HHP Review Flashcards

1
Q

What do lipid rafts contain high concentrations of?

A

Cholesterol, glycosphingolipids, membrane associated proteins

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2
Q

How do bacteria and viruses take entry into cell through lipid rafts?

A

They hijack lipid rafts with their signaling mechanism

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3
Q

What are two types of lipid rafts?

A

Planar-Flotillin proteins
Caveolar- Caveolin proteins

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4
Q

What does flotillin/planar lipid raft function in?

A

Signaling pathways, recruitment of specific membrane proteins into rafts

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5
Q

What does caveolin lipid raft function in?

A

Invagination of plasma membrane initiates vesicle formation

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6
Q

What is actin attached to laminin by?

A

Integrin linker protein

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7
Q

What is role of cholesterol in membrane fluidity?

A

Prevents tight packing of saturated fatty acids therefore preventing membrane freezing in cold temperature
Structural buffer for unsaturated fatty acids therefore limits excessive fluidity in warm temperatures

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8
Q

Is macropinocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Actin dependent, clathrin independent

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9
Q

Is phagocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Actin dependent, clathrin independent

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10
Q

Is receptor mediated endocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Clathrin dependent

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11
Q

When does clathrin coated vesicles take place?

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis
Vesicle movement from golgi to endosomes
Trans face

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12
Q

When does coatomer coated vesicles take place?

A

Anterograde transport- vesicles move from rER to golgi, coated with COPII
Retrograde transport- vesicles move from golgi to rER, coated with COPI

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13
Q

When does caveolin coated vesicles take place?

A

Smooth muscle, endothelial cells

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14
Q

What do microvilli contain at core?
Where are they found?

A

Actin filaments
Absorptive cells; intestine, gall bladder, kidney tubules

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15
Q

What do cilia contain at core?
Where are they found?

A

Microtubules
Respiratory tract, oviduct

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16
Q

Where are basolateral folds found?

A

Absorptive cells; intestine, kidney tubules

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17
Q

Where is cytochrome C enzyme found?

A

Mitochondria

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18
Q

What is the importance of sarcoplasmic reticulum in striated muscle fibers?

A

Storage of calcium, trigger contraction of myofibrils

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19
Q

What is proteasome mediated protein degradation tagged by?

A

Ubiquitin, used by cells to destroy abnormal proteins

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20
Q

What does malfunction of proteasome mediated degradation lead to?

A

Decreased protein degradation- Alzhiemers disease, angleman syndrome
Overexpression, accelerated degradation of proteins -infection with HPV

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21
Q

What is lysosomal storage disease?

A

Absence of certain lysosomal enzymes, due to mutations in a gene that encodes lysosomal proteins
Tay-Sachs disease
Gauchers disease
Pompes disease
Neimann-Pick disease

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22
Q

What do peroxisomes regulate?

A

Hydrogen peroxides levels in cells, uses catalase enzymes
In sER

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23
Q

What does malfunction of peroxisome lead to?

A

Zellwger syndrome
Hypotonia, liver jaundice, polycystic kidney disease

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24
Q

What is karyokinesis?

