, stimulates the formation of angiotensin in blood and tissues, which in turn stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Renin is a proteolytic enzyme that is released into the circulation by the kidneys.

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157
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone. Its main role is to regulate salt and water in the body, thus having an effect on blood pressure.

Aldosterone is a hormone produced in the outer section (cortex) of the adrenal glands, which sit above the kidneys.

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158
Q

arteries in the neck, what can they do?

Carotid bodies

A

carotid body - at bifurcation - chemoreceptor - measures O2 levels

carotid sinus - proximal internal carotid artery - baroreceptor sensitive to BLOOD PRESSURE -

Sensitive to low oxygen tension, high carbon dioxide and low pH of arterial blood

glossopharyngeal n (CN IX), vagus CN x

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159
Q

What types of cells are carotid bodies?

A

glomus cells (type 1) and sheath cells or sustentatular Type 2) w/ rich vascular supply - caps fenestrated - lots of nerves

aortic and jugular glomeruli - similar in structure to carotid bodies

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160
Q

What is the carotid sinus?

A

The carotid sinus is a dilation at the base of the internal carotid artery. The nearby carotid body is a fibrous-covered structure that rests posteriorly to the carotid bifurcation. The blood supply to carotid sinus is by the vasa vasorum vessels.

BARORECEPTOR - tunica media thinner - adventitia thicker - lots of nerves - glossopharygeal nerve - stim by stretching -

thus reacting to changes in pressure -

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161
Q

blood - lecture 1

A

x

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162
Q

What are humoral agents/

A

Cellular immunity involves the development of immune cells that are able to recognize, bind, and kill other cells that have previously been infected by foreign infectious agents. THE HUMORAL IMMUNE SYSTEM. The word humoral refers to fluids (Latin - humors) that pass through the body.

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163
Q

blood

A

cells (rbc, wbc, platelets -thrombocytes)

plasma 55%

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164
Q

hematocrit

A

% rbc men 40 50%,
women 35 - 45%

Low crit - anemia or blood loss

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165
Q

buffy coat

A

wbc + platelets

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166
Q

supernatant part of blood (plasma)

A

denoting the liquid lying above a solid residue after crystallization, precipitation, centrifugation, or other process.

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167
Q

plasma contents

Serum and plasma both come from the liquid portion of the blood that remains once the cells are removed, but that’s where the similarities end.

Serum is the liquid that remains after the blood has clotted.

Plasma is the liquid that remains when clotting is prevented with the addition of an anticoagulant PLENTY of PLasma

A
albumin
fibrinogen
immunoglobulins
lipids
hormones
vitamins and salts
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168
Q

anticoagulant

A

heparin or sodium citrate

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169
Q

serum, blood clot

A

protein rich fluid lacking fibrinogen

blood clot - fibrin containing network trapping blood cells

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170
Q

see chart re % of components

Plasma has -

A

water, plasma, hormones, other -

WATER 92%

PLASMA 7%,

albumin 60%, liver transport and osmotic concentration

globulins 38% plasma cells - immunity
alpha -liver - transport
beta - liver - transport
gamma plasma cells - immune

fibrinogen 7% Liver - clotting

HORMONES/enzymes <1%

other 1%

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171
Q

Formed element of blood 37 -54%

A

rbc, wbc <1, platelets <1

RBC 99% - red bone marrow, non specific immunity

WBC<1% -

granular, made in red bone marrow - non-specific immunity function

leukocytes:
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

agranular leukocytes:
lymphocytes, monoctyes

Lymphocytes - bone marrow and lymph tissue - specific immunity

Monocytes red bone marrow - non specific immunity

PLATELETS - Megakaryocytes - red bone marrow - hemostasis

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172
Q

Hemostasis

A

Stop Bleeding - stop blood flow

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173
Q

megakaryocyte

A

“large-nucleus cell”) is a large bone marrow cell with a lobated nucleus responsible for the production of blood thrombocytes (platelets), which are necessary for normal blood clotting.

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174
Q

RBC qualities?

A

no nucleus, nor organelles - only plasma membrane , cytoskeleton, hemoglobin and glycolytic enzymes

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175
Q

How are senescent (OLD) rbcs removed?

A

phagocytosis or hemolysis in spleen

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176
Q

reticulocytes?

A

baby rbcs - complete hemoglobin synthesis and mature 1 -2 days after entering circulation - accoutns for 1-2% of circulating rbcs

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177
Q

what do rbcs transport?

A

oxygen and co2, are confined to circ system

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178
Q

see chart re how rbc is circulated

A

from marrow - destruction to

globin- amino acids, recycled

Heme - bilirubin and iron recycles via trasferrin to liver to marrow

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179
Q

where can old rbcs be broken down?

Liver mainly - using macrophage -

Kupffer cells, also known as stellate macrophages and Kupffer–Browicz cells, are specialized macrophages located in the liver, lining the walls of the sinusoids. They form part of the mononuclear phagocyte system.

A

the liver is the main organ of RBC removal and iron recycling is surprising, as is the fact that the liver relies on a buffer system consisting of bone marrow-derived monocytes that consume damaged red blood cells in the blood and settle in the liver, where they become the transient macrophages capable

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180
Q

Where are old red blood cells broken down?

A

Old or damaged RBCs are removed from the circulation by macrophages in the spleen and liver, and the hemoglobin they contain is broken down into heme and globin. The globin protein may be recycled, or broken down further to its constituent amino acids, which may be recycled or metabolized.

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181
Q

macrophages re rbcs are found where?

A

liver, spleen, red marrow

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182
Q

hemoglobin (Hb) characteristics

A

four subunits - globular protein -

adult HbA - a2b2
2a-globin, 2b-globin

FETAL - HbF - a2y2

Pulls 02 from maternal blood into fetal blood - o2 affinity of hbF is higher - explained by 2,3-BPG

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183
Q

shape of RBC maintained by what “band”?

spectrin, Band 3 proteins

integral and peripheral - arrangement contributes to elastic properties

A

integral member proteins -

glycophorins

band 3 proteins -

PERIPHERAL membrane proteins - inner surface of membrane - lattice network -

spectrin, actin, Band 4.1, adducin, Band 4.8, trpomyosins

Lattice network bound by andyrin - acticing with band 4.2 and band 3

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184
Q

defects in cytoskeleton?

A

elliptocytosis and spherocytosis - common features - anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly

spenectomy is normal cure

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185
Q

elliptocytosis - defective spectrin

A

autosomal dominant disorder - defective spectrin - abnormal binding

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186
Q

spherocytosis - deficient in spectrin or andyrin

A

autosomal dominant - deficiency in spectrin or andyrin

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187
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A

causes decrease in rbc surface - most common defect involves ankyrin

non-deformable cells -
shedding of membrane vesicle

trapped in splenic cords and phagocytosed by macrophages

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188
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies - megaloblastic anemia

Howell-Jolly bodies occur where there is no spleen or an non-functioning spleen, referred to as asplenia. They are usually one of these at most in a red cell, round, dark purple to red in color and often located peripherally on the red blood cell. … It’s also the most common infection in patients with asplenia

A

Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants that are found in the RBCs of patients with reduced or absent splenic function and in patients with megaloblastic anemima

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189
Q

Hyperchromic spherocytes?

A

Hyperchromia means increase in color. The only cells that are truly hyperchromic are spherocytes. Spherocytes are the only cells that contain more hemoglobin than normal in relation to the cell volume. … Cells located in the “too thin” portion of the smear may appear to be hyperchromic; however, this is an artifact

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190
Q

Anisocytosis? - anemia causes

A

(RBCs) that are unequal in size. Normally, a person’s RBCs should all be roughly the same size. Anisocytosis is usually caused by another medical condition called anemia.

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191
Q

clinical features of hereditary spherocytosis?

What causes Hemosiderosis?
Hemosiderin is one of the proteins (along with ferritin) that stores iron in your body’s tissue. Excessive accumulation of hemosiderin in tissues causes hemosiderosis. This condition is different from hemochromatosis, which is an inherited condition that causes you to absorb too much iron from food

A
  1. Hemosiderosis (excessive accumulation of iron deposits)
    The lungs and kidneys are
    often sites of hemosiderosis.
  2. anemia
  3. splenomegaly
  4. jaundice
  5. rbcs show increased osmotic fragility
  6. parvovirus b19 infects and destroy rbcs in marrow triggering recurrent aplastic crisis -

supportive treatments
transfusion or splenectomy (risk infection) - partial option

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192
Q

clinical features of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Splenomegaly with a Mild to Moderate Hemolytic Anemia, Increased Bilirubin and an Increased Risk for Jaundice and Pigment Gallstones Secondary to Chronic Hemolysis, and Increased Risk for Acute Red-cell Aplasia Due to Parvovirus B19 Infection

Laboratory Testing Shows Increased Osmotic Fragility and Normal MCH with Increased MCHC

Treatment Is with Splenectomy

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193
Q

sickle cell? valine at 6th

A

glutamic acid replaced by valine at 6th position

disc rigid, less deformable - severe hemolytic anemia and obstruciton of postcap venules

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194
Q

Thalassemia syndromes/

defective synthesis of alpha or best chains -

A

heritable anemia - defective synthesis of alpha or best chains -

anemia - defined by defective synthesis of hemoglobin molecule and hemolysis

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195
Q

hemolysis

A

the rupture or destruction of red blood cells.

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196
Q

sickle cell anemia - homozygotes vs. heterozygoes?

A

hetero - half of HbA replaced with HbS -

homo - all HbA replaced

Sickle cell trait describes a condition in which a person has one abnormal allele of the hemoglobin beta gene (is heterozygous), but does not display the severe symptoms of sickle cell disease that occur in a person who has two copies of that allele (is homozygous).

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197
Q

sickle cell is it on Beta and Alpha chain?

A

Looks to me like only on beta?

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198
Q

blood smear and sickle cell?

A

anisocytosis (variation size)

poikilocytosis (vary in shape)

Target cells - dense stained center, pale ring, dark encircling band

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199
Q

reversible vs. irreversible sickling?

A

distortion of membrane by each sickling episode - leads to influx of calcium, -> loss of potassium and water -> damages membrane skeleton

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200
Q

Alpha-thalassemia?

impaired production of hemoglobin,

A

a form of thalassemia involving the genes HBA1 and HBA2. Thalassemias are a group of inherited blood conditions which result in the impaired production of hemoglobin, the molecule that carries oxygen in the blood.

results in reduced amount of HbF and HbA - since there is reduced synthesis of aglobin subunits

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201
Q

Beta -thalassemia?

People with beta thalassemia, low levels of hemoglobin lead to a lack of oxygen in many parts of the body.

A

Beta thalassemia is a blood disorder that reduces the production of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the iron-containing protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to cells throughout the body. In people with beta thalassemia, low levels of hemoglobin lead to a lack of oxygen in many parts of the body.

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202
Q

alpha vs beta thalassemia?

A

Alpha thalassemia is caused by reduced or absent synthesis of alpha globin chains, and beta thalassemia is caused by reduced or absent synthesis of beta globin chains.

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203
Q

can someone have both alpha and beta thalassemia?

