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HHP > HHP Review > Flashcards

HHP Review Flashcards

1
Q

What do lipid rafts contain high concentrations of?

A

Cholesterol, glycosphingolipids, membrane associated proteins

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2
Q

How do bacteria and viruses take entry into cell through lipid rafts?

A

They hijack lipid rafts with their signaling mechanism

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3
Q

What are two types of lipid rafts?

A

Planar-Flotillin proteins
Caveolar- Caveolin proteins

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4
Q

What does flotillin/planar lipid raft function in?

A

Signaling pathways, recruitment of specific membrane proteins into rafts

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5
Q

What does caveolin lipid raft function in?

A

Invagination of plasma membrane initiates vesicle formation

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6
Q

What is actin attached to laminin by?

A

Integrin linker protein

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7
Q

What is role of cholesterol in membrane fluidity?

A

Prevents tight packing of saturated fatty acids therefore preventing membrane freezing in cold temperature
Structural buffer for unsaturated fatty acids therefore limits excessive fluidity in warm temperatures

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8
Q

Is macropinocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Actin dependent, clathrin independent

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9
Q

Is phagocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Actin dependent, clathrin independent

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10
Q

Is receptor mediated endocytosis actin or clathrin dependent?

A

Clathrin dependent

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11
Q

When does clathrin coated vesicles take place?

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis
Vesicle movement from golgi to endosomes
Trans face

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12
Q

When does coatomer coated vesicles take place?

A

Anterograde transport- vesicles move from rER to golgi, coated with COPII
Retrograde transport- vesicles move from golgi to rER, coated with COPI

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13
Q

When does caveolin coated vesicles take place?

A

Smooth muscle, endothelial cells

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14
Q

What do microvilli contain at core?
Where are they found?

A

Actin filaments
Absorptive cells; intestine, gall bladder, kidney tubules

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15
Q

What do cilia contain at core?
Where are they found?

A

Microtubules
Respiratory tract, oviduct

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16
Q

Where are basolateral folds found?

A

Absorptive cells; intestine, kidney tubules

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17
Q

Where is cytochrome C enzyme found?

A

Mitochondria

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18
Q

What is the importance of sarcoplasmic reticulum in striated muscle fibers?

A

Storage of calcium, trigger contraction of myofibrils

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19
Q

What is proteasome mediated protein degradation tagged by?

A

Ubiquitin, used by cells to destroy abnormal proteins

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20
Q

What does malfunction of proteasome mediated degradation lead to?

A

Decreased protein degradation- Alzhiemers disease, angleman syndrome
Overexpression, accelerated degradation of proteins -infection with HPV

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21
Q

What is lysosomal storage disease?

A

Absence of certain lysosomal enzymes, due to mutations in a gene that encodes lysosomal proteins
Tay-Sachs disease
Gauchers disease
Pompes disease
Neimann-Pick disease

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22
Q

What do peroxisomes regulate?

A

Hydrogen peroxides levels in cells, uses catalase enzymes
In sER

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23
Q

What does malfunction of peroxisome lead to?

A

Zellwger syndrome
Hypotonia, liver jaundice, polycystic kidney disease

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24
Q

What is karyokinesis?

A

Division of nucleus

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25
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

Division of cytoplasm

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26
Q

What is importance of G0 phase?

A

Some cell types are quiescent, enter G0 and perform its function without actively preparing to divide, ex. Neuroblast
Other cells may restart division if they get right signal
Stem cells hang out here

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27
Q

What does p53 do for G1/S checkpoint?

A

If it senses DNA damage, it halts progression of cell cycle by blocking Cdk2 activity until damage is repaired

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28
Q

What does p53 do for G2/M checkpoint?

A

In case of damage to DNA after S phase, it halts cycle and inhibits action of Cdk1, stopping progression of cell from G2 to mitosis

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29
Q

Cdk cannot work without cyclins

A

True, only the cyclin CDK complex is an active kinase

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30
Q

What happens if p53 is not intact?