A

Division of nucleus

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25
What is cytokinesis?
Division of cytoplasm
26
What is importance of G0 phase?
Some cell types are quiescent, enter G0 and perform its function without actively preparing to divide, ex. Neuroblast Other cells may restart division if they get right signal Stem cells hang out here
27
What does p53 do for G1/S checkpoint?
If it senses DNA damage, it halts progression of cell cycle by blocking Cdk2 activity until damage is repaired
28
What does p53 do for G2/M checkpoint?
In case of damage to DNA after S phase, it halts cycle and inhibits action of Cdk1, stopping progression of cell from G2 to mitosis
29
Cdk cannot work without cyclins
True, only the cyclin CDK complex is an active kinase
30
What happens if p53 is not intact?
Abnormal/malignant cells are formed
31
What does G1 cyclin, cyclin D interact with?
CDK4 and CDK6
32
What does G1/S cyclins, cyclin E interact with?
CDK2, starts the system called START-triggers the G1/S phase transition, at this point cells are irreversibly committed to cell division Further activates E2F mediated gene transcription, p53 and other kinases
33
What does S phase cyclins, cyclin A and E interact with?
Binds to CDK2 and are responsible for DNA synthesis
34
What does mitotic cyclins, B cyclins interact with?
CDK1, promotes progression though mitosis Mitotic cyclin CDK complexes are synthesizes during S phase and G2, but activities are held in check until DNA synthesis is completed (B cyclin forms in previous phase, but becomes active in M phase) Need laminin in nucleus to function properly, Histone H1 protein
35
What is the most important regulatory control that restricts cyclins to the appropriate cell cycle stage?
Ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation Removes cyclin and CDK, they only function once during phase, new cyclin and CDK are used for every phase
36
CDKs play a important role in cell cycle regulation by?
Control cell division and modulate transcription in response to several extra and intracellular cues
37
Cyclin CDK complex provide a phosphate group to a number of proteins that control processes in cell cycle, activity can be further modulated by?
Phosphorylation and other binding proteins like p27
38
What is process of Rb protein and apoptosis?
Rb is tumor suppressor protein, it inhibits apoptosis Phosphorylation of Rb protein releases E2F transcription factor that inhibits Rb gene, so apoptosis operates well E2F also activates genes for many G1 activities and for cyclin A
39
What enzyme does sER need for detocxification?
Cytochrome P450
40
What is the fibrillae center/nucleolar organizer?
Contains different chromosomes that have the rRNA genes
41
What is the dense fibrillar component/pars fibrosa?
Contains ribosomal genes actively undergoing transcription, RNA coding happens here
42
What is the granular component/pars granulosa?
Site of initial ribosome assembly, small or large, then sent to cytoplasm and form complete ribosome
43
What is the nuclear pore complex?
Mediates transport of cellular material between nucleus and cytoplasm
44
What happens when nuclear lamin structure is impaired?
Can cause tissue specific diseases like nerve and skeletal muscle development, premature aging
45
What disease happens when there is mutation to lamin or lamin receptors?
Development of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
46
What does a protein use to get into nucleus through nuclear pore complex?
Importin or lmp
47
What does a ribosomal subunit use to leave the nucleus through nuclear pore complex?
Exportin or exp
48
What are some cell loss disorders?
AIDS Alzheimers Parkinsons Aplastic anemia Myocardial infarction
49
What are some cell accumulation disorders?
Cancer Lupus Glomerulonephritis Viral infections
50
What are characteristics of necrosis?
Rapid cell swelling and lysis, pro inflammatory
51
What are characteristics of apoptosis?
Nuclear DNA fragments, cytoskeleton destroyed, no spillage of contents
52
What is karyolysis?
Basophilia of chromatin fades due to loss of DNA by endonucleases
53
What is pyknosis?
Irreversible chromatin condensation, shrinking nuclei
54
What is karyorrhexis?
Fragmentation of the nucleus, disappears in 1 to 2 days
55
What do mitochondria release in apoptosis?
Cytochrome C and SMAC/DIABLO into cytoplasm, caspase activation is triggered
56
What is SMAC/DIABLO?
Second mitochondria derived activator of caspases/ direct inhibitor of apoptosis binding protein with low isoelectric point