A

Yes – both alpha and beta thalassemia – Hgb A2 is elevated indicating beta thalassemia. More profound microcytosis than expected and gene mutation (so alpha thalassemia). Normal Hgb because it is a balanced mutation

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204
Q

What are the symptoms of someone with beta thalassemia?

A
tiredness.
shortness of breath.
a fast heartbeat.
pale skin.
yellow skin and eyes (jaundice)
moodiness.
slow growth.
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205
Q

abnormal number - high or low - of rbc?

Polycythemia

A

low number - anemia

high number - often people at high altitude

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206
Q

Polycythemia dangers?

A

blood viscosity increased -

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207
Q

What is Macrocytosis a symptom of?

nutritional deficiency, specifically of folate or vitamin B12.

hereitable- if gut can’t make intrinsic factor

greater than 9UM

A

Usually, macrocytosis is caused by nutritional deficiency, specifically of folate or vitamin B12. This can arise from a hereditary condition called pernicious anemia, in which a protein called intrinsic factor is lacking in your gut. Intrinsic factor helps your body absorb vitamin B12.

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208
Q

different types of anemia?

A

usually asso w lack of rbcs, but can also be rbc normal in number but lacking hemoglobin - hypochromic anemia.

also can be thru blood loss

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209
Q

hypochromic anemia? different types of anemia?

A

lacking enough hemoglobin in rbcs - usually due to iron deficiency OR

accelerated destruction of rbcs

OR

insufficient productino of rbcs

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210
Q

anemia treatments?

A

iron, b12, folate

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211
Q

how does Iron supplement work?

A

increass serum iron - and iron stored in liver and bone -

iron crucial for normal rbc prodcution and forming proteins, such as hemoglobin

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212
Q

b12, folate?

A

crucial for DNA synthesis and generating new rbcs (

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213
Q

erythropoiesis?

A

generating new rbcs definition

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214
Q

megaloblastic anemias -

skips division - abnormally large cells

A

when folic acid dependent or v b12 dependent synthesis is impaired in immature rbcs -

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215
Q

b12 and folate - are they needed for DNA or RNA synthesis?

A

both

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216
Q

inadequate vitamin? how affect mitotic division?

A

skips division - abnormally large cells

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217
Q

erythropoietin? KIDNEYS

A

normally produced in kidneys in response to decrease in blood flow tension - stiumlates erthropoiesis - (rbc prodcution) and increasese hematocrit.

some drugs can stiumlate this

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218
Q

filgratim and pegfilgratrim - ?

A

stim proliferatin, diffentiation and migration and functional activity of neutrophils

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219
Q

sargramostim?

A

stim proliferatin, diffentiation and functional activity of neutrophils, MONOcityes and MACROphages

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220
Q

Leukocytes?

A

two groups -

granuloctyes (specific granules)

agranulocytes (lack specific granules)

BOTH have nonspecific azurophilic granules, which are lysosomes

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221
Q

diapedesis?

A

leukocytes leave bloodstream and enter CT by homing mechanism - where perform functions and most die by apoptosis

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222
Q

numbers of leukocytes, neutrophils, etc?

A

leukocyte - 6000 - 10000

neutrophils 5000 - 60-70%

eosinophils 150

basophils 30

lymphocytes 2400

monocytes 350

platelets 300,000

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223
Q

Reticulocytes? 1% of rbc

A

are immature red blood cells (RBCs). In the process of erythropoiesis (red blood cell formation), reticulocytes develop and mature in the bone marrow and then circulate for about a day in the blood stream before developing into mature red blood cells.

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224
Q

granulocytes? 3 PHILS

A

neutrophils

eosinophils

basophils

NON-dividing, terminal cells - life span of few days - die by apoptosis in CT

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225
Q

agranulocytes - ?

A

moncytes, lymphocytes

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226
Q

Neutrophils?

females Barr Body

A

most common wbc, 60-70 -%

first cells to migrate to the site of the infection to begin killing the invading microbes

nucleus - 2 - 5 lobes linked w/ chromatin fine threads; few organelles but granules - small golgi, few mitochondria

chromatin - hertochromatin at periphery, ehcromatin in center - females Barr Body forms drumstick shaped appendange on lobe

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227
Q

neutrophils - 3 types of granules?

metalloproteinases (help w/ migration - FAST Shiny metal car - through CT

A

specific (secondary), contain enzymes - type IV collagenase, etc - lactoferrin, lysoszyme, etc

azurophilic (primary granules) - less numerous - lysosomes, help to produce bactericidal hypochlorite and chloramines, also acid hydrolases and defensis here -

contain elastase, defenseins and myeoloperoxidase

tertiary - phosphatases and metalloproteinases (help w/ migration through CT

228
Q

leukocyte emigration?

A

rolling, adhesion, transmigration

229
Q

weak vs strong adhesion?

A

selectins - weak,

integrins - strong

230
Q

sequene in extravasation of leukocyte?

A
  1. leukocytes reports to injury site in wall of vessel “margination”
    via endothelial cell activation
  2. rolling
  3. adhesion
  4. transmigration (diapedesis
  5. chemotasix
231
Q

margination and adhesion?

A

adhesion mediated by binding of complementary molecules on surface of neutrophils and endothelium

step 1 - inflammation - increased expression of E-selectin and P selectin

step 2. neutrophils weakly bind to selectins and roll

step 3, neutrophils stimulated by chemokines to express their integrins

step 4 - finding of integrins firmly adheres

232
Q

Adhesion molecules?

integrins LFA< VLA< MAC! on leukocytes bind to Immunglobulins of endothelia - ICAM< VCAM

A

selectins
e, L P

integrins
VLA4, LFA1, Mac!

immunoglobulins
Icam1, intercellular

vcam1, vascular

pecam 1 platelet

Mucin like glycoproteins

233
Q

selectins? WEAK

present at low levels in normal epdothelium

Increase in Number during inflammation after stim by specific mediator - (histamine, thrombin)

A

bind sugars (lectins)

L selectin - bind to mucin like molecule GLY-CAM1

LEUKOCYTES - LLLLL

E and P - vind to SIALYL Lewis X, etc

P selectin - present in platelets

234
Q

do integrins mediate stable binding?

C5a

normally present on leukocyte surface but don’t bind to ligand unless activate by chemical mediator - c5a

A

Yes, and strong adhension
vla4 - beta 1
lfa - beta 2
mac1 - beta 2

integrins interact w/ integrin receptors on endo theli cells that are classified as immunoglobulins ICAM< VCAM

235
Q

Immunoglobulins?

A

FIRM adhesion - binds to integrins on leukocyte cell

ICAM, (intercellular) - LFA1, Mac 1
VCAM (vascular) VLA4

236
Q

Mechanism of modulation of adhesion molecules in inflammation?

A

fastest - redistribution to surface - ie p selectin

  1. synthesis of adhesion molecules - cytokines and TNF induce production of E selectin, icam 1, vcam 1 in endothelial cells
  2. increased binding affinity - chmotactic agents cause conformational change in leukotye integrin lfa1, converted to high affiinity binding state
237
Q

Margination - C5a - chemical mediator

A

Partly mechanical, party chemical - c5a, leukotriene B4, bacterial products

238
Q

rolling ?

stim by THROMBIN and HISTAMINE

A

P and E selectin, sialyl

glycam 1 - L selectin

239
Q

adhesion?

A

vcame - vla integrin

icam - lfa and mac 1

240
Q

transmigration?

A

pecam 1

241
Q

Endothelial activation?

A

inflamed - increase E and P selectin - call for help -

why? because stimulation by histamin and thrombin

242
Q

Rolling?

A

neutrophils weakly bind to selectins - and roll - integrins on surface by not activated

sialy and L selectin on surface

243
Q

leukocyte activation?

A

neutrophils stimulated by chemotactic agents (chemokines and c5a) to express integrins

244
Q

adhesion

A

integrins expressed -bind to ICAM1 on endothelium

adhesion - firm attachment

245
Q

leukocyte transmigration -

neutrophils release type IV collagenase

A

platelet adhesion on leukocyte - tranmigrate pecam 1

neutrophils release type IV collagenase degrading basement membrane

246
Q

do neutrophils move?

A

yes, see video where they respond to chemomessages

247
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiencies?

LAD

Granulomatus disease? neutrophil problem - failure of NADPH (oxygen dependent kill mechanism BEST)

kids lacking NADPH - lots of infections

MYELOPEROXIDASE DEFICIENCY MPO

part of reaction chain seen in nadph- MPO missing - all bacteria survive - lots of infeciton - see in some leukemias , auto recessive

Chediak higashi syndrome - albinism, microtubles compromised - can’t get lysosomes to phagosomes to form phagolysosomes -

A

asso w/
recurrent bacterial infecitons -

LAD type 1 (defective syntheis of beta 2 integrins LFA1 and Mac1 beca mutation on beta chain CD11/18

LAD type 2 (lack of sialyl) mutation fucosyl transferase - required for synthesis of sialylated oligosaccharide

248
Q

Chemotaxis?

C5a is a strong chemoattractant and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes, in activation of phagocytic cells and release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants, all of which may contribute to innate immune functions or tissue ..

A

attraction of cells toward chemical mediator - released in area of inflammation

include bacterial products such as LTB4, c5a, chemokines (IL 3, N formylmethionine

249
Q

ninja nerd -

hypoxia?

A

need rbc production - lack of rbcs and oxygen supply

250
Q

bacteria route

A

bacteria attacks cell - MAST cell releases histamine, etc

251
Q

hypertension? why

A
  1. hyperactive sensitive sympathetic ns - releases NE
  2. kidney - release renin UPS BP can have hyper system, release more renin than normal - producing more

renin increases angiotensin 2, increases BP many ways - releasing aldosterone access

  1. heart - SA node - NE increases - increase cardiac output, and Contractility of muscles
  2. decrease sodium excretion - salt output (sodium retention) increasing blood volume which lowers renin production - afro americans, elderly -
252
Q

age range of hypertension?

A

primary hypertension 25 -55 YO.

253
Q

secondary hypertension?

A

underlying diseases?

Kidney -

damage in various parts of kidney,

vascular system to kidney - stenosis - things build up behind, fibroid issues in vessels

high aldosteron production (increased sodium and water reabsorption - increase blood volune)

elevated cortisol (cushing’s synd) increases NE E receptors sensitivity -

elevated production of NE E in adrenal glands

thyroid - hypo or hyper thyroidism, both can raise BP

coarctation of aorta - (children genetic - aorta narrowing area - at arch- BP high behind

254
Q

low BP - kidney produce renin

A

renin then cleaves things from angiotensinogen , (made in liver) creating AT1 - which goes through blood in lungs meets up with ACE, then creates Angiotensin T2 -

AT2 receptors on smooth muscles of blood vessels - contracts - tunica media constricts - BP goes up

At2 - acts on pituitary - which releases antidiuretic hormone ADH _- which goes to kidney, stimulates water reabsorption - blood volune up, bp up,

AT2 stim zona glomulerosa on adrenal cortex, to release aldosterone- at kidney works on tubules - increases sodium resorption - blood volume up.

Aldosterone also ups potassium in urine - ?

255
Q

to lower BP - 3 ways via renin system

ACE inhibitor and ARB - Angiotensin 2 receptor blocker

A

Ace inhibitor - angiotensin 2 is not produced.

so no vasoconstriction in smooth muscles, no adh from pituitary,
no aldosterone in suprarenals -

potassium can built up now - SIDE AFFECT in ACE blockers.

cough?