A

Abnormal/malignant cells are formed

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31
Q

What does G1 cyclin, cyclin D interact with?

A

CDK4 and CDK6

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32
Q

What does G1/S cyclins, cyclin E interact with?

A

CDK2, starts the system called START-triggers the G1/S phase transition, at this point cells are irreversibly committed to cell division
Further activates E2F mediated gene transcription, p53 and other kinases

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33
Q

What does S phase cyclins, cyclin A and E interact with?

A

Binds to CDK2 and are responsible for DNA synthesis

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34
Q

What does mitotic cyclins, B cyclins interact with?

A

CDK1, promotes progression though mitosis
Mitotic cyclin CDK complexes are synthesizes during S phase and G2, but activities are held in check until DNA synthesis is completed (B cyclin forms in previous phase, but becomes active in M phase)
Need laminin in nucleus to function properly, Histone H1 protein

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35
Q

What is the most important regulatory control that restricts cyclins to the appropriate cell cycle stage?

A

Ubiquitin-mediated protein degradation
Removes cyclin and CDK, they only function once during phase, new cyclin and CDK are used for every phase

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36
Q

CDKs play a important role in cell cycle regulation by?

A

Control cell division and modulate transcription in response to several extra and intracellular cues

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37
Q

Cyclin CDK complex provide a phosphate group to a number of proteins that control processes in cell cycle, activity can be further modulated by?

A

Phosphorylation and other binding proteins like p27

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38
Q

What is process of Rb protein and apoptosis?

A

Rb is tumor suppressor protein, it inhibits apoptosis
Phosphorylation of Rb protein releases E2F transcription factor that inhibits Rb gene, so apoptosis operates well
E2F also activates genes for many G1 activities and for cyclin A

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39
Q

What enzyme does sER need for detocxification?

A

Cytochrome P450

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40
Q

What is the fibrillae center/nucleolar organizer?

A

Contains different chromosomes that have the rRNA genes

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41
Q

What is the dense fibrillar component/pars fibrosa?

A

Contains ribosomal genes actively undergoing transcription, RNA coding happens here

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42
Q

What is the granular component/pars granulosa?

A

Site of initial ribosome assembly, small or large, then sent to cytoplasm and form complete ribosome

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43
Q

What is the nuclear pore complex?

A

Mediates transport of cellular material between nucleus and cytoplasm

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44
Q

What happens when nuclear lamin structure is impaired?

A

Can cause tissue specific diseases like nerve and skeletal muscle development, premature aging

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45
Q

What disease happens when there is mutation to lamin or lamin receptors?

A

Development of Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy

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46
Q

What does a protein use to get into nucleus through nuclear pore complex?

A

Importin or lmp

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47
Q

What does a ribosomal subunit use to leave the nucleus through nuclear pore complex?

A

Exportin or exp

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48
Q

What are some cell loss disorders?

A

AIDS
Alzheimers
Parkinsons
Aplastic anemia
Myocardial infarction

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49
Q

What are some cell accumulation disorders?

A

Cancer
Lupus
Glomerulonephritis
Viral infections

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50
Q

What are characteristics of necrosis?

A

Rapid cell swelling and lysis, pro inflammatory

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51
Q

What are characteristics of apoptosis?

A

Nuclear DNA fragments, cytoskeleton destroyed, no spillage of contents

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52
Q

What is karyolysis?

A

Basophilia of chromatin fades due to loss of DNA by endonucleases

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53
Q

What is pyknosis?

A

Irreversible chromatin condensation, shrinking nuclei

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54
Q

What is karyorrhexis?

A

Fragmentation of the nucleus, disappears in 1 to 2 days

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55
Q

What do mitochondria release in apoptosis?

A

Cytochrome C and SMAC/DIABLO into cytoplasm, caspase activation is triggered

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56
Q

What is SMAC/DIABLO?