57
What does cytochrome C activate?
Initiates initiator caspases, which activate executioner caspases, activates endonucleases which fragment DNA and destroy cytoskeleton
58
What are endonucleases activation dependent on?
Ca2+ and Mg2+
59
What is membrane blebbing in apoptosis?
Molecules like phosphatidylserine are moved from P face to E face, this signals all phagocytic cells to come and remove cell blebbing
60
What is intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
Loss of nutrients, oncogenes, tumor suppressor p53 (p53 makes mitochondria discharge cytochrome C and SMAC/DIABLO)
61
What is extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
Free radicals, oxidants, UV or ionizing radiation, cytokines (TGF-B), ligation of FAS, release of granzymes from cytotoxin T cells or NK cells can trigger apoptosis
62
What is most important regulator of apoptosis?
Bcl-2 family of proteins
63
What does Bcl-2 proteins consist of?
BAX-pro apoptitic Bcl2 protein, can activate and deactivate aopotosis Regulate release of death promoting factors from mitochondria p53 activates BAX which allows cytochrome C into cytoplasm
64
What is anoikis?
Apoptotic process that occurs in cells in response to loss of adhesion to ECM Thought to involve signaling through integrins attached to ECM
65
What can go wrong if cells develop mechanisms to survive anoikis?
Metastatic cancers
66
What is paraptosis?
Cell death mediated by kinases, NOT caspases, can be induced in response to growth factor receptors
67
What is pyroptosis?
Inflammation induced death involving caspase 1
68
What is necroptosis?
Caspase independent cell death via FAS
69
What is DNA made of?
Eight histone proteins, H1 histone, wrapped into spiral called solenoid
70
What is heterochromatin?
Densely packed and looks dark and granular, DNA that is not being actively transcribed
71
What is euchromatin?
Looks clear or light, stretched out so gene transcription can take place, prominent in active cells like liver cells
72
What can a barr body in a neutrophil be used to identify?
Female genetic sex
73
Where is primary site of ribosomal production?
Nucleolus
74
What is lamin?
Protein of any class of fibrous proteins that provide structure and regulate transcription in a cell nucleus
75
What is laminin?
Any class of glycoproteins found in basement membranes
76
What is the interphase nucleus?
A nucleus of a non dividing cell
77
What is importance of uroplankin?
Protein makes the epithelium impermeable to water and toxic substances in urine
78
How is E coli able to attach to uroplankin and leads to UTI?
Penetrate into epithelium and attach to uroplankin
79
What is basement membrane made of?
Type 4 collagen, laminin, proteoglycans like nidogen and perlecan
80
What do integrins on basal surface of epithelial cells interact with?
Proteins on basement membrane
81
Why are laminins important?
Attach to integrins which attaches actin to basal lamina, important because it provides mechanical support and strength
82
What is basal lamina attached to underlying reticular fibers/reticular lamina by?
Anchoring fibrils which are type 7 collagen Makes epithelium more stable
83
What is dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa?
Inherited blistering skin disease, occurs due to mutations of type 7 collagen gene
84
What do fibrillin microfibrils do?
Attach lamina densa to elastic fibers
85
What does mutation to fibrillin gene cause?
Marfan syndrome
86
What do projections of lamina densa do?
Interact with reticular lamina, an additional binding site with type 3 collagen
87
Reticular fibers are what type of collagen?
Type 3
88
What does mucosa consist of?
Basal lamina and epithelium
89
What does serosa consist of?
Mesothelium, basal lamina, and underlying connective tissue
90
What does microvilli contain at core?
Bundles of actin filaments, held together by crosslinking proteins Villin and fimbrin
91
What links actin filaments in microvilli to the plasma membrane?
Myosin 1 and calmodulin
92
What does the terminal web of the apical cytoplasm contain?
Actin, spectrin, Myosin II
93
What does contractile Myosin II do for microvilli?
Results in decreasing diameter of apex of intestinal absorptive cells, thereby the microvilli spread apart and the intermicrovillar space increases
94
Where can stereocilia be found?
Epididymis, Ductus deferens
95
What is internal filamentous structure of stereocilia?
Actin
96
What does cilia contain?
