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Year 1 NSF > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

1
Q

Define histology

A

The study of microscopic structures and tissues

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2
Q

Why is a high resolution needed?

A

To observe and discriminate between cell and tissue components

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3
Q

What are the 6 steps in tissue processing?

A

Fixation, embedding, sectioning, mounting, de-waxing, staining

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4
Q

What is the process of fixation?

A

Preserves and fixes specimens in place with crosslinks using formaldehyde

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5
Q

What is the process of embedding?

A

First dehydrate and remove water with alcohol, then clearing using organic solvent, then replacing with wax (58) or resin (60) for physical support

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6
Q

What is the process to sectioning?

A

Sectioned by a microtome to allow discrimination

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7
Q

What is mounting?

A

Mounting is the process of mounting tissues to a glass slide to be stained and viewed

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8
Q

What is de-waxing?

A

The removal of wax or resin to allow staining using organic solvent, then alcohol and then water

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9
Q

Why is staining needed?

A

to show and distinguish specific features.

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10
Q

What colour are the nucleus and cellular proteins with H and E stain?

A

DNA/RNA- purple/blue. Intra/extracellular proteins- red

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11
Q

What colour does trichrome stain the nuclei, intracellular and extracellular proteins?

A

Nuclei varies, intracellular proteins- red/pink, extracellular proteins- blue/green

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12
Q

What are both ordinary CT and cartilage made from?

A

Cells and extra cellular matrix

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13
Q

What is ordinary CT used for?

A

Binding muscle to bone and binding individual cells, and allows O2 to diffuse through extra cellular matrix and WBCs

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14
Q

What cells in ordinary CT secrete ECM?

A

Fibroblasts

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15
Q

What are mature and dormant fibroblasts called?

A

Fibrocytes

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16
Q

What features does a fibroblast cell have?

A

Prominent nucleus and granular cytoplasm

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17
Q

What is an adipocyte?

A

Fat cell

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18
Q

What are the two types of adipocytes?

A

White or brown

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19
Q

What are the functions of adipocytes?

A

Energy reserves- triglycerides, thermal insulation, shock absorber- spine, hooves, brown fat for rapid heat producer

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20
Q

What causes the pigment of brown fat?

A

The dense mitochondria to rapidly break down the fat and release heat

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21
Q

What type of fibres are in the ECM?

A

Collagen, Reticular, Elastic

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22
Q

What colour do collagen fibres stain with H&E and trichrome?

A

H&E- pink, Trichrome- Blue

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23
Q

Which fibre in ordinary CT is made from abundant proteins assembled into fibres?

A

Collagen- strong and give tensile strength

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24
Q

What doe reticular fibres form in the liver?

A

The internal skeleton

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25
Q

Which fibre in ordinary CT can recoil?

A

Elastic

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26
Q

Which fibre is needed to limit the stretching of elastic fibres?

A

Collagen fibres

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27
Q

What are proteoglycans in the ground substance made from?

A

GAGs or hydrated sugars attached to a protein core

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28
Q

What are the types of loose connective tissue?

A

Areolar, adipose and reticular

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29
Q

What are the types of dense connective tissue?

A

dense regular, dense irregular, elastic

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30
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A

hyaline, fibro and elastic

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31
Q

Why are collagen fibres not usually seen in the ECM?

A

They have the same refractive properties as ground substance and elastic fibres

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32
Q

In cartilage what are the matrix producing cells?

A

Chondroblasts

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33
Q

In cartilage what are chondrocytes found in?

A

In a semi-solid gell in lacunae, as they shrink during fixation

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34
Q

Where are chondroblasts found?

A

On the surface of the cartilage in the perichondrium

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35
Q

What is the main component of cartilage EMC?

A

Hydrated gel

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36
Q

How does cartilage maintain its turgor?

A

Hydrated gel creates the stiffness and collagen fibres prevent over hydration

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37
Q

How do nutrients pass through to cells in cartilage?

A

Nutrients pass through the hydrated gel as the matrix is avascular.

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38
Q

What are the two ways cartilage grows?

A

appositional and interstitial.

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39
Q

What is appositional growth in cartilage?

A

Growing from the surface by laying down cartilage on the surface (perichondrium)

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40
Q

What is interstitial growth in cartilage?

A

Growth from within the matrix

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41
Q

Describe the composition of hyaline cartilage

A

Mainly hydrated gel, some collagen and little elastic fibres giving a smooth glossy appearance

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42
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Articular surfaces, respiratory tract

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43
Q

Describe the composition of fibrocartilage

A

High amounts of collagen giving high tensile strength

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44
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

Intervertebral disks

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45
Q

What is elastic cartilage high in?