A

Second mitochondria derived activator of caspases/ direct inhibitor of apoptosis binding protein with low isoelectric point

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57
Q

What does cytochrome C activate?

A

Initiates initiator caspases, which activate executioner caspases, activates endonucleases which fragment DNA and destroy cytoskeleton

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58
Q

What are endonucleases activation dependent on?

A

Ca2+ and Mg2+

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59
Q

What is membrane blebbing in apoptosis?

A

Molecules like phosphatidylserine are moved from P face to E face, this signals all phagocytic cells to come and remove cell blebbing

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60
Q

What is intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

Loss of nutrients, oncogenes, tumor suppressor p53 (p53 makes mitochondria discharge cytochrome C and SMAC/DIABLO)

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61
Q

What is extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

Free radicals, oxidants, UV or ionizing radiation, cytokines (TGF-B), ligation of FAS, release of granzymes from cytotoxin T cells or NK cells can trigger apoptosis

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62
Q

What is most important regulator of apoptosis?

A

Bcl-2 family of proteins

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63
Q

What does Bcl-2 proteins consist of?

A

BAX-pro apoptitic Bcl2 protein, can activate and deactivate aopotosis
Regulate release of death promoting factors from mitochondria
p53 activates BAX which allows cytochrome C into cytoplasm

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64
Q

What is anoikis?

A

Apoptotic process that occurs in cells in response to loss of adhesion to ECM
Thought to involve signaling through integrins attached to ECM

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65
Q

What can go wrong if cells develop mechanisms to survive anoikis?

A

Metastatic cancers

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66
Q

What is paraptosis?

A

Cell death mediated by kinases, NOT caspases, can be induced in response to growth factor receptors

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67
Q

What is pyroptosis?

A

Inflammation induced death involving caspase 1

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68
Q

What is necroptosis?

A

Caspase independent cell death via FAS

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69
Q

What is DNA made of?

A

Eight histone proteins, H1 histone, wrapped into spiral called solenoid

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70
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Densely packed and looks dark and granular, DNA that is not being actively transcribed

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71
Q

What is euchromatin?

A

Looks clear or light, stretched out so gene transcription can take place, prominent in active cells like liver cells

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72
Q

What can a barr body in a neutrophil be used to identify?

A

Female genetic sex

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73
Q

Where is primary site of ribosomal production?

A

Nucleolus

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74
Q

What is lamin?

A

Protein of any class of fibrous proteins that provide structure and regulate transcription in a cell nucleus

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75
Q

What is laminin?

A

Any class of glycoproteins found in basement membranes

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76
Q

What is the interphase nucleus?

A

A nucleus of a non dividing cell

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77
Q

What is importance of uroplankin?

A

Protein makes the epithelium impermeable to water and toxic substances in urine

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78
Q

How is E coli able to attach to uroplankin and leads to UTI?

A

Penetrate into epithelium and attach to uroplankin

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79
Q

What is basement membrane made of?

A

Type 4 collagen, laminin, proteoglycans like nidogen and perlecan

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80
Q

What do integrins on basal surface of epithelial cells interact with?

A

Proteins on basement membrane

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81
Q

Why are laminins important?

A

Attach to integrins which attaches actin to basal lamina, important because it provides mechanical support and strength

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82
Q

What is basal lamina attached to underlying reticular fibers/reticular lamina by?

A

Anchoring fibrils which are type 7 collagen
Makes epithelium more stable

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83
Q

What is dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa?

A

Inherited blistering skin disease, occurs due to mutations of type 7 collagen gene

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84
Q

What do fibrillin microfibrils do?

A

Attach lamina densa to elastic fibers

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85
Q

What does mutation to fibrillin gene cause?

A

Marfan syndrome

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86
Q

What do projections of lamina densa do?

A

Interact with reticular lamina, an additional binding site with type 3 collagen

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87
Q

Reticular fibers are what type of collagen?