Microtubules, also called Axoneme, that are derived from centriole, basal body is a microtubule organizing center
97
What are microtubules made of?
Tubulin subunits
98
What is arrangement of cilia?
9+2 arrangement, peripheral microtubules are made of alpha and beta tubulin subunits (attached by Nexin)
99
Each doublet of cilia exhibits a pair of arms containing what?
Dyenin and ATPase
100
What does hydrolysis of ATP produce in cilia?
Sliding movement along the crossbridge between A microtubule and B microtubule of adjacent doublet, as a result the cilium beats
101
What is primary ciliary dyskinesia/Immotile cilia syndrome?
Autosomal recessive disease, abnormal ciliary motion and impaired muco-ciliary clearance, leading to persistent or recurrent respiratory injections, male infertility, sinusitis, otitis media
102
What is Kartagener syndrome?
When dyenin arms are absent in the cilia, leads to abnormal ciliary function, characterized by triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis
103
What is primary cilia?
9+0 microtubule arrangement, non motile, bend by flow of fluid, function as signal receptors
104
What is nodal cilia?
9+0 microtubule arrangement, concentrated in area of primitive node, found in bilaminar embryonic disc, make rotational movements
105
What are basal folds usually oriented with?
Lots of mitochondria, provide energy for active transport
106
What do the basal folds and mitochondria together show?
Striated appearance
107
What transmembrane proteins are used in tight junction sealing?
Occludins, Claudins Form a zipper seal
108
The cytoplasmic portion of occludin and claudin attach with signaling proteins known as zonula occludens proteins ZO-1,ZO-2, ZO-3, what do they do?
ZO proteins interact with cytoskeleton actin filaments
109
What are ZO-1 and ZO-2 proteins vulnerable to?
Toxins and pathogenic viruses
110
What causes happen to occluding junctions by toxins and pathogenic viruses?
Cause junctions to become permeable
111
What does H pylori do to occluding junctions?
Damages occluding junctions of the gastric mucosa, causes leakage of HCl into walls of stomach, leads to bleeding and peptic ulcers
112
What do occluding junctions do for blood brain barrier?
Prevents proteins in the circulating blood entering the nerve tissue Chemotherapy cannot be used to treat brain tumors due to BBB
113
What is zonula adherens?
Continuous band like adhesion, surrounds cell and joins it to neighboring cell
114
What is desmosome or macula adherens?
Spot adhesion, does not go all the way around cell, located at sites on lateral surfaces of adjoining cells
115
What transmembrane protein does zonula adherens use?
E-cadherin, known to be tumor suppressor
116
Cytoplasmic domain of E cadherins bind with what?
Catenin, catenin binds with vinculin, vinculin binds with actin filaments
117
What does integrity of zonula adherens depend on?
Calcium, removal of calcium disrupts this junction, makes transmembrane proteins weak
118
What proteins associate with desmosomes?
Desmogleins, desmocollins Provide strong attachment to cell
119
Cytoplasmic ends of proteins desmogleins and desmocollins bind with what?
Plakoglobins, plakoglobins bind with desmoplankins, desmoplankins bind with intermediate filaments or keratin filaments Keratin filaments form cable like filaments called Tonofilaments
120
What transmembrane does Gap junction associate with?
Connexons, each connexon is made up of 6 connexin proteins
121
What do connexons do for gap junctions?
Precisely align cell membrane connexons with another cells corresponding connexons, tightly packed connexons create gap junctional plaque that provides communication between cells and exchange of ions
122
What are the attachment plaques of hemidesmosomes composed of?
Desmoplankins such as BP230, which attaches intermediate filaments to the attachment plaque Plectin Erbin
123
Attachment plaques of hemidesmosomes are attached to basal lamina by what transmembrane proteins?
BP180/Type 17 collagen, also known as anchoring filaments Integrins
124
What is bullous pemphigoid?
Autoimmune condition where high levels of antibodies are formed against BP180 and BP230 Absence of functional BP230 causes blistering of the skin due to fluid build up between epidermis and dermis
125
How do focal adhesions connect cytoskeleton to the ECM?
Linking actin filaments to ECM proteins Consists of 3 faces: Cytoplasmic face-actin filaments Transmembrane face-integrins Extracellular face-laminin and fibronectin
126