256
Q

other drugs to lower BP

A

DIURETICS - decrease blood volume by facilitating NA+ excretion - hence reducing fluid volume

BETA1 BLOCKERS - prevents accumulation of cAMP, thereby reducing muscle contractility

these are antagonists of v1 adrenergic receptors

RENIN inhibitors (aliskiren is first direct renin inhibitor)

CALCIUM CHANNEL Blockers - block calcium in cardiac and smooth muscle entry -

a1 Receptor Blockers - directly relax vascular smooth muscle - unbinds ca2 from calmodulin -

257
Q

afterload?

A

how hard your heart has to work to pump blood through-

amount of pressure your ventricles have to overcome to pump blood into your aorta

258
Q

Preload ?

A

is the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes (muscle cells) prior to contraction. It is related to ventricular filling. Afterload is the force or load against which the heart has to contract to eject the blood.

259
Q

Ace inhibitors “PRIL”

A

helps avoid Heart Failure

Often causes COUGH

260
Q

Angiotensin 2 Receptor Blockers “TANS” Arbs

A

inhibiting Angiotensin 2 every where it binds - just what ACE inhibitors do.

261
Q

Aldosterone antagonists

A

decreasing remodeling of heart, potassium sparing -

inhibits aldosterone production

262
Q

what do baroreceptors do during Heart failure?

A

Tell SNS to up NE/E to raise BP - directs action at heart in two places - tries to increase heart rate

at SA node in heart - goes to beta receptors, NE says pump faster

and b1 receptors on contractile myocardium and pump harder (this is using a lot of oxygen to make this happen)

if rate is too fast, ventricles don’t have enough time to get oxygen it needs to heart - to high demand - need to slow down to be able to savor oxygen

And don’t have enough oxygen - so stressing heart

263
Q

beta blockers - except if decompensated!

can give ACE, ARB w Beta blockers

A

two kinds -

decrease heart rate and decrease contractility

decrease afterload - and also act on kidney and JG cells which triggers renin

264
Q

digoxin class 4 drug (most severe problem)

A

increases contractility - but blocks AV node

265
Q

diuretics - main one is Loop - furosimide

A

two types

loop act on the loop (in kidney) increases urine output - gets rid of fluid in body, lowers BP - lowers volume of blood

266
Q

positive inotropes?

A

increases contractile force of heart - increases ca2 in cells, increases ca2 release from SR, increases actin myosin interaction -

267
Q

beta adrenergic agonists - dobutamine an ddopamine

A

incresae cAMP in cell - increase ca entry into cell

268
Q

phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

increases cAMP - camp phosphorolates calcium channels, increases calcium flow into cells

269
Q

causes of arrhytmias?

A

abnormal automaticity - other areas than SA node generate competing signal

abnormalities in impulse conduction - generally bifurcating but if blocked signal may go retrograde -

270
Q

managing angina?

A

angina - ischemic heart disease caused by poor 02 economics

271
Q

drugs to help angina?

A

reduce heart rate and contractility - reduce afterload and arterial pressure, and reduce preload and cariac filling

Nitrates - induce vasodilation by directin activatin of guanylyl cyclase by nitric oxide and resultant increase in cGMP.

272
Q

drugs to help angina?

A

reduce heart rate and contractility - reduce afterload and arterial pressure, and reduce preload and cariac filling

Nitrates - induce vasodilation by direct activatin of guanylyl cyclase by nitric oxide and resultant increase in cGMP.

273
Q

creation of WBCs - from

A

?

274
Q

six types of WBCs

A

monocyte -
basophil - nucleus s or c shape
eosinophil - nucleus sunglass shape - bilobe nucleus
neutrophil - poly nucleus - lots of lobes - red and blue base in stain

Megiokariocyte - can’t fit through sinusoidal caps in ? - bone marrow or when going into blood stream - HUGE CELL - fractures into PLATELETS

B-lymphocytes -

T lymphocyte - has to go first to THYMUS for finishing

275
Q

Monocytes - permanent residents or free

A

when leave blood - go into tissue - MACROPHAGE - very good at phagocytosis and antigen presenting cell

can move into parts of bodies - MICROGlial - (neural KUPPFER (liver), ALVeolar (lung,
OsteoClasts (bones)

276
Q

basophils - have heparin/ histamine granules

A

can secrete two thing

heparin - natural anticoag

Histamine - regulates INFLAMMATION

277
Q

eosinophil - secretes proteins - two toxic proteins

MAJOR BASIC PROTEIN - TOXIC acid (PINK!)

histaminase

phagasotose antigen/antibody complex in

corticosteriod harm

A

Cat ionic peptide

Major basic protein

KILL parasites (worms)

Allergy and asthma role

enzyme against helminths and is toxic towards bacteria and mammalian cells in vitro. The eosinophil major basic protein also causes the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, and activates neutrophils and alveolar macrophages.ajo

278
Q

neutrophils - most abundant -

basophils - IgE - MAST cell related
histamine, heparin

A

Great phagocytes -Microphages -

respiratory burst

super-oxide - into hydrogen peroxide

free radicals -

damage proteins, cell membranes,

can kill neutrophil

tag others by releasing own stuff NETS

279
Q

platelets

A

plug blood loss

280
Q

b lymphocytes

A

turn into plasmas cells - can secrete antibodies -

281
Q

t lymphocytes - can form three things

A

t helper cells -

help B lymphocytes to turn into plasma cells

cytotoxic T cells - induce apoptosis in infected cells

Memory cells

282
Q

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

Differential WBC Count

A
neutrophils - 50 -70%
Leukocyte 20-30
monocyte 3 -8
eosinophil 2 - 4
basophils o.5 -1 %
283
Q

anemia - low oxygen carrying capacity

A

Low RBC or disfunctional RBC = see that on low hematocrit - >45%

284
Q

iron deficiency anemia?

A
signs
shortness of breath - dyspnea
fatigue
increased workload on heart
tachycardia
dizzyness - sincoped
285
Q

why need iron

A

hemoglobin needs - low amount of heme if not enough iron

286
Q

size of RBC - tiny

A

mean corpuscular volume - if low < 90 phimtoliters - MICROCYTOSIS - really small

287
Q

causes of anemia?

A

blood loss
women - heavy menstration
not enough iron in diet - more common if vegetarian

288
Q

treatment for anemia?

A

iron, transfusion

289
Q

pernicious anemia? b12 - HUGE RBC

A

intrinsic factor - b12 binds (parietal) to instrinsic factor- some people immune system antibodies bind to instrinsic facot - so no space for b12 to bind - so can’t absorb b12

less b12 in blood stream - needed for DNA to mature and condense - so RBC HUGE

MACROCYTIC RBC - can’t deliver as much O2 - too big, may not make enough functional hemoglobin

can get stuck in blood stream -

290
Q

What b12 needed for in RBC?

A

Dna maturation and synthesis and condense in RBC -

291
Q

lack of folic acid in diet?

A

needed for RBC dna to mature also

292
Q

How treat pernicious anemia?

12 PERNicious panthers

A

Intramuscular injections of B12

can happen in autoimmune people or elderly

293
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis?

A

genetic

spectrin,
anchoin (anchors),
band 3 and others

If spectrin or anchorin lacking - can’t hold into correct shape - because SPHERocal

throws off MCV -

hyperchromic - can’t deliver o2 effectively

can get stuck inside of spleen - can block - spleen gets bigger

hemolysis - macrophages break down

294
Q

NADPH- oxygen burst - neutrophils phagocytosing bacteria - need OXYGEN

ROS

A

R5P - NADP+ into NADPH

g6dph - if don’t have enough?

typically -

free radicals - reactive oxygen species ROS

glutathyones catches free radicals - take ROS pieces to block dangerous effect -

if not working right - Hines Bodies - look for these -

KOOMS test -

Hines body decreases flexibility of RBC shape - so less oxygen

295
Q

sickle cell anemia - 6th Amino acid

A

point mutation

missense mutation

normal beta chain - “glut” - converts to VALINE (hydrophobic)

normal RBC - hemoglobin form chain - polymerize -

isn’t always sickle shape -

bad shape happens when NOT bound to O2 - changes shape - can go back and forth - cycling - can cause vasooclusive crisis

can occlude blood vessels - get stuck in blood vessels - can cause swelling

STUCK in spleen - penis (prolonged erection - painful), PRIO ?swelling

296
Q

sickle cell and malaria

A

people with sickle cell anemia - resistance to malaria

297
Q

hemorraghic anemia

A

losing blood - need to give blood - ulcer, injury

298
Q

aplastic anemia?

The most common cause of aplastic anemia is from your immune system attacking the stem cells in your bone marrow. Other factors that can injure bone marrow and affect blood cell production include: Radiation and chemotherapy treatments.

Myeloid tissue

in the bone marrow sense of the word myeloid, is tissue of bone marrow, of bone marrow cell lineage, or resembling bone marrow, and myelogenous tissue is any tissue of, or arising from,

A

destruction of bone marrow - destroying myeloid stem cells

affects RBC, WBC, platelets

65% idiopathic - often drugs cause or virus, radiation, etc

low RBC, anemia
low WBC, leukopenia
low platelets - thrombocytopenia

ALL together low pancytopenia

Increased incidents of INFECTION -
and if losing PLATELETS - bruising, can’t clot as well

bone marrow transplant, antibiotics, etc

299
Q

thalallsemia - genetic - mediteranian

A

two types - problems in chain

alpha missing alpha? alphathalasemia

beta

mean corpuscular volume - MICROcymic anermia - this is one tyep <90

profusing, iron supplements, oxygen, bone stem cell transplant best

need to finish

300
Q

rbc - creation, destruction

A

SPECTRIN - weblike protein

ANKYRIN - anchors

OLDER _ breaks down, wears down

glycoforen
band 3
protein 4.1, 4.2

all of these allow cytoplasmic structure to be flexible

as OLDER - less flex, more rigid

gets stuck in spleen, liver, bone marrow into sinusoidal caps

301
Q

when old RBC - broken down via macrophage - spleen -

A

Globin are AA - recycled

IRON broken down - combine with apoferretin - now we have ferretin - can combine w/ other ferretin - cluster ferretin HEMOCIDERAN

also can be put in blood, bound to ferroportin and used for other things

HEME broken in to bilirubin - toxic in blood stream - need to bind to albumin (liver)

in liver - rips off albumin

glucoronic acid combines with bilirubin - conjugated - water soluble - goes to bile - (major component of bile)

pushed into GI system, bacteria breaks bilirubin into urobilinogen (fecal stircobilinogen) - 10% reabsorbed into blood stream, goes to kidney -“uriobilien” (when peed out) and stircobilen - brown color in feces

if can’t secrete bile - urine not yellow, feces not brown - if gallstone blocking

if bilirubin pushed into blood stream - can see jaundice

302
Q

what plasma protein regulates pressure and flow?

A

albumin - if not working may affect liver (where made) and kidneys

303
Q

how is blood plasma converted to serum?

A

removal of insoluble fibrin clot

304
Q

what make up plasma proteins?