A

Elastic fibres

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46
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found?

A

Outer part of the ear (pinna)

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47
Q

What are two example of liquid support tissue?

A

Blood and Lymph

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48
Q

What is the ECM in blood?

A

Plasma

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49
Q

What is the basal lamina formed from?

A

The basal lamina is formed from a thin layer of glycoproteins in the ECM which attach to the collagen and muscle, nerve cells as they bind to the receptors on those cells

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50
Q

Describe the functional anatomy of the adult bone

A

Articular layer of cartilage, periosteum surrounding outside and endoosteum lining inside, proximal and distal epiphysis filled with spongy bone, central medullary cavity filled with yellow bone marrow, surrounded by compact bone

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51
Q

What is the function of red bone marrow in young animals?

A

To produce blood cells

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52
Q

What is the function of an osteoblast?

A

Forms bone matrix

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53
Q

What is the function of an osteocyte?

A

Maintains bone tissue

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54
Q

What does an osteogenic cell develop into?

A

Osteoblast

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55
Q

What does an osteoclast cell do?

A

Functions in reabsorption (decalcification)

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56
Q

How does an osteoclast break up the matrix?

A

Attach to the bone surface, release acid to dissolve inorganic matrix, release enzymes to break up organic matrix

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57
Q

What is a Haversian system?

A

Haversian system or and osteon is 3-5 layers of calcified extracellular matrix filled with osteocytes surrounding an individual blood supply which passed nutrients to osteocytes using channels called Canaliculi

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58
Q

Describe the cartilage model of developing long bones

A

Calcified cartilage in the primary ossification centre is broken down by osteoclasts, towards epiphyses, forming medullary cavity, osteoblasts lay down bone on top, secondary ossification centre forms and where it meets from the growth plate

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59
Q

List the functions of the components of blood

A

RBCs- erythrocytes, transport O2, WBCs- leukocytes destroy microorganisms, Platelets- clot blood, Plasma- carries nutrients/hormones and regulates oncotic pressure

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60
Q

What process forms blood cell components?

A

Haemopoiesis in red bone marrow

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61
Q

How are red blood cells formed?

A

Red blood cells begin blue, produce haemoglobin and removes nucleus to become a reticulocyte and mature

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62
Q

How are platelets produced?

A

Platelets are derrived from fragmentation of a megakaryocytic from its cytoplasmic extensions

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63
Q

How are O2 and CO2 transported?

A

O2 binds and from oxyhemoglobin, CO2 can also bind or form bicarbonate

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64
Q

Describe the appearence of RBCs in different animals

A

Dogs- largest, Goats smallest, Cat/Horses similar, Camels/Alpacas oval

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65
Q

How can you identify a neutrophil?

A

Neutrophils have visible pink granules

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66
Q

How can you identify a lymphocyte?

A

Large nucleus, little cytoplasm

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67
Q

How can you distinguish a monocyte to a lymphocyte?

A

Monocytes are larger and has an irregular c-shaped nucleus

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68
Q

How can you identify a eosinophil?

A

They contain pink/orange granules and have a bilobed nucleus

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69
Q

How can you identify a basophil?

A

Contain lavender granules

70
Q

Which of the WBCs are agranular?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

71
Q

What kind of lymphocyte is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes

72
Q

What are B-lymphocytes responsible for?

A

Humoral immunity

73
Q

Where do both T and B cells stem from?

A

Stem cell differentiation on bone marrow

74
Q

Where does T-cell and B-cell maturation occur?

A

T- Thymus and B- Bone marrow

75
Q

What is the connective tissue and the cellular areas in lymphoid organs called?

A

CT- Stroma, Cellular- Parenchyma

76
Q

What surrounds the thymus?

A

Connective tissue capsule

77
Q

What is contained in the internal framework of epithelial cells in the thymus?

A

Macrophages, immature T-cells and mature T-cells

78
Q

What does the medulla of the thymus contain?

A

Hassall’s Corpuscles- thought to destroy self T-cells?

79
Q

What divides the cortex of the thymus?

A

Septa invaginations divide cortex into lobes

80
Q

Why does the thymus lose its role in adulthood?

A

T-cells are capable of dividing

81
Q

After maturation where to T-cells go?

A

They enter post capillary venules in the medulla and leave the thymus

82
Q

Name a primary and secondary lymphoid organ

A

Primary- thymus, Secondary- Lymph nodes

83
Q

What acts as a filter for lymph?

A

Lymph nodes

84
Q

What surrounds the lymph nodes, the thymus and spleens?