What is merocrine secretion?
Secretion is release by exocytosis ex. sweat glands
127
What is holocrine secretion?
Whole cell ruptures during release of product ex. sebaceous glands
128
What is apocrine secretion?
Apical cytoplasm is lost with the secretion ex. mammary gland
129
What are serous glands?
Secrete protein secretion, cytoplasm contains zymogen granules Ex. exocrine pancreas, parotid
130
What are mucous glands?
Produce mucin, PAS positive, water soluble, cytoplasm appears foamy or vacuolated Ex. sublingual salivary gland
131
Which organs epithelial tissue is arranged in the form of epithelioids?
Pancreas
132
Where is site of inflammatory reactions?
Loose connective tissue
133
What do fibroblasts secrete?
Collagen, elastin, reticular fibers, ground substance
134
Collagen biosynthesis
Genes for pro-a1 and pro-a2 chains are transcribed mRNA moves into cytoplasm and interacts with ribosomes, after translation, it is referred to as pre-pro-polypeptide chain Chain travels to rER for post translational modification Three major modifications are made to chain for it to become pro-collagen: The signal peptide on the N terminal is removed Lysine and proline residues get additional hydroxyl groups added to them via hydroxylase enzyme which REQUIRE VIT C Glycosylation of the selected hydroxyl groups on lysine with galactose and glucose b Three of the hydroxylated and glycosylated pro-a-chains assemble by twisting into triple helix by pro-collagen Procollagen molecules move to golgi via COPII, get packaged into secretory vesicles and ready to enter ECM Enzymes known as collagen peptidase cleaves procollagen and molecule becomes Tropocollagen Lysyl oxidase, copper dependent enzyme acts on lysine and hydroxylysines and tropocollagen molecules form covalent bonding between them, becoming collagen fibril
135
What is required for collagen biosysnthesis?
Vitamin C
136
What are myofibroblasts involved in?
Wound healing
137
What are classically activated macrophages M1?
Secretes interlukins to start inflammation, starts diapedesis
138
What are alternatively activated macrophages M2?
Not involved in phagocytosis, anti-inflammatory, stimulate angiogenesis, secrete fibronectin which is very important for wound repair/healing, also secretes multiadhesive proteins
139
What is a foreign body giant cell or Langhans cell?
Macrophages fused together to form large cell when encountering large foreign bodies
140
What do preadipocytes within lateral mesoderm form?
White adipocytes
141
What do preadipocytes within paraxial mesoderm form?
Brown adipocytes
142
What is function of brown adipocytes?
Mitochondrial metabolism of brown adipocytes releases heat rather than ATP
143
What is function of white adipocyte?
Storage of fat and energy as triglyceride lipid droplet, provides insulation and cushioning to vital organs
144
What does white adipocytes function AS and produce what?
Major endocrine organs Produces Angiotensinogien AGE, Steroids, Leptin (which targets hypothalamus and regulates eating behavoir)
145
What are brown adipocytes associated with?
Capillaries and direct sympathetic innervation
146
Where do mast cells arise from?
Mast cell progenitors in bone marrow
147
What stimuli do mast cells respond to most?
Histamine and tryptase
148
What are mast cells preformed mediators?
Histamine, serine proteases which are typtase and chymase (generates angiotensin II in vascular injury), eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors, heparin
149
What are mast cells newly synthesized mediators?
Leukotriene C (causes bronchiospasm), tumor necrosis factor alpha, several interleukins
150
What is mast cell metochromatic property?
Granules in cytoplasm that interact with chemical in blue dye and turn purple or blue
151
What are B lymphocytes?
Originate in bone marrow, can differentiate into plasma cells; secrete antibodies
152
What are T lymphocytes?
Originate in bone marrow, mature in thymus, function in cell immunity, memory cells
153
What are plasma cells?
Derived from B lymphocytes, produce specific antibodies to specific antigen
154
What characteristic do plasma cells have?
Clumps of heterochromatin and euchromatin that looks like cartwheel or clock face arrangement
155
What cells have receptor for IgE?
Mast cell and basophils, both cells have histamine and heparin
156
What is proteolytic degradation in collagen breakdown?
Occurs outside the cell via matrix metalloproteinases, invasive cancer cells secrete MMPs to break down ECM
157