A

albumin 50% (main job maintain plasmic onconic pressure), immunoglobulins, nonimmune globules, clotting factors (Hageman factor) and fibrinogen), enzymes, hormones

305
Q

normal hematocrit level?

A

40%

306
Q

neutrophils have what kind of nucleus? what’s their job?

A

multi lobed when mature, immature horseshoe shaped - their job? PHAGOCYTOSIS

307
Q

average RBC size in microns? 8

Hypersensitivites Mneumonic

A

To remember the 4 categories, trying using the First Aid for the USMLE Step 1 mnemonic “ACID” (To remember that “ACID” is referring specifically to hypersensitivity reactions, consider that your skin would be fairly hypersensitive to someone pouring acid on it.).

The “A” stands for Allergic/Anaphylactic (Type I), the “C” stands for Cell-mediated (Type II), the “I” is for Immune Complex Deposition (Type III), and the “D” stands for ‘Delayed’ (Type IV).

Type I – Allergic. People commonly use the term “allergic” to mean “any sort of undesirable side-effect,” so you have to keep in mind that the true definition of the word means the reaction is IgE-mediated. Examples: Anaphylaxis, asthma, atopy.

Type II – Cell-mediated (Cytotoxic). Examples: Goodpasture’s, Grave’s disease, Myasthenia Gravis.

Type III – Immune complex deposition (Antigen-antibody). Examples: SLE, serum sickness.

Type IV – Delayed: Think of “Dermatitis from contact” examples such as poison ivy exposure and cheap jewelry. Several other Type IV reactions start with “T,” which is convenient, since they happen to be “T”-Cell mediated. (Examples: the TB skin test, and transplant rejection.)

Note that many of these examples all start with the same letter. Therefore, while understanding the mechanism for why each disease fits into its specific category is undeniably important, a second technique for remembering some of these categories is:

AnGST –(as in, you’d probably feel angst about someone pouring acid on your skin.) A is for “anaphylaxis, asthma, atopy”, G for “Goodpasture’s disease, Grave’s disease, and myasthenia Gravis”, S for “Systemic lupus erythematous and serum sickness”, and T for “T-cell mediated diseases like the TB test and transplant rejection”.

308
Q

blood transfusion gone wrong -

A

oligosaccharide problem

309
Q

deficiency anemia - what may RBCs look like?

A

small - microcytoic

310
Q

hyperchormic cell?

A

increased pigmentation

311
Q

poikylocite cells?

A

abnormal RBC shapes

312
Q

autoimmune hemolytic anemia - what would you likely see in serum?

hemolysis is premature elimination of rbcs - antibodies attack cell

A

bilirubin - heme being broken down - bilirubin present

hemolytic anemias - production and release of more RBCs

would also see higher reticulocytosis - last stage - almost mature RBCs

313
Q

pancytopenia?

A

aplastic anemia - bone marrow full of fat, not doing what it should.

disorder of plueripotent stem cells in bone marrow

314
Q

what organs in fetus make blood?

A

bone marrow, liver, spleen - will see hemattopoetic stem cells

315
Q

alveolar lung problem, sputum, streptococcus pneumonia - what is most abundant type of WBCs cells see on smear?

A

neutrophils - hallmark of acute inflammation

316
Q

fever, inflammation in lungs, dies of pneumonia and also has pulmonary absess - what type of creamy pus?

A

purulent exudate - bacterial infections

317
Q

vasodilation of post cap venule - inflammation - what expect to see in slide?

A

margination of segmented neutrophils

318
Q

glycoprotein initially creating weak binding between cell walls and leukocytes - off of endothelial cells?

A

selectin E - e for endothelial - w? sialys?

E selectins are stored in Weibel Palade bodies dormant on endothelial cells until summoned

they tether WBCs that roll along. once stop rolling integrins become involved - leading to transmigration -
chemotoxic summoning
phagocytois with first neutrophils and later
macrophages (monocytes in the blood - macrophage when leave)

others selectin P (platelets)

selectin L - leukocytes

319
Q

When do integrins bind?

A

LATER - after selectins - form firm adhesion -

320
Q

What breaks basal membrane down to allow transmigration?

A

collagenase 4

321
Q

ill for a weak, fatigue, temp, sore throat, cervical lymphodenopathy - what type of WBCs see?

A

lymphoctytes - typical in viruses - usually T cell origin

CBC will likely show? Lymphocytosis - INCREASE in lymphocytes

322
Q

leukopenia? neutropenia?

A

Low levels of these WBCs

323
Q

eisonophilia? go with what ?

A

worms - parasites and allergies - if see these cells - that’s why -

324
Q

neutrophillia?

A

increased neutrophils in circulation

325
Q

ill patient - cured - what types of cells will now go in the lungs and clean up debris after severe infection?

A

Macrophages

326
Q

What cell first reacts to allergen?

A

plasma cell - second time around then you have that crazy secondary response.

327
Q

what do leukocytes secrete?

A

T cells - cytokines or target cells

B cells secrete immunoglobulins (antibodies)

Cytokines (signaling molecules) produced by helper T lymphocytes include interferon y - TGF beta,

328
Q

trilobed nucleus, red granulses, pig roast?

A

eosinophils

329
Q

ROS -

A

A type of unstable molecule that contains oxygen and that easily reacts with other molecules in a cell. A build up of reactive oxygen species in cells may cause damage to DNA, RNA, and proteins, and may cause cell death. Reactive oxygen species are free radicals. Also called oxygen radical.

Reactive oxygen species (ROS) are generated during mitochondrial oxidative metabolism as well as in cellular response to xenobiotics, cytokines, and bacterial invasion. Oxidative stress refers to the imbalance due to excess ROS or oxidants over the capability of the cell to mount an effective antioxidant response.

330
Q

normal reaction of ROS generated by segmented neutrophils during acute inflamation?

A

degradation of pathogens

331
Q

children with chronic granulomatous disease?

A

hereditary deficiency of NADPH oxidase - failure to produce superoxide anion and hydrogen peroside during phagocytosis. recurrent infections bec can’t generate tosix oxygen species required for pathogen degradation.

332
Q

shaking, chills, fever - WBC 1000 (normal 4000 to 11000 - - does he have leukocytosis or leukopenia

A

not enough WBC - leukopenia

333
Q

hematuria?

A

blood in a person’s urine. The two types of hematuria are. gross hematuria—when a person can see the blood in his or her urine. microscopic hematuria—when a person cannot see the blood in his or her urine, yet it is seen under a microscope.

334
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO) KIDNEYS

A

is a hormone produced primarily by the kidneys. It plays a key role in the production of red blood cells (RBCs)

335
Q

increased hematocrit - with tumor in kidney - what tumor derived hormone is responsbile for increased hematocrit?

A

erythropoietin - inhibits apoptosis. increased hematocrit results of bone marrow hyperplasia affecting burst forming and colony forming units of erythroid lineage. relates to stem cell viablity and cell proliferation

336
Q

high altitude - often see people with what?

Erythroid dysplasia is a condition in which immature red blood cells in the bone marrow are abnormal in size and/or number. Erythroid dysplasia may be caused by vitamin deficiency or chemotherapy, or it may be a sign of refractory anemia, which is a myelodysplastic syndrome. Also called erythrodysplasia

A

erythroid hyperplasia - RBC abnormal size or number

Erythroid hyperplasia. results from increased erythropoietin production due to chronic hypoxemia (high altitude stays, chronic lung diseases, cyanotic heart defects) or (rarely) due to erythropoietin-producing tumors (for example renal cell carcinoma)

337
Q

principal iron transporter in serum?

A

transferrin - It TRANSFERS

cerulopasmin carries coppy

ferritin is an intracellular iron storage protein -

338
Q

what do platelets do?

A

initiate thrombosis and hemostasis -

339
Q

do integrins or selectins mediate migration diapedesis of leukocytes?

A

selectins start process, but integrins are needed for diapedesis for the firm binding

340
Q

3 day infection - neutrophils or lymphocytes

A

neutrophils - lymphocytes and monocytes are for chronic inflammation

341
Q

infectious mononucleosis, pain in cold weather in tips of finger - red blood cell climbing due to which plasma proteins

A

immunoglobins caused by serum autoantibodies -

342
Q

cut hand - what mediators of inflammation cleave fibrinogen to yeild insoluble fibrin?

A

Thrombin. Thrombin also activates platelets to amplify coagulation cascade

343
Q

which protease degrades intervascular thrombin in Q above?

A

plasmin TO DO LIPPINCOTT 36 - 46

344
Q

What causes erythropoiesis - RBC creation?

A

Hypoxia - low oxygen level in blood

injury, high altitude, anemia

345
Q

EPO gene in kidney - erythropoietin - HIF - hypoxia inducable factor - loves to bind w/ and synthesize EPO -

A

HIF bound by enzyme that depends on oxygen - keeps HIF from binding with EPO - which tells the world to make more RBCs

so if oxygen low - HIF is free to bind with EPO - and signals to make RBC

346
Q

hemacytoblasts stem cells - divide into two things ?

A

myeloid, lymphoid

347
Q

Myeloid divides into three - ?

A

RBCs, WBCs, Platelets

348
Q

what tells myeloid to turn into RBC instead of WVC or platelet?

A

erythropoietin

349
Q

diff between wbc and antibody?

A

White blood cells include lymphocytes (such as B-cells, T-cells and natural killer cells), and many other types of immune cells. Antibodies help the body to fight microbes or the toxins (poisons) they produce.

350
Q

diff between wbc and leukocyte?

A

White blood cells (WBCs), also called leukocytes or leucocytes, are the cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders. All white blood cells are produced and derived from multipotent cells in the bone marrow known as hematopoietic stem cells.

351
Q

Are lymphocytes and WBC the same?

A

Lymphocytes are a kind of white blood cell (WBC). Lymphocytes are cells of the immune system and help fight infection. Lymphocytes live in lymph nodes, but also in the bloodstream and all over the body

352
Q

two types of lymphocytes?

A

B-cells and T-cells.

Abnormal numbers of lymphocytes in the blood may be temporary or long-term.

Too many lymphocytes in the blood is called lymphocytosis.

Too few lymphocytes in the blood is called lymphopenia.

Lymphocytes may be malignantly transformed into chronic lymphocytic leukemia, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, and certain types of lymphoma.

Lymphocytes originate from stem cells in the bone marrow.

353
Q

where do t lymphocytes mature

A

Thymus

354
Q

What is the function of T and B lymphocytes?

A

T cells (Thymus) are involved in cell-mediated immunity, whereas B cells are primarily responsible for humoral immunity (relating to antiBodies).

The function of T cells and B cells is to recognize specific “non-self” antigens, during a process known as antigen presentation.

355
Q

How are B lymphocytes activated?

A

B-cells are activated by the binding of antigen to receptors on its cell surface which causes the cell to divide and proliferate. Some stimulated B-cells become plasma cells, which secrete antibodies. Others become long-lived MEMORY B-cells which can be stimulated at a later time to differentiate into plasma cells.

356
Q

What is the difference between B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes?

A

B cells produce and secrete antibodies, activating the immune system to destroy the pathogens. The main difference between T cells and B cells is that T cells can only recognize viral antigens outside the infected cells whereas B cells can recognize the surface antigens of bacteria and viruses

357
Q

How do T lymphocytes protect the body?