A

Type 3

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88
Q

What does mucosa consist of?

A

Basal lamina and epithelium

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89
Q

What does serosa consist of?

A

Mesothelium, basal lamina, and underlying connective tissue

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90
Q

What does microvilli contain at core?

A

Bundles of actin filaments, held together by crosslinking proteins Villin and fimbrin

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91
Q

What links actin filaments in microvilli to the plasma membrane?

A

Myosin 1 and calmodulin

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92
Q

What does the terminal web of the apical cytoplasm contain?

A

Actin, spectrin, Myosin II

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93
Q

What does contractile Myosin II do for microvilli?

A

Results in decreasing diameter of apex of intestinal absorptive cells, thereby the microvilli spread apart and the intermicrovillar space increases

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94
Q

Where can stereocilia be found?

A

Epididymis, Ductus deferens

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95
Q

What is internal filamentous structure of stereocilia?

A

Actin

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96
Q

What does cilia contain?

A

Microtubules, also called Axoneme, that are derived from centriole, basal body is a microtubule organizing center

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97
Q

What are microtubules made of?

A

Tubulin subunits

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98
Q

What is arrangement of cilia?

A

9+2 arrangement, peripheral microtubules are made of alpha and beta tubulin subunits (attached by Nexin)

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99
Q

Each doublet of cilia exhibits a pair of arms containing what?

A

Dyenin and ATPase

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100
Q

What does hydrolysis of ATP produce in cilia?

A

Sliding movement along the crossbridge between A microtubule and B microtubule of adjacent doublet, as a result the cilium beats

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101
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia/Immotile cilia syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive disease, abnormal ciliary motion and impaired muco-ciliary clearance, leading to persistent or recurrent respiratory injections, male infertility, sinusitis, otitis media

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102
Q

What is Kartagener syndrome?

A

When dyenin arms are absent in the cilia, leads to abnormal ciliary function, characterized by triad of situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis

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103
Q

What is primary cilia?

A

9+0 microtubule arrangement, non motile, bend by flow of fluid, function as signal receptors

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104
Q

What is nodal cilia?

A

9+0 microtubule arrangement, concentrated in area of primitive node, found in bilaminar embryonic disc, make rotational movements

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105
Q

What are basal folds usually oriented with?

A

Lots of mitochondria, provide energy for active transport

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106
Q

What do the basal folds and mitochondria together show?

A

Striated appearance

107
Q

What transmembrane proteins are used in tight junction sealing?

A

Occludins, Claudins
Form a zipper seal

108
Q

The cytoplasmic portion of occludin and claudin attach with signaling proteins known as zonula occludens proteins ZO-1,ZO-2, ZO-3, what do they do?

A

ZO proteins interact with cytoskeleton actin filaments

109
Q

What are ZO-1 and ZO-2 proteins vulnerable to?

A

Toxins and pathogenic viruses

110
Q

What causes happen to occluding junctions by toxins and pathogenic viruses?

A

Cause junctions to become permeable

111
Q

What does H pylori do to occluding junctions?

A

Damages occluding junctions of the gastric mucosa, causes leakage of HCl into walls of stomach, leads to bleeding and peptic ulcers

112
Q

What do occluding junctions do for blood brain barrier?

A

Prevents proteins in the circulating blood entering the nerve tissue
Chemotherapy cannot be used to treat brain tumors due to BBB

113
Q

What is zonula adherens?

A

Continuous band like adhesion, surrounds cell and joins it to neighboring cell

114
Q

What is desmosome or macula adherens?

A

Spot adhesion, does not go all the way around cell, located at sites on lateral surfaces of adjoining cells

115
Q

What transmembrane protein does zonula adherens use?

A

E-cadherin, known to be tumor suppressor

116
Q

Cytoplasmic domain of E cadherins bind with what?