What is most common collagen type?
Type 1, occurs in loose and dense CT, bone, and skin Strong, provides tensile strength, if lost than bone is effected Synthesized by osteoblasts
158
What is osteogenesis imperfecta?
Mutation of type 1 collagen gene, brittle bones
159
What is type 2 collagen?
Present in cartilage, vitreous body of eye Synthesizes by chondroblasts
160
What is Kneist dysplasia?
Mutation of type 2 collagen gene, restricted joint mobility, holes in cartilage, will not reach correct height
161
What is type 3 collagen?
Reticular fibers Synthesized by fibroblasts, reticular cells in bone marrow, smooth muscle cells
162
What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
Mutation of collagen types 1,3,4,5 Hypermobility of joints, fragile skin, rupture of vessels and internal organs, delayed wound healing
163
What is type 4 collagen?
Present as meshwork sheets in basal lamina Synthesized by epithelial cells, muscle cells, schwann cells
164
What is alport syndrome?
Renal failure due to structural changes in glomerular basement membrane of kidneys, hearing loss, ocular lesions
165
What is type 5 collagen?
Dense irregular CT, placenta, bone, blood vessel wall
166
What is type 7 collagen?
Anchoring fibrils Synthesized by fibroblasts
167
What is dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa including kindler syndrome?
Severe blistering and scarring of skin after minor trauma, absence of anchoring fibrils
168
What are elastic fibers formed by?
Fibrillin microfibrils embedded in cross linked elastin Synthesized by fibroblasts
169
The cross links between elastin subunits consist of what?
Desmosine, each of which involves 4 converted lysins into two elastin molecules, forming coiled appearance to elastic fiber
170
Elastin in elastic arteries is synthesized by what?
Smooth muscle cells, NOT fibroblasts
171
What are effects of sunlight on elastic fibers?
Fiber disintegration Fiber thickening Fiber proliferation Contribute to decreased skin elasticity and appears as deep wrinkles
172
Where are reticular fibers/type 3 collagen formed?
In loose CT-formed by fibroblasts In hematopoietic and lymphatic tissues-formed by reticular cells
173
What does ground substance contain?
Proteoglycans which are GAGs bound to a core protein Multiadhesive glycoproteins Glycosaminoglycans GAGs
174
Why is hydration of ECM is important?
So substances can diffuse through, resists compression and gives support
175
Negative charge to GAGs attracts water, resulting in formation of?
Highly hydrated gels; permits diffusion of water soluble substances
176
Failure of degredation results in accumulation of GAGs in genetic disorders like?
Hurler syndrome Hunter syndrome Sanfilippo syndrome Morquio syndrome
177
What glycosaminoglycan exists as just a GAG, not as a proteoglycan?
Hyaluronic acid, does not attach to core protein
178
What does aggrecan exist in cartilage as?
Aggrecan-hyaluronan aggregates
179
What is perlecan?
Proteoglycan in all basal lamina
180
What is aggrecan?
Large proteoglycan with core protein bound with keratan sulphate and chrondriotin sulphate
181
What are examples of multiadhesive glycoproteins?
Laminin-binding sites for type 4 collagen, integrins, and specific proteoglycans Fibronectin-binding sites for collagen and specific GAGs and integrins, important for cell adhesion and cellular migration through ECM Tenascin-present in embryonic tissue and wound healing Osteopontin-binds to osteoclasts and attaches them to bone, plays role in calcification of ECM
182
What do chondrocytes secrete?
Type II collagen, and ECM
183
What does hyaline cartilage consist of?
Type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins
184
What does elastic cartilage consist of?
Elastic fibers and elastic lamellae (condensation of fibers), type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins
185
What does fibrocartilage consist of?
Type 1 and type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins
186
What do fibroblasts secrete?
Type 1 collagen
187
Where can fibrocartilage be found?
Knee meniscus, pubic symphasis, intervetebral discs
188
Where can hyaline cartilage be found?
Nose, articular joint, costal cartilage, trachea, larynx, bronchi of lungs
189
Where can elastic cartilage be found?
Pinna of ear, epiglottis
190
What three GAGs does aggrecan hyaluronan aggregates have?
Chondrotin sulfate, hyaluronan, keratan sulfate
191
What does type IX collagen do in cartilage?
Facilitates fibril interaction with matrix proteoglycan
192