A

T cells (also called T lymphocytes) are one of the major components of the adaptive immune system. Their roles include directly killing infected host cells, activating other immune cells, producing cytokines and regulating the immune response.

358
Q

RBC maturation?

A

if missing b12 and folic acid - DNA can not mature properly in RBC maturation - grows too big - MACROcidic anemia -

Microcidic anemia - Iron needed for HEME - RBCs too small - didn’t have enough iron while maturing - need iron for hemoglobin syntheisis - if not enough iron, can’t make hemoglobin - can’t make function heme or hemoglobin

359
Q

how are amino acids and carbs and fats used in RBC production?

A

amino acids needed to create Hemoglobin

carbs, fats needed to create Heme

360
Q

proteins in RBC - two most important?

A

spectrin WEB

Ankyrin - ANCHORING spectrin to membrane

allows pliability - AGing - gets rigid, tough - can’t bend

others - glycoflorin, band 3, 4.1, 4.2

361
Q

how are RBCs destroyed in spleen?

A

when shape of RBC not flexibile - (often when older) gets stuck in sinusoidal cap in spleen, liver, bone marrow mostly spleen

  • macrophage eats it - breaks down hemoglobin

Heme - two things -

  1. IRON - bind to apoferretin - forms ferretin - combines with other ferretin - cluster - HEMOCIDERIN

can also go into blood via Feroportin (very Feroimportant), bind w/ transferrin - used somewhere

  1. protoporfin - Bilirubin - (biliverden first)- toxic in blood stream without binding to ALBUMIN in plasma now can circulate in blood - goes to LIVER -

combines w/ glucoronic acid - conjugated - goes to gallbladder in Bile -

then turns into color for urine and feces - if not much color - signifies problem

HEME

Globin 2alpha, 2beta (AMINO acids) - get degraded and recycled to make RBC again

362
Q

hemoglobin make up

A

Each hemoglobin molecule is made up of four heme groups surrounding a globin group, forming a tetrahedral structure. … There are four iron atoms in each molecule of hemoglobin, which accordingly can bind four atoms of oxygen. Globin consists of two linked pairs of polypeptide chains

363
Q

What are the 4 subunits of hemoglobin?

A

Haemoglobin is made up of four polypeptide subunits, two alpha (α) subunits and two beta (β) subunits. Each of the four subunits contains a heme ( contains iron) molecule, where the oxygen itself is bound through a reversible reaction, meaning that a haemoglobin molecule can transport four oxygen molecules at a time.

364
Q

Ferroportin?

A

is the major iron export protein located on the cell surface of enterocytes, macrophages and hepatocytes, the main cells capable of releasing iron into plasma for transport by transferrin.

365
Q

Does kidney or liver create erythropoetin?

A

Kidneys -so if kidney problem where can’t create erythropoetini - usually have anemia

366
Q

Does liver produce erythropoietin?

It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver.

A

Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with the peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver.

367
Q

types of anemia?

A

1 loss of blood -

2 lack of iron - thus not good hemoglobin content

  1. abnormal hemoglobin
368
Q

does blood regulated temperature?

A

Yes and coagulation, and transports humoral agents and cells of immune system

5 -6 liters in body

369
Q

plasma - percentage in blood, what’s made of?

A

albumin, fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, lips, hormones, vitamins

55%

370
Q

buffy coat?

A

leukocytes and platelets - 1%,

in test tube - between RBC and plasma

371
Q

Serum?

A

to produce - must removed fibrinongen -

372
Q

what clots blood?

A

fibrin network

373
Q

what happens to blood w/o anticoagulant

A

CLOTS into pieces

Fibrinogen… A specialized protein or clotting factor found in blood. When a blood vessel is injured, thrombin, another clotting factor, is activated and changes fibrinogen to fibrin.

374
Q

blood thinners

A

There are two main types of blood thinners. Anticoagulants such as heparin or warfarin (also called Coumadin) slow down your body’s process of making clots. Antiplatelet drugs, such as aspirin, prevent blood cells called platelets from clumping together to form a clot. vitamin K

375
Q

anticoagulants ?

A

heparin, sodium citrate

376
Q

Plasma - contains albumin , globulins, and fibrinogen - what do they each do

A

albumin - maintains osmatic concentration -

fibringogen - clots

globulines - 3 types

alpha - transport and osmatic concentration

beta - transport and osmatic concentration

gamma - immunity

377
Q

what’s in blood?

A

plasma

water
hormones
plasma proteins and regul proteins

formed elements
1 RBC -
2 WBC - granular, agranular liukocytes

Granular - made in blood marrow - non specific immunity

neutrophils, eosiniolphils, basophils

Agranular -
lymphocytes, - made in bone marrow and lymph tissue - specific immunity

monocytes - made in bone marrow - nonspecific immunity

3 platelets - megakatyocytes in blood marrow

378
Q

hemolysis?

A

the rupture or destruction of red blood cells.

379
Q

reticulocytes?

A

1 - 2%, 1 -2 days prematuration

380
Q

fe3+?

A

Transferrin is the major iron transport protein (transports iron through blood). Fe3+ is the form of iron that binds to transferrin, so the Fe2+ transported through ferroportin must be oxidized to Fe3+. … Once oxidized, Fe3+ binds to transferrin and is transported to a tissue cell that contains a transferrin receptor.

381
Q

elliptocytosis

A

abnormal binding of spectrin to ankyrin

382
Q

spherocytosis

A

deficienty in spectrin or ankyrin MOST COMMON

383
Q

clinical features of elliptocytosis and spherocytosis?

A

anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly

384
Q

hereditary spherocytosis?

A

inherited - decreases surface membrane

nondeformable - get trapped in splenic cords and phagocytosed

385
Q

What does increased osmotic fragility mean?

A

Osmotic fragility is determined by measuring the degree of hemolysis in hypotonic saline solution. With the unincubated test, red cell osmotic fragility is considered to be increased if hemolysis occurs in a sodium chloride concentration > 0.5%.

386
Q

A Howell–Jolly body ?

A

cytopathological finding of basophilic nuclear remnants (clusters of DNA) in circulating erythrocytes. During maturation in the bone marrow, late erythroblasts normally expel their nuclei; but, in some cases, a small portion of DNA remains.

387
Q

Hemosiderosis?

A

is a term used for excessive accumulation of iron deposits called hemosiderin in the tissues.

388
Q

sphereocytosis clinically?

Parvovirus B19 can cause severe anemia (a condition in which the body doesn’t have enough healthy red blood cells). Some people may also have painful or swollen joints, which is more common in adults.

A
hemosiderosis
anemia
splenomegaly
jaundice (increased bilirubin)
rbc increased osmotic fragility
increased risk of parvovius b19 - infects and destroys RBC triggering recurrent aplastic crisis
389
Q

How do you get human parvovirus b19?

A

Parvovirus B19 spreads through respiratory secretions, such as saliva, sputum, or nasal mucus, when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Parvovirus B19 can also spread through blood or blood products. A pregnant woman who is infected with parvovirus B19 can pass the virus to her baby.

390
Q

sickle cell anemia?

A

glutamic acid changes to valine - point mutation 6th position

391
Q

thalassemia?

A

either alpha or beta defective synthesis - heritable

392
Q

homo vs. heterozygote difference in sickle cell anemia?

A

homo - all HBa replacecd by HbS -

hetero - half

393
Q

how is cell damaged during sickling in sickel cell anemia?

A

each sickling episode - leads to influx of calcium, causing loss of potassium and water, damaging membrane skeleton

394
Q

polycythemia “erythrocytosis” may be inspired by ?

A

anemia - causes making of lots of RBCs -

HIGH ALTITUDE

increases hematocrit - blood viscosity

395
Q

hypochromic anemia?

A

number of RBC good - but each RBC has less hemoglobin than needed

396
Q

Anemic causes?

A

1 - loss of blood

  1. defective RBC production - not enough, or not enough hemoglobin
  2. accelerated RBC destruction
397
Q

megoblastic anemia?

vitamin B-12 deficiency

A

red blood cells that are larger than normal. There also aren’t enough of them. It’s known as vitamin B-12 or folate deficiency anemia, or macrocytic anemia, as well. Megaloblastic anemia is caused when red blood cells aren’t produced properly.

inadequate amount of vitamin, DNA and RNA synthesis is slowed - mitotic division skipped, producing abmonally large cells

398
Q

Treating anemia via hematopoetic stiumulating factor drugs?

A

recombient erythropoietins is the COMMON treatment - signals to make more RBCS

filgastin and pegfilgratim - stim proliferation, differentiation, and migration of neutrophils

sargramostim - stim neutrophils, moncytes and macrophages

399
Q

are wbcs leukocytes?

A

Yes, two types - granular (specific granules), agranular

but BOTH CONTAIN azuorphilic granules

Bactericidal/permeability-inducing protein, also stored in azurophilic granules, acts in concert with the defensins; it potently neutralizes endotoxin and is cytotoxic to Gram-negative bacteria.

400
Q

Where are Azurophilic granules found?

A

During granulocyte differentiation in the bone marrow (BM), neutrophilic leukocyte precursors synthesize large amounts of lysosomal enzymes. These enzymes are sequestered into azurophilic storage granules until used days later for digestion of phagocytized microorganisms after leukocyte emigration to inflamed tissues.

401
Q

What type of leukocyte can re-enter bloodstream?

A

lymphocytes

402
Q

helminthic infections? WORM

A

eisinophils

403
Q

what does aspirin do for blood?

A

Aspirin interferes with your blood’s clotting action. When you bleed, your blood’s clotting cells, called platelets, build up at the site of your wound. The platelets help form a plug that seals the opening in your blood vessel to stop bleeding.

404
Q

predominant lymphocyte in bloodstream? TOOO many!

A

T cells 80% (Thymus)

405
Q

where are platelets stored?

A

1/3 in spleen

406
Q

What signaling molecules call in macrophages?

A

y-interferon

IFN-gamma has long been recognized as a signature proinflammatory cytokine that plays a central role in inflammation and autoimmune disease. There is now emerging evidence indicating that IFN-gamma possesses unexpected properties as a master regulator of immune responses and inflammation.

407
Q

Where are plasma cells found?

A

Bone marrow

408
Q

anaphalxia after eating peanuts - what cell expect to see?

A

mast cells - release histamines, heparin, tryptase, eosinophilic chemotactic factors

409
Q

What’s a granuloma?

What expect to see? Macrophage

A

a small area of inflammation. Granulomas are often found incidentally on an X-ray or other imaging test done for a different reason. Typically, granulomas are noncancerous (benign). Granulomas frequently occur in the lungs, but can occur in other parts of the body and head as well.

410
Q

What do globulins in the plasma of your blood do?

alpha, beta, gamma (immune system - PLASMA CELLS)

Made in liver

A

Globulins are a group of proteins in your blood. They are made in your liver by your immune system. Globulins play an important role in liver function, blood clotting, and fighting infection.

Some globulins are produced in the liver, while others are made by the immune system. Globulins, albumins, and fibrinogen are the major blood proteins

411
Q

What are azurephilic granules and where are they found?

A

Lysosomes - in all leukocytes - granular and agranular

412
Q

Homing mechanism of leukocytes?