A

Catenin, catenin binds with vinculin, vinculin binds with actin filaments

117
Q

What does integrity of zonula adherens depend on?

A

Calcium, removal of calcium disrupts this junction, makes transmembrane proteins weak

118
Q

What proteins associate with desmosomes?

A

Desmogleins, desmocollins
Provide strong attachment to cell

119
Q

Cytoplasmic ends of proteins desmogleins and desmocollins bind with what?

A

Plakoglobins, plakoglobins bind with desmoplankins, desmoplankins bind with intermediate filaments or keratin filaments
Keratin filaments form cable like filaments called Tonofilaments

120
Q

What transmembrane does Gap junction associate with?

A

Connexons, each connexon is made up of 6 connexin proteins

121
Q

What do connexons do for gap junctions?

A

Precisely align cell membrane connexons with another cells corresponding connexons, tightly packed connexons create gap junctional plaque that provides communication between cells and exchange of ions

122
Q

What are the attachment plaques of hemidesmosomes composed of?

A

Desmoplankins such as BP230, which attaches intermediate filaments to the attachment plaque
Plectin
Erbin

123
Q

Attachment plaques of hemidesmosomes are attached to basal lamina by what transmembrane proteins?

A

BP180/Type 17 collagen, also known as anchoring filaments
Integrins

124
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A

Autoimmune condition where high levels of antibodies are formed against BP180 and BP230
Absence of functional BP230 causes blistering of the skin due to fluid build up between epidermis and dermis

125
Q

How do focal adhesions connect cytoskeleton to the ECM?

A

Linking actin filaments to ECM proteins
Consists of 3 faces:
Cytoplasmic face-actin filaments
Transmembrane face-integrins
Extracellular face-laminin and fibronectin

126
Q

What is merocrine secretion?

A

Secretion is release by exocytosis
ex. sweat glands

127
Q

What is holocrine secretion?

A

Whole cell ruptures during release of product
ex. sebaceous glands

128
Q

What is apocrine secretion?

A

Apical cytoplasm is lost with the secretion
ex. mammary gland

129
Q

What are serous glands?

A

Secrete protein secretion, cytoplasm contains zymogen granules
Ex. exocrine pancreas, parotid

130
Q

What are mucous glands?

A

Produce mucin, PAS positive, water soluble, cytoplasm appears foamy or vacuolated
Ex. sublingual salivary gland

131
Q

Which organs epithelial tissue is arranged in the form of epithelioids?

A

Pancreas

132
Q

Where is site of inflammatory reactions?

A

Loose connective tissue

133
Q

What do fibroblasts secrete?

A

Collagen, elastin, reticular fibers, ground substance

134
Q

Collagen biosynthesis

A

Genes for pro-a1 and pro-a2 chains are transcribed
mRNA moves into cytoplasm and interacts with ribosomes, after translation, it is referred to as pre-pro-polypeptide chain
Chain travels to rER for post translational modification
Three major modifications are made to chain for it to become pro-collagen:
The signal peptide on the N terminal is removed
Lysine and proline residues get additional hydroxyl groups added to them via hydroxylase enzyme which REQUIRE VIT C
Glycosylation of the selected hydroxyl groups on lysine with galactose and glucose b

Three of the hydroxylated and glycosylated pro-a-chains assemble by twisting into triple helix by pro-collagen
Procollagen molecules move to golgi via COPII, get packaged into secretory vesicles and ready to enter ECM

Enzymes known as collagen peptidase cleaves procollagen and molecule becomes Tropocollagen
Lysyl oxidase, copper dependent enzyme acts on lysine and hydroxylysines and tropocollagen molecules form covalent bonding between them, becoming collagen fibril

135
Q

What is required for collagen biosysnthesis?

A

Vitamin C

136
Q

What are myofibroblasts involved in?

A

Wound healing

137
Q

What are classically activated macrophages M1?