What does type X collagen do?
Organizes fibrils into three dimensional hexagonal lattices
193
What does type XI collagen do?
Regulates fibril size
194
What is role of multiadhesive glycoproteins in cartilage?
Influence the interaction between chondrocytes and matrix molecules ex. Anchorin CII helps anchor chondrocytes to matrix, acts as collagen receptor on chondrocytes
195
What is clinical significance to multiadhesive glycoproteins?
Used as markers to detect cartilage turnover and degeneration
196
What is important role of aggrecans to cartilage ECM?
Binds water molecules with high affinity, hydrated ECM matrix provides resilience and diffusion of metabolites
197
What does calcification of ECM do to cartilage (happens with aging)?
Results in chondrocyte cell death
198
Where is highest concentration of proteoglycans, hyaluronan and multiadhesive glycoproteins at?
Capsular matrix, and only has type VI collagen fibrils
199
What does territorial matrix of cartilage contain?
Randomlly arranged type II collagen fibrils, less concentration of sulfated proteoglycans
200
What type of collagen assembles in interterritorial matrix?
Type II collagen
201
What concentration of proteoglycans does interterritorial matrix have?
Lowest concentration
202
What transcription factor triggers chondrogenic nodules to differentiate into chondroblasts?
SOX-9
203
What is endomysium made of?
Type 3 collagen, contains finest capillaries
204
What is perimysium made of?
Thick collagen, contains larger blood vessels
205
What is epimysium made of?
Type 1 collagen, contains major nerve and blood vessels
206
What does Titin do?
Center the thick filaments in middle between 2 z lines, also prevents excessive stretching of sarcomere
207
What does alpha actin do?
Anchors actin filaments to z line
208
What does nebulin do?
Helps alpha actin anchor actin filaments to z line, maintains length of actin filaments
209
What does myomesin do?
Has myosin binding protein, attaches mysoin filaments with each other, holds myosin filaments at M line
210
What does Mysoin binding protein C do?
Helps myomesin with its function
211
What does dystrophin do?
Attaches actin to laminin in the external lamina
212
What can be complication if dystrophin is abnormal?
Skeletal muscle contraction complications, Duchene muscular dystrophy
213
What does desmin do?
Attaches z discs to each other, and attaches z disc to the sarcolemma using linkage protein ANKYRIN
214
What is the length of TRIADS?
A-I junction to A-I junction
215
What are cardiac muscles characterized by?
Large mitochondria
216
What three types of junctional complexes are found in cardiac muscle?
Fascia adherens, macula adherens, gap junctions
217
What are e-cadherins dependent on?
Calcium
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Where can fascia adherens be found in cardiac muscle?
Transverse portion
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What do fascia adherens attach to in cardiac muscle?
Actin filaments of last sarcomere
220
Where are gap junctions located in cardiac muscle? What do they provide muscle?
Lateral portion Allows communication and cardiac muscles to work as syncytium
221
What is the length of DIADS?
Z line to Z line
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How are smooth muscle cells attached?
GAP junctions, called NEXUS junction
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What are the intermediate filaments of cytoskeleton smooth muscle made of?
Desmin and (vimentin in blood vessels)
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What thin filaments and intermediate filaments in smooth muscle attached to?
Dense bodies
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Why is smooth muscle thrown in different directions when contracting?
Desmin attached to sarcolemma
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What does smooth muscle have lots of that induce cisterna to discharge and regulate calcium?
Caveolin lipid rafts
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What does smooth muscle have abundantly in extracellular area?
Reticular fibers
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What thin actin filaments does smooth muscle contain?
Caldesmon and calponin, actin, tropomyosin
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What do caldesmon and calponin do?
Actin binding proteins that block myosin binding sites, action is calcium dependent
230
What is arrangement of myosin II in smooth muscle?
Side-polar thick filament