C3b

A

chemotaxis (chemoattraction) C3b is potent in opsonization: tagging pathogens, immune complexes (antigen-antibody), and apoptotic cells for phagocytosis.

413
Q

granular leukocytes?

A

neutrophis, eoisinophils, basophils

414
Q

agranular leukocytes?

A

monocytes and leukocytes

415
Q

does a montocyte have specific or nonspecific immunity?

A

nonspecific

416
Q

What summons leukocytes to leave blood stream? DIAPEDESIS

A

histamines

417
Q

Which leukocyte can be produced outside of the bone marrow?

A

Red blood cells, most white blood cells, and platelets are produced in the bone marrow, the soft fatty tissue inside bone cavities. Two types of white blood cells, T and B cells (lymphocytes), are also produced in the lymph nodes and spleen, and T cells are produced and mature in the thymus gland

418
Q

after neutrophils, what are the second most prominent WBCs in blood?

A

Lymphocytes 2400, neutro 6000, platelets 300,000

Least? Basophils

419
Q

Number of types of WBCs?

A

5 - 3 granular, 2 agranular (monocyte, lymphocyte)

420
Q

characteristics of granulocytic WBCs

Do leukocytes undergo mitosis?
White blood cells (leukocytes), unlike red cells, are nucleated and independently motile. Highly differentiated for their specialized functions, they do not undergo cell division (mitosis) in the bloodstream, but some retain the capability of mitosis.

A

non-dividing terminal cells - live few days, die via apoptosis in CT

Once leave blood stream - can’t go back in - DIE there.

421
Q

appearance of nucleus in three types of ganulocytic WBCs?

A

neutrophils - multi lobed, 2 - 5 lobes linked by fine chromatin threads, few organelles
females - drumstick appearance Barr Body

Baso - BI

eosinophil - BI

422
Q

neutrophils - 3 granule types

A
  1. specific - secondary - smallest, most numerous - ENZYMES - and bacterial Agents (lactoferrin, lysoZYME)
  2. azurophilic - (primary) larger LYSOSOMES contains Elastase, Defensins, Myeloperosidate
  3. Tertiary granules - Phosphatases and METALLOPRETEINases - which help MIGRATION through CT.
423
Q

What is osmotic fragility?

A

RBC degradation under stress

424
Q

What causes “margination” of leukocytes to blood vessel wall?

A

blood vessel dilates, blood flow slows down plays a roll - histamines secreted by mast cells send signals - endothelia puts out feelers (selectins) like hooks, and catch them -

425
Q

Is diapedidis only used during inflamation?

A

No, monocytes leave blood stream and turn into macrophages, where they take up residence and fight the fight when needed

426
Q

What is innate immune response vs?

A

The Innate vs. Adaptive Immune Response. The first line of defense against non-self pathogens is the innate, or non-specific, immune response. The innate immune response consists of physical, chemical and cellular defenses against pathogens. … The adaptive immune response is specific to the pathogen presented.

427
Q

Why does leukocyte extravasation occur mainly in post cap venules?

A

blood flow less -

428
Q

What are chemokines?

A

any of a class of cytokines with functions that include attracting white blood cells to sites of infection.

429
Q

When are neutrophils stimulated to expose their integrins, Immunoglobins, mucin like proteins (Icam, V cam)?

A

? after they stop rolling??

430
Q

Types of Adhesion molecules - expressed from Endothelial or Leukocyte?

A

ENDOTHELIAL

Selectins
P-Selectin
E-Selectin
L Selectin

lntegrins
VLA4
LFA1
Mac1

Immunoglobulins
ICAM-1
VCAM-1
Pecam 1

431
Q

W/ Integrins?

A

Integrins (immunoglobulin)
LFA-1 & MAC-1 (ICAM - 1)
VLA-4 (VCAM- 1)

432
Q

Adhesion molecules - all from endothelial? Which from which?

A
Selectins 
(E- Selectin)
(L- Selectin)
(P- Selectin).
Integrins
VLA-4
LFA-1
Mac-1
Immunoglobulins
ICAM-1 : intercellular adhesion molecule-1
VCAM-1: vascular cell adhesion molecule-1.
PECAM-1: platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1
433
Q

Adhesion molecules - all from endothelial? Which from which?

Selectin
Integrins
Immunoglobins
mucinlike glycoproteins

A

Selectins
(E- Selectin) on endothelial
(L- Selectin) - on leukocyte binds to mucin lie - GLY CAM 1 mucin like - slippery
(P- Selectin). - on platelet

Integrins - on LEUKOCYTES interact with Immunoglobins on endothlial
VLA-4
LFA-1
Mac-1

Immunoglobulins
ICAM-1 : intercellular - on endothelial - bind w
VCAM-1: vascular
PECAM-1: platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1

434
Q

E and P selectin - from endothelias - binds w?

A

selected sugars - eg Sialyl - Lewis X on Leucocytes)

435
Q

are selectins present in blood stream generally?

A

Yes, increase during inflammation after stimulus - histamine, thrombus

436
Q

Integrins mediates STABLE FIRM binding

A

VLA4, LFA1, Mac1 - on leukocytes -

normally integrins are present on leukocytes but don’t bind unless activated by C5a

437
Q

What calls forth the integrins to bind?

A

C5a

438
Q

What do integrins interact with?

A

immunoglobulins - mediate FIRM adhesion

439
Q

Are integrins on leukocytes or endothelial?

A

Leukocytes

440
Q

what does Vcam bind to?

VCAM-1 ENDOthelial

A

vla4 Leukocyte

441
Q

What does Icam bind to?

A

the others - LFA and mac

442
Q

What does L selectin on leukocyte bind with on endothelial?

A

Glycam 1/Cd 34

443
Q

Where is P selectin normally found

A

Weibel Palade bodies in endothelial cells

444
Q

The endothelium?

A

is a thin membrane that lines the inside of the heart and blood vessels. Endothelial cells release substances that control vascular relaxation and contraction as well as enzymes that control blood clotting, immune function and platelet (a colorless substance in the blood) adhesion.

445
Q

Where can adhesion molecules be made?

A

for example, Cytokines IL-1 and TNF Induce PRODUCTION of E-selectin, ICAM-1, & VCAM-1 in Endothelial Cells

446
Q

What is increased binding affinity?

A

when Chemotactic Agents Cause a Conformational Change in the Leukocyte Integrin LFA-1, which is Converted to a High-Affinity Binding State

447
Q

Rolling, weak adhension, firm,

A

ROLLING
P- selectin
Sialyl – Lewis X

E-selectin
Sialyl – Lewis X

GlyCam -1/CD-34
L- selectin

ADHESION
VCAM-1
VLA-4

ICAM-1
LFA-1 & MAC-1

TRANSMIGRATION
PECAM-1
PECAM-1

448
Q

Where is Sialyl – Lewis X

found?

A

On leukocytes, along w/ L selectin, VLA4, FLA1, mac 1, PECAM 1

449
Q

Margination is caused by what two forces?

C5a

A

mechanical and chemo

c5a, leukotriene B4, bacterial products

450
Q

What creates FIRM binding

A

Expression by leukocytes of their INTEGRINS due to chemotacic agents - C5A and chemokines

451
Q

What does C5a and chemokines do?

A

cause integrins on neutrophils to express themselves

452
Q

do eosinophils cause asthma

A

Eosinophilic asthma is a form of asthma associated with high levels of a white blood cell called eosinophils. In the United States (U.S.), an estimated 25.7 million people have some form of asthma, and 15 percent of these people have severe asthma that is difficult to control with standard medications.

453
Q

What does type IV collagenase released by Neutrophils due????

A

Breaks down basement membrane!

454
Q

Leukocyte adhesion Deficiency? LAD?

A

asso w/ recurrent bacterial infections

LAD type 1 - defective synthesis of integrins on leukocytes (CD11/CD18)

LAD type 2 - Lack of sialyl lewis on leukocytes (fecosyl transfease reqd for synthesis of sialylated oligosacchardide ))

455
Q

Chemotaxis - factors needed for neutrophils?

A

N-formyl-methionine
Leukotriene LTB4
c5a complementary system
chemokines -IL 8

456
Q

macrophages secrete what once out of blood stream to keep neutrifills homing?

A

TNFL and IL -1 Beta to keep neutriphils homing.

457
Q

Can age of neutriphil be determined by number of lobules?

A

Yes, the more, the older,

immature cells are horseshoe shaped nucleus

458
Q

How long do neutrofils live?

A

1 - 4 days in CT, 6 - 7 hours in blood - DIE in CT.

459
Q

What is leukocyte activation?

Leukocyte Activation. Leukocyte activation is mediated through several signaling pathways that interact to produce changes in the affinity of binding protein on the surface of neutrophils, to mobilize the cytoskeleton for chemotaxis and phagocytosis, and ultimately to trigger a respiratory burst and degranulation

A

A change in the morphology or behavior of a leukocyte resulting from exposure to an activating factor such as a cellular or soluble ligand, leading to the initiation or perpetuation of an inflammatory response.

460
Q

PMN?

A

polymorphonuclear leukocyte - neutrophil -

461
Q

what triggers PMN activation?

A

Increased Integrin Affinity for Leukocyte Recruitment

Cytoskeletal Mobilization for Chemotaxis ; Phagocytosis

Production of Eicosanoids (Arachidonic Acid Derivatives): Prostaglandins and Thromboxanes, Leukotrienes, Lipoxins

Lysosomal Digestion and Degranulation by Phagocytes

Oxidative Burst

Cytokine Secretion by Lymphocytes and Monocytes

462
Q

Chemotaxis - exogenous? endogenous?

A

exogenous
BACTERAIL such as n-formal-methione

endnogenous

Leukotriene B4 (LT-B4)

Complement system products C5a

Alpha Chemokines (IL-8)

463
Q

4 steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. recognition and attachment
  2. engulfment
  3. Killing and degradation
  4. degranulation of phagolysososme
464
Q

Opsonization?

A

to prepare for table -

Opsonization is the molecular mechanism whereby molecules, microbes, or apoptotic cells are chemically modified to have stronger interactions with cell surface receptors on phagocytes and antibodies. This is the mechanism of identifying invading particles (antigens) by the use of specific components called opsonins.

465
Q

Bacterial lipopolysaccharides ?

A

(LPS) are the major outer surface membrane components present in almost all Gram-negative bacteria and act as extremely strong stimulators of innate or natural immunity in diverse eukaryotic species ranging from insects to humans.

466
Q

Alternative Pathway? C3b

A

The alternative pathway of the complement system is an innate component of the immune system’s natural defense against infections. The alternative pathway is one of three complement pathways that opsonize and kill pathogens. The pathway is triggered when the C3b protein directly binds a microbe.

467
Q

Classical pathway? also generating 3Cb

A

Antibody Binding to Bacterial Antigens Can Activate Complement Via the Classical Pathway, also Generating C3b

468
Q

What are the 3 pathways of complement activation?

A

There are three pathways of complement activation: the classical pathway, which is triggered directly by pathogen or indirectly by antibody binding to the pathogen surface; the MB-lectin pathway; and the alternative pathway, which also provides an amplification loop for the other two pathways.

469
Q

Compliment activation? Cleavage of C3m??

A

Activation of Complement by Different Pathways Leads to Cleavage of C3. The Functions of the Complement System are Mediated by (1) Breakdown Products of C3 and Other Complement Proteins, and (2) by the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC).

470
Q

Recognition and Attachement - OPSONINS?

who does this? Is this to the bacteria? Bacteria isn’t doing it itself is it?

A

Whereby molecules, microbes, or apoptotic cells are chemically modified to have a stronger attraction to the cell surface receptors on phagocytes and NK cells. With the antigen coated in opsonins, binding to immune cells is greatly enhanced.

471
Q

Opsonins receptors -

A

Receptors on Leukocytes
Fc portion of IgG
FcR (Fc receptor)

Complements – C3b, C3bi
CR (Complement Receptors) 1,2,3

The function of opsonins is to react with bacteria and make them more susceptible to ingestion by phagocytes. Opsonization of bacteria may occur by three different mechanisms. First, specific antibody alone may act as an opsonin.

Which antibodies are Opsonins?
Opsonization, or enhanced attachment, refers to the antibody molecules IgG and IgE, the complement proteins C3b and C4b, and other opsonins attaching antigens to phagocytes. 2. The Fab portions of the antibody IgG react with epitopes of the antigen

472
Q

Engulfment

A

Triggered by Binding of Opsonized Particle to Phagocytic Receptor
Neutrophil Sends Out Cytoplasmic Processes that Surround the Bacteria
The Bacteria Are Internalized within a Phagosome
The Phagosome Fuses with a Lysosome to Form Phagolysosome.
Release of Lysosomal Contents

473
Q

Phagolysosome

A

s a cytoplasmic body formed by the fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome in a process that occurs during phagocytosis. Formation of phagolysosomes is essential for the intracellular destruction of microorganisms and pathogens.

474
Q

Granulomatous disease - problem with neutrophils? hereditary disfunctions of neutrophils

A

Several -

  1. neutrophils are sluggish - actin not polymerizing normally
  2. GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE failure to produce enough oxygen so killing power reduced NADPH absense - deficient respiratory burst

Children with these diseases - recurrent infections.

475
Q

NADPH?

A

Reactive oxygen species (ROS) are critical components of the antimicrobial repertoire of macrophages, yet the mechanisms by which ROS damage bacteria in the phagosome are unclear. The NADH-dependent phagocytic oxidase produces superoxide, which dismutes to form H2O2.

476
Q

Killing and degradation? Oxygen dependent vs. independent -

A

The final step in Phagocytosis of microbes is killing and degradation
Microbial killing is mediated within phagocytic cells by two mechanisms:
Oxygen dependent and
Oxygen independent mechanisms

477
Q

Oxygen burst mechanism

Oxygen Burst
H2O2-MPO-halide system

A

NADPH -> superoxide -> hydrogen peroxide -> halide -> MPO -> Hypochlorous acid

Following Phagocytosis, there is Rapid Activation of NADPH oxidase, which oxidizes NADPH and, in the process converts oxygen to Superoxide
Superoxide is then converted by spontaneous Dismutation into Hydrogen Peroxide
Myeloperoxidase converts hydrogen peroxide to HYPOCHLOROUS acid in the presence of a halide such as Cl¯
HOCl¯ is a powerful Oxidant and antimicrobial agent

478
Q

oxygen independent killing not as strong - various methods

A

Less Effective than oxygen dependent killing
Mediators in Leukocyte Granules:

Lysozyme: attacks oligosaccharides in cell membrane

Lactoferrin: keeps iron away from bacteria

Major Basic Proteins: deal with parasites … Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils

Bacterial Permeability Increasing Protein (BPI): activate phospholipase and degrade cell membrane phospholipids

Defensins: punch holes in cell membrane

479
Q

CDG Chronic Granulomatous Disease of Childhood (CGD)


A

X linked, recessive disease characterized by absence of NADPH oxidase activity
Marked by Phagocytic cells that ingest but do not kill certain microorganisms

Catalase positive (Staph.aureus): ingested but not killed
Enzyme deficient & cannot produce H2O2
H2O2 not available as a substrate for MPO
MPO-halide system of bacterial killing fails

Catalase negative (Streptococci): ingested and killed
Streptococcus produce sufficient H2O2 to permit MPO-halide system to proceed
480
Q

Granulomatous Disease of Childhood (CGD)
? does it kill Strep? vs. Staph?

A

Strep yes, Staph.aureu no

Staph ingested but not killed

481
Q

Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency?

MOST common inherited defect of phagocytes

LEAD POISONING,

candid albicans

Oral Thrush. Candidiasis that develops in the mouth or throat is called “thrush.” …
Tiredness and Fatigue. …
Recurring Genital or Urinary Tract Infections. …
Digestive Issues. …
Sinus Infections. …
Skin and Nail Fungal Infections. …
Joint Pain.

A

Common 1:2,000
Autosomal Recessive
Absence of MPO in Neutrophils and Monocytes

Susceptible to Infections with Candida albicans, Diabetics Can develop Candidiasis

Acquired MPO Deficiency May be
Seen in Acute Myeloid Leukemia,
Myelodysplastic Syndromes,
and Lead Poisoning

All Bacteria Survive (Catalase +ve and Catalase –ve)

An enzyme in leukocytes (white blood cells) that is linked to inflammation and cardiovascular disease. An elevated blood level of the enzyme predicts the early risk of myocardial infarction (heart attack). Abbreviated MPO.

482
Q

Chediak -Higashi 
Syndrome
?

albinism,
can’t form phagolysosomes

DEFECT - in MICROTUBULE polymerization

Can’t form microtubules!

major components of the cytoskeleton. They are found in all eukaryotic cells, and they are involved in mitosis, cell motility, intracellular transport, and maintenance of cell shape. Microtubules are composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin subunits assembled into linear protofilaments.

A

Autosomal Recessive Disease:
Recurrent Infections, Neutropenia,

Partial Oculocutaneous Albinism, 
Cranial &amp; Peripheral Neuropathy
Giant Inclusion Bodies in Leukocytes: 
Defect in Microtubule Polymerization
Microtubules Are a Components of the Cytoskeleton

Microtubules Help in Vesicular Transport
Impaired Vesicular Transport Prevents the Fusion of Lysosomes with Phagosomes to form Phagolysosomes

483
Q

phagolysosome, ?

A

or endolysosome, is a cytoplasmic body formed by the fusion of a phagosome with a lysosome in a process that occurs during phagocytosis. Formation of phagolysosomes is essential for the intracellular destruction of microorganisms and pathogens.

484
Q

Signs of Chediak -Higashi Syndrome?

A

A 1 ½ Year Old Asian Female that Came to the Hospital with an Infection and High Fever. Her Hair Was of a Gray Color and Her Skin Was Pale and Gray.

Peripheral Smear Shows Neutrophils with Giant Intracytoplasmic Granules

A 3-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician with scraped knees. He had been playing and slipped, scraping his knees on the asphalt. His knees are severely infected, with visible pus. He has a history of bleeding gums and easy bruisability. On physical exam, he is febrile, his retina is noted to be pale, and his hair is very blonde. In fact, some parts of his hair are noted to be silver. He is started on broad-spectrum antibiotics.

485
Q

Eosinophils? BILOBED nucleus

A

large granules

2 - 4 % of leukocytes,

parasites, worms and asthma

486
Q

eosinophils - two types of granules

allergic reactions, parasitic infections, chronic inflamation

A
  1. specific - crystalloid - four major proteins MBP, (accounting for adidophilia of granules)

others containing histaminase etc - cause strong cytotic effect on protozoans, worsm, helminthic parasites,

  1. Zaurophilic - lysosomes - destroys parasites - and hydrolysis of antigen-antibody complexes
487
Q

increase in eosinophils? where found?

A

parasites, allergies - underlying endothelial

GI and bronchi, uterus, vagina - and around worm

488
Q

What do corticosteriods (from adrenal glands do) against esoinophils?

A

decrease them -

Eosinophils phagocytose antigen - antibody complexes

489
Q

What can call in eoisinophils?

A

Interleukin 5 - secreted by Th2 cells -

Allergen reacts with IgE receptors.

490
Q

clotting cascade from Ninja nerds - are platelets normally sleeping?

A

yes - in three ways - preventing it from becoming “thrombatic” - trying to form a clot

From endothelial cells

  1. Secrete nitric oxide, prostocyclin PGI2
  2. heparin sulfate from Antithrombin 3 - which degrades clotting factor, 2, 9, 10
    Imagine holding onto a machete - and cutting them up as they zoom by in the vessels
  3. Thrombomodulin - binds Thrombin “factor 2” - thrombin reaches hand out, brushes Protein c as it goes by - degrades factors 2 and 8 Clotting factors
491
Q

5 mechanisms of clotting cascade

A
  1. vascular spasm
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. coagulation
  4. clot retraction and repair
  5. fibrinolysis
492
Q

Vascular spasm ?

3 types

A

imagine vessels, tissue damages - trying to stop blood from leaking out

  1. Endothelial cells secrete ENDOTHELIN - binds to smooth muscles -> contraction
  2. MYOGENIC mechanism - whenever injury/contact with smooth muscle - it contracts
  3. nociceptores
    Pain neurons - inflammatory chemicals stimulate NOCIOceptors - their reflex causes contraction on to smooth muscle
493
Q

Platelet plugging?

A

Endothelial cells secrete Von WILLDEBROND factor - which blocks crevice - and platelets bind on.

Meanwhile - as endothelial cells are damaged, the three normal sleeping mechanisms of platelets are inhibited.

Platelet has receptor GLYCOPROTEIN 1B that binds w/ von WB factor

Platelets ACTIVATED- start stacking up, and releasing granules - 3 types
ADP, TxA2, Seretonin

ADP and TXA2 attract platelets binding to platelets, once bound - the activated platelets travel to the injury

PLATELET AGGREGATION

494
Q

Do platelets bind with Von WB factor - if so, with what?

A

Yes - GLYCOPROTEIN 1B

495
Q

Do platelets also bind w/ one another? If so, w/ what?

A

Yes, Glycoprotein - G2B/3A on platelets - bind with fibrinogen links platelets together.

496
Q

In addition - what does TXA2 and Serotonin do?

A

Contracts smooth muscles - leading to MORE vasoconstriction - enhancing vascular spasm response

497
Q

Coagulation cascade

A

Aggregated piles of platelets - have negative charge at surface, phosphotitil seren groups -

Clotting protein Factor 12 HAGEMAN’s factor interacts with surface - becomes ACTIVATED

12 - 11 - 9 -8 - 
7 - 3 + calcium
10 TEN X
5 - 
2 (thrombin) PROTHROMBIN becomes activated - 
1 (FIBRIN)

Thrombin acts w/ Fibrinogen -

LINKS into chain links or 7 FiBRIN

Activate 13 + calcium takes fibrin strands and crosslinks them, into a lattice network that settles on top of the platelet pile.

FIBRIN MESH holds platelet plug - and it is also jelly like, so it SLOWS blood flow down - less blood loss.

498
Q

Intrinsic vs Extrinsic pathway of cascade?

A

Extrinsic much faster - 30 seconds - depends on factors in intrinsic pathway

Intrinsic 4 - 6 minutes is independent

??

499
Q

What is released when tissue is damaged?