A

Secretes interlukins to start inflammation, starts diapedesis

138
Q

What are alternatively activated macrophages M2?

A

Not involved in phagocytosis, anti-inflammatory, stimulate angiogenesis, secrete fibronectin which is very important for wound repair/healing, also secretes multiadhesive proteins

139
Q

What is a foreign body giant cell or Langhans cell?

A

Macrophages fused together to form large cell when encountering large foreign bodies

140
Q

What do preadipocytes within lateral mesoderm form?

A

White adipocytes

141
Q

What do preadipocytes within paraxial mesoderm form?

A

Brown adipocytes

142
Q

What is function of brown adipocytes?

A

Mitochondrial metabolism of brown adipocytes releases heat rather than ATP

143
Q

What is function of white adipocyte?

A

Storage of fat and energy as triglyceride lipid droplet, provides insulation and cushioning to vital organs

144
Q

What does white adipocytes function AS and produce what?

A

Major endocrine organs
Produces Angiotensinogien AGE, Steroids, Leptin (which targets hypothalamus and regulates eating behavoir)

145
Q

What are brown adipocytes associated with?

A

Capillaries and direct sympathetic innervation

146
Q

Where do mast cells arise from?

A

Mast cell progenitors in bone marrow

147
Q

What stimuli do mast cells respond to most?

A

Histamine and tryptase

148
Q

What are mast cells preformed mediators?

A

Histamine, serine proteases which are typtase and chymase (generates angiotensin II in vascular injury), eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors, heparin

149
Q

What are mast cells newly synthesized mediators?

A

Leukotriene C (causes bronchiospasm), tumor necrosis factor alpha, several interleukins

150
Q

What is mast cell metochromatic property?

A

Granules in cytoplasm that interact with chemical in blue dye and turn purple or blue

151
Q

What are B lymphocytes?

A

Originate in bone marrow, can differentiate into plasma cells; secrete antibodies

152
Q

What are T lymphocytes?

A

Originate in bone marrow, mature in thymus, function in cell immunity, memory cells

153
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Derived from B lymphocytes, produce specific antibodies to specific antigen

154
Q

What characteristic do plasma cells have?

A

Clumps of heterochromatin and euchromatin that looks like cartwheel or clock face arrangement

155
Q

What cells have receptor for IgE?

A

Mast cell and basophils, both cells have histamine and heparin

156
Q

What is proteolytic degradation in collagen breakdown?

A

Occurs outside the cell via matrix metalloproteinases, invasive cancer cells secrete MMPs to break down ECM

157
Q

What is most common collagen type?

A

Type 1, occurs in loose and dense CT, bone, and skin
Strong, provides tensile strength, if lost than bone is effected
Synthesized by osteoblasts

158
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Mutation of type 1 collagen gene, brittle bones

159
Q

What is type 2 collagen?

A

Present in cartilage, vitreous body of eye
Synthesizes by chondroblasts

160
Q

What is Kneist dysplasia?

A

Mutation of type 2 collagen gene, restricted joint mobility, holes in cartilage, will not reach correct height

161
Q

What is type 3 collagen?

A

Reticular fibers
Synthesized by fibroblasts, reticular cells in bone marrow, smooth muscle cells

162
Q

What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

Mutation of collagen types 1,3,4,5
Hypermobility of joints, fragile skin, rupture of vessels and internal organs, delayed wound healing

163
Q

What is type 4 collagen?

A

Present as meshwork sheets in basal lamina
Synthesized by epithelial cells, muscle cells, schwann cells

164
Q

What is alport syndrome?

A

Renal failure due to structural changes in glomerular basement membrane of kidneys, hearing loss, ocular lesions

165
Q

What is type 5 collagen?

A

Dense irregular CT, placenta, bone, blood vessel wall

166
Q

What is type 7 collagen?

A

Anchoring fibrils
Synthesized by fibroblasts

167
Q

What is dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa including kindler syndrome?