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What do smooth muscle cells synthesize?
CT matrix, type 4 collagen, type 3 collagen, synthesizes type 1 collagen and elastin in blood vessels, synthesizes proteoglycans and glycoproteins
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What is repair process for smooth muscles?
Regenerate easily, can use undifferentiated stem cells
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What is repair process for skeletal muscle?
Myocytes and myotubules
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What is repair process for cardiac muscle?
Scar tissue formation for minor injury, cannot repair extensive injury
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What is glycophorin A in RBCs?
Attachment to band 3, contains antigenic sites for determning ABO blood types
236
What is glycophorin C in RBCs?
Attachment to membrane lattice and plasma membrane
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What is band 3 protein?
Stabilizes plasma membrane by means of attachment to submembranous lattice, anchors cytoskeleton proteins, binds hemoglobin, anion transport
238
What is spectrin?
Main peripheral membrane protein in plasma membrane, forms lattice of spectrin and contributes to the shape of erythrocytes and provides elastic properties
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What is spectrin anchored to lipid bilayer by?
Band 4.1 protein and ankyrin complex
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What is band 4.1 protein?
Contains band 4.1, actin, tropomyosin, tropomodulin, and adductin Interacts with glycoprotein C
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What is ankyrin protein complex?
Contains ankyrin and band 4.2 protein Interacts with band 3 protein Binds integral membrane proteins to the spectrin lattice by forming complex with band 4.2 protein
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What causes rouleuax formation (coin stacking RBC)?
Increased levels of plasma immunoglobulin
243
What do WBC granulocytes and agranulocytes both have?
Primary granules, called Axurophilic granules- function as lysosomes
244
What granulocytes does WBC have?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
245
What agranulocytes does WBC have?
Monocytes, lymphocytes
246
What is most common circulating leukocyte?
Neutrophils
247
What is least common circulating leukocyte?
Basophil
248
What do azurophilic granules contain?
Myeloperoxidase, neutrophil defensin, acid hydrolases
249
What do neutrophil small granules contain?
Enzymes, antimicrobial peptides, membrane proteins
250
What do neutrophil tertiary granules contain?
Phosphatases, metalloprteinases-(break down ECM)
251
What is diapedesis?
Local tissue response leads to cytokine release Cytokines signal post capillary venules to insert selectins E and P Passing neutrophils attach to selectins Neutrophil secretes integrins and endothelial cells produce integrin ligand ICAM-1 Neutrophils get firmly attached Neutrophils put out pseudopodia and migrate into loosened ECM CT (ECM loosened by heparin and histamine secreted by perivascular mast cells) Proteases secreted by neutrophil destroy basement membrane, neutrophil becomes active in CT matrix and move towards injury site
252
What reactions are eosinophils associated with?
Immediate allergic reactions, Helminth and parasitic infections
253
What characteristic do eosinophils have?
Crystalloid body, secretes major basic proteins
254
What do histaminases do in eosinophils?
Neutralizes histamines, reduces allergic reaction
255
What do mast cells and basophils have in common?
Histamine and heparin IgE antibody surface receptors
256
What is the only cell that can circulate between lymphoid tissue and blood?
Lymphocyte
257
What do NK cells secrete?
Perforins, Granzyme (proteases)
258
What does the granulomere (inner) part of glycolyx coat contain?
Alpha granules, delta granules, lambda granules/lysosomes, microperoxisomes
259
What do platelet alpha granules do?
Facilitate blood coagulation and platelet aggregation, growth factors
260
What do platelet delta granules do?
Facilitate platelet adhesion and vasoconstriction Contain ADP and ATP, serotonin, histamine
261
What do platelet lambda granules/lysosomes do?
Hydrolytic enzymes function in clot reabsorption
262
What is platelet open canalicular system?
Invaginations of plasma membrane
263
What is platelet dense tubular system of hylomere?
Stores calcium ions