A

A connective tissue capsule

85
Q

What forms the internal structure of lymph nodes?

A

Reticular fibres

86
Q

What do reticular fibres provide a framework for?

A

To support B-cell and T-cells

87
Q

How does the lymph reach the lymph nodes?

A

Via many afferent lymphatic vessels

88
Q

After entering the lymph node what route does lymph take?

A

Starting through the tissue, into sinuses beneath the capsule then into sinuses located around trabeculae (extensions of the capsule)

89
Q

How is lymph drained out of lymph nodes?

A

Efferent lymphatic vessels

90
Q

Where are nodules in lymph nodes located?

A

The cortex

91
Q

What do nodules contain in lymph nodes?

A

Densely packed lymphocytes

92
Q

How are lymphocytes in the inner medulla arranged in lymph nodes?

A

Arranged in strands called medullary cords separated by medullary sinuses

93
Q

Where do B-cell and T-cells congregate in the lymph node?

A

B-cells- Cortex, T-cells- junction of cortex and medulla( paracortical zone)

94
Q

What happens when a B-cell becomes activated?

A

Becomes large and pale, with pale nuclei before dividing to produce plasma and memory cells, in germinal centres, plasma cells leave node

95
Q

What happens when a T-cell becomes activated?

A

Divide in the paracortical zone, without germinal centres, daughter cells leave node

96
Q

Why do lymph nodes become swollen?

A

Sinuses are filled with newly formed lymphocytes

97
Q

What does the spleen filter?

A

The blood

98
Q

What internal framework does a spleen have?

A

Reticular fibres

99
Q

How is the internal structure separated?

A

Red and White pulp

100
Q

How does blood enter the spleen?

A

Trabecular arteries

101
Q

What extends into the spleen to give support?

A

Trabeculae

102
Q

How is red pulp formed?

A

Once blood enters the spleen branches of very permeable capillaries cause all of the blood to leave

103
Q

What are RBCs trapped by in the spleen?

A

Trabeculae

104
Q

What happens to the plasma after filtration in the spleen?

A

Plasma flows into the venous sinuses and returned to circulation

105
Q

What can red pulp be used for?

A

It can be squeezed into circulation after sudden blood loss

106
Q

What are PALs?

A

Periarterial lymphatic sheaths which surround the arteries entering the spleen

107
Q

What arteries do PALS surround?

A

Central arteries

108
Q

What happens to PALs when blood-borne antigens enter the spleen?

A

Stimulates B-cells to from pale germinal centres, pushing the arteries to one side and T-cells form darker marginal zones around the germinal centres

109
Q

What do macrophages in the spleen do?

A

Phagocytose antigens, Debra and ageing erythrocytes

110
Q

What forms the white pulp?

A

PALs

111
Q

What is lymphoid tissue?

A

Loose aggregations of lymphocytes in connective tissue, not encapsulated

112
Q

What are the two types of lymphoid tissues?

A

Permanent e.g tonsils and transient where area is infected

113
Q

What is the process of muscle formation called?

A

myogenesis

114
Q

What are the function of satellite cells?

A

A population of inactive myoblasts, for regeneration

115
Q

What are the two myofilaments?

A

Actin and myosin

116
Q

What encloses a skeletal muscle fibre?

A

sarcolemma and endomysium

117
Q

What is a fascicle in skeletal muscle?

A

a bundled group of parallel fibres

118
Q

What covers the fascicles?

A

Perimysium

119
Q

What surrounds the groups of fascicles in skeletal muscle?

A

Epimysium

120
Q

Is skeletal muscle striated or unstriated?

A

Striated

121
Q

What is the dark stained band in skeletal muscle called?

A

A Band

122
Q

What is the lightly stained band in a skeletal muscle cross section called?

A

I Band

123
Q

What do 2 Z lines show?

A

The length of the sarcomere

124
Q

What is the H-band

A

The darker region of the A band

125
Q

What is the structure of actin?

A

Two strands attached end to end twisted around each other

126
Q

What other proteins are found in the actin fibres?

A

Tropomyosin and troponin

127
Q

How is the myosin binding site exposed?

A

Ca2+ ions bind to troponin and cause tropomyosin to move

128
Q

What is the structure of myosin?

A

Myosin molecules are arranged back to back each with two heads

129
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum in a muscle cell called?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

130
Q

What is the cell membrane called in a muscle cell?

A

Sarcolemma

131
Q

What are the specialised invaginations of the sarcolemma called?

A

T-tubules

132
Q

What is the function of t-tubules?

A

To carry depolarisation into a muscle cell to the terminal cisternae

133
Q

What are the terminal cisternae?