A

Factor 3 - reacts with Factor 7 - becomes ACTIVE - can do two things -

can activate 9 and converge right on “common pathway” - factor 10

500
Q

trick to remember pathways + Fibrin net - all the factors?

extrinsic factor, involves factor 7 VII

A

Extrinsic, Intrinsic, Fibrin Net

X marks spot in center - on left at top - 12,11,9,8

on right 3, 7

below - 5
2 thrombin
1 fibrin

501
Q

4th step - CLOT RETRACTION and Repair

A
  1. platelets have contractile proteins - grabs endothelial cells closer together - wound healing - brings ruptured edges of blood vessel together
  2. Secrete Platelet derived Growth Factor - PDGF -
    triggers repair in smooth muscles and surrounding tissues - including patch creation
  3. Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor - VEGF - regenerates blood vessel lining
502
Q
  1. Fibrinolysis - don’t want aggregation area blocking vessels - or escaping and wandering thru vessels
A

Endothelial cells have Tissue Plasminogen Activator - TPA

Plasminogen in blood converts to PLASMIN -

and degrades fibrin mesh.

Also releases D DIMER - if see this - know that person had a clot formation

Busts up clot

503
Q

TPA? creates plasma and gets rid of blood clot - what med can do this?

A

Aspirin! and others

504
Q

Heparin?

A

keeps blood thin

505
Q

What is the difference between heparin and warfarin?

A

Heparin works faster than warfarin, so it is usually given in situations where an immediate effect is desired. Often medication is often given in hospitals to prevent growth of a previously detected blood clot. … Usually patients switch to warfarin when long term anticoagulant treatment is recommended.

506
Q

Warfarin?

A

Vitamin K inhibitor - Vit K needed by many clotting factors - so if inhibit, won’t have clotting factors.

507
Q

Aplastic anemia - bone marrow deficiency

A

Aplastic anemia is caused by the inability of the bone marrow to produce blood cells.
Pure red cell aplasia is caused by the inability of the bone marrow to produce only red blood cells.

508
Q

What does yellow bone marrow do?

A

Yellow bone marrow contains mesenchymal stem cells (marrow stromal cells), which produce cartilage, fat and bone. Yellow bone marrow also aids in the storage of fats in cells called adipocytes. This helps maintain the right environment and provides the sustenance that bones need to function.

509
Q

number of days to create to release reticulocyte?

A

7

510
Q

last rbc capable of mitosis?

A

poly, hemoglobin production begins, checkerboard

511
Q

PHSC - cfu-GEMM, cfu - E

A

pro (gorgeous sky blue), baseo, poly, ortho, retic RBC

512
Q

Pyknosis, or karyopyknosis, is the irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis. It is followed by karyorrhexis, or fragmentation of the nucleus.

A

ortho RC are PYKNOTIC re nucleus

513
Q

reticulocytes are also called?

A

polychromatiophilic erythrocyte

514
Q

Reticulocytes - can still Make hemoglobin?

A

Yes. see alot at high altitude or hemorrhages

515
Q

What produces erythorpoetin?

A

KIDNEYS

516
Q

megaloblastic anemia?

A

lack of B12, folic acid

517
Q

pernicious anemia TYPE II hypersensitivity

A

lack of production of instrinsic factor causes

518
Q

hypochromic anemia?

A

menstrual flow, bleeding,

519
Q

two types of anemia -

decreased production

Increased LOSS/ Destruction

A

decreased production (nutrient, stem cell deficiency)

increased loss -
sick cell
thalassemia

520
Q

aplastic - proerythro proble

A

b12 - baso MACROCYTIC _BIG, pancytopenia

iron defic - poly stage MICROCYTIC TINY, pencil cells

521
Q

If bone marrow not function, what else but RBC can’t make?

A

WBC - platelets

522
Q

Congential anemia?

A

hereditary spherocytosis

G6PJ Def (enzyme deficiency)

Hemoglobin disorders
Sickle cell
Thalassemia

523
Q

Shift to the Left? band netrophils (immature neutrophils)

A

bacterial infection

11 days in total for neutrophils to mature - normal circumstances - 5 stages

1 - 2 days in CT, 6 - 8 hours

can also cause by exercise, and NE

524
Q

marginating compartment for neutrophils -
periphery of vessels, adhering to endothelial - not in main bloodstream

STAND BY

A

neutrophils can be stored in red bone marrow for four days, and then go into circulating and marginating compartment

525
Q

up level in neutrophils - is it always bacterial probl?

A

no, can be exercise, or NE

Adrenal gland hormones - ? increases mitotic activity of neutrophil precursors in marrow

526
Q

transitory neutrophilia?

A

medullary storage compartment releases tons of neutrophils - followed by recovery period

527
Q

what stimulates production of neutrophils? GM- CSR glycoprotein

G-CSF is produced by endothelium, macrophages, and a number of other immune cells.

A

producted by endothelial cells, T cells, fibroblasts, monocytes -

stims neutro, eosino, baso, monocytes, dendritic cells

LESS potent that G-CSF

528
Q

how long to grow a basophil?

A

2 weeks - after 7 days no more mitosis,

529
Q

M - CSF - macrophage stimulating factor

A

for monocytes only -

530
Q

myeloid stem cells make how many types of cells?

A

5 - RBC,

granulocytes marcrophage (monocyte, neutrophil)

Eosino

Baso (to mast)

531
Q

how many hours are moncytes in bloodstream?

A

8 hours, then to CT where mature intro macrophage and function for several months

532
Q

how do monocytes look?

Largest cell found in blood

A

indented nucleus - lysosome in cytoplams - increassing in number when become macrophage - largest cell found in blood -

533
Q

in spleen - how many different types of macrophages?

A
4 - 
white pulp
red pulp
marginal zone
metallophillic
534
Q

where do leukemias arise from?

A

abnormal bone marrow creates maligmant clones - occurs in lymphoid tissue and bone marrow

535
Q

hemonectin - binds RBC to stroma in bone marrow

A

RBCs

laminin too

536
Q

plasma proteins

A
complement proteins - 
albumin
gamma globulins
antibodies
alpha, beta globulin
clotting proteins  FIBRINOGEN
537
Q

What does serum lack?

A

fibrinongen and clotting factors

538
Q

where are blood type located on RBC?

A

on surface

Type O - universal donor

Type AB - universal acceptor

539
Q

predominant form of HB?

A

HbA1 - a2b2

540
Q

eiosinophils contain what to kill things?

A

Major basic protein,, cathepsin

541
Q

what do neutrophils create during phagocytosis?

A

hydrogen peroxide - h202

542
Q

Basolphils go with IGE

A

?

543
Q

Costocosteriods? reduce eosinophils

A

reduce inflammatin =reduce

Corticosteroids are a class of drug that lowers inflammation in the body. They also reduce immune system activity. Because corticosteroids ease swelling, itching, redness, and allergic reactions, doctors often prescribe them to help treat diseases like: asthma. arthritis.

544
Q

leukemias will see?

A

anemia - low rbc
infection - low wbc
bleeding - low platelets

pain- bone marrow destruction

545
Q

leukemia classifications

A

acute

two kinds -

Acute myeloid leukemia AML

ALL kids (acute lymphoid leukemia)

chronic

adults myeloid CML

lymphoid CLL (older people)

546
Q

AML develops from what cells?

A

myeloid stem or blast - either

547
Q

CML leukemia?

A

cancer of white blood cells

548
Q

ALL (kids)

A

overprodution of immature WBCs, llymphoblasts - overprodcution and accumulation of cancerous immature WBCs

549
Q

Where is thrombopoeitin made?

“autoregulation” of platelet production?

A

LIVER - stimulated megakayoctye CFU into platelets

platelets bind and DEGRADE thrombopoetin!

550
Q

megakayotice?where hang out?

A

next to bone marrow sinusoids

551
Q

What do target cells indicate?

A

Presence of cells called target cells may be due to: Deficiency of an enzyme called lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase. Abnormal hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen (hemoglobinopathies) Iron deficiency.

thasallamia

a type - lack of a
b type - lack of b

552
Q

platelets - four zones

A

1 periferal,

glycoproteins and coag factors

2 structureal (microtubules) network structure ACTIN filaments - maintain disc shape

  1. organelle zone in cluding three types of granules

alpha gran - inital phase of vessel repair, blood coat, platelet aggregation:
coag, factors (VWF, paslminogen, etc

delta - ADP, ATP, histamine - for ADHESION and VASOCONSTRICTION

lamda - CLOT reabsorption - lysosome-like

4 Membrane zone - two channels -
open canalicular and tube system for storage of calcium

553
Q

Hemophilia - A - factor VIII deficiency and B - IX deficiency -

sex linked recessive

A

both - intrinsic pathway with good VWF levels

missing F8 and F9 gene

f( - Christmas

554
Q

granulomere v hyalomere

A

granulo (inside platelet)

hyoalomere - microtubule system

555
Q

normal cell - platelets are sleeping

prostacyclin inhibits platelets

damaged cells release less prostacyclin

A

prostacyclin and NO inhibit platelet aggregation (prosta via CAMP - decrease intracellular calcium - preventing platelet activation

Damaged cells synthesize LESS prostcylin - so less CAMP is sytheized SO platelets AGREGATE

556
Q

damage to vessel?

A

vessel spasm, platelets bind to underflying collagen of subendothelial surface,

von WB enter - binding with platelets

Thrombin, etc released by platelets - signal other platelets to come

CAMP goes down as calcium goes up,

557
Q

IIb/IIIa receptors bind fibrinogen -

A

causes platelet cross linking - avalanche of platelets binding

558
Q

Thrombin (IIa) formed - PLUG

fibrinongen is changed to fibrin plug created

A

forms platelet-fibrin PLUG

Thrombin also calling in more platelets, cementing

PAIs (plasminogen Activator Inhibitors) limit destruction of clot (fibrinolysis

559
Q

PG12 vs. TxA2

Endothelia injury changes the tables - TXA2 more prominent - vasoconstriction

A

PG12 inhibits platelet aggregation

TxA2 - VASO Constrictor

560
Q

Drug platelet aggregation inhibitors?

A

Aspirin - inhibits COX in platelets

ADI
blcoks ADP receptors

IIb/IIIa inhibitors prevents crosslinking

561
Q

blood coagulation - extrinsic and instrinis

A

Extrinsic - Factor 7 THROMBOPLASTIN

Intrinsic - clot factor XII when blood contacts collagen in damaged wall

562
Q

Thrombin? Generates Fibrin by cleaving Fibrinogen activated factor XIII and other coag factors

A

Thrombin does a lot - platelet aggregation TxA2 secretions -

calls in leukocytes

vasoconstrics, etc

563
Q

heparin - in hibits action of coag factors - OR Wararin?

A

warfarin - interferes with synthesis of coag factors - Vitamin K

OR direct Thombin inhibitor

564
Q

Plasmin?

A

limits growth of clot - dissolving fibrin network

Endothelial cells synthesize plasminogen to plasmin - to degrade thrombi

565
Q

Thrombolitic drugs?

A

first generation - 2nd?

facilitates plasminogen to plasma - UROKINASE in kidneys - yeilds active plasmin

second - Tissue Plasminogen Activators - links up to Plasmin