A

Sac like regions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which store calcium

134
Q

What is the difference between association of terminal cisternae and sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac and skeletal?

A

Skeletal- 2 terminal 1 t-tubule (triad), Cardiac- 1 terminal cisternae 1 t-tubule (diad)

135
Q

What is the function of a motor unit in a skeletal muscle cell?

A

Motor units allow for selective contraction, for the strength go contraction

136
Q

What are myoblasts produced from?

A

Mesenchymal cells differentiate myoblasts

137
Q

How does hypertrophy occur?

A

A satellite cell divides into 2 daughter cells, 1 forms a new satellite cell, 1 fuses with myocyte and adds additional nuclei and causes more synthesis of additional myofibrils

138
Q

How is muscle repaired with little damage?

A

Fusion of satellite cells to form new muscles or to existing muscle cells

139
Q

What happens if damage to a muscle cell is extensive?

A

Muscle is replaced by scar tissue

140
Q

Where is cardiac muscle found?

A

Heart and the wall of great vessels

141
Q

How do T-tubules allow for longer contractions of cardiac muscle?

A

The t-tubules in cardiac muscle are more developed and and release more Ca2+ ions to maintain contractions

142
Q

How are cardiac muscle cells joined together?

A

Intercalated disks

143
Q

Why are intercalated disks low in electrical resistance?

A

To allow impulse to travel rapidly

144
Q

Is cardiac muscle striated?

A

Yes

145
Q

Why do cardiac muscle cells have more mitochondria?

A

More aerobic respiration takes place

146
Q

What are the functions of purkinje fibres?

A

The cardio-myocyrtes conduct cardiac potentials more quickly and efficiently

147
Q

Is smooth muscle striated?

A

No

148
Q

Where is smooth muscle generally found?

A

Organ systems (small intestine wall)

149
Q

Describe the shape of a smooth muscle cell

A

Spindle-shaped

150
Q

Where is the nucelus placed in a smooth muscle cell?

A

Centrally

151
Q

What does smooth muscle lack that other types have?

A

No t-tubule system with little sarcoplasmic reticulum

152
Q

What is the definition of a gland?

A

A group of cells with the main or only function is the synthesis and secretion of material with extracellular function

153
Q

What are examples of things gland secrete?

A

Proteins (enzymes), glycoproteins (mucus), steroids, lipids

154
Q

What are the two classes of glands based on function?

A

Apical secretion and Basal secretion

155
Q

What is apical secretion?

A

Glands that secrete their contents onto free epithelial surface and are classified as exocrine glands- deprived from epithelial layer and retain connection via draining duct

156
Q

What is basal secretion?

A

Glands that secrete their contents into underlying connective tissue, which pas into tissue fluid or blood- endocrine glands.

157
Q

What are the two embryological origins of endocrine glands?

A

Epithelial, Neuronal- morphology retained e.g hypothalamus/posterior pituitary- endocrine e.g adrenal medulla

158
Q

What are the 2 classes of exocrine glands classed based on shape?

A

Simple and Compound

159
Q

How does a simple exocrine gland drain?

A

They drain directly with or without a duct onto epithelia surface e.g sweat gland

160
Q

How does a compound gland drain?

A

Consists of a branching system, ducts from many secretory units join together to form one large duct

161
Q

How are exocrine glands classed based on secretion and morphology

A

Exocrine glands are either mucous or serous (mucous or protein)

162
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland produce?

A

T3 and T4 responsible for regulating metabolism

163
Q

How does the thyroid make sure to never run out of hormones T3 and 4?

A

It synthesises and stores thyrogloblin (TGB) which is broken down by phagocytosis when required

164
Q

What are the adrenal medulla and cortex responsible for?

A

Medulla- derived of sympathetic neurones which secrete adrenaline. Cortex- synthesis and release hormones.

165
Q

What does the epithelium do?

A

Cover and line internal and external surfaces of the body

166
Q

How is the epithelium separated from underlying tissues?

A

Basal lamina

167
Q

What are the two main types of epithelia?

A

Simple and stratified

168
Q

What are the 4 types of simple epithelia?

A

Squamous- flattened, Cuboidal- cuboidal, Columnar- rectangle, Pseudostratified columnar- fake

169
Q

What is the function of simple squamous?

A

Rapid transport and low friction

170
Q

What is the function of simple columnar?

A

Absorption, secretion, moving material

171
Q

What are the types of stratified epithelia?

A

Stratified squamous, keratinised stratified squamous, parakeratotic stratified squamous

Year 1 NSF (11 decks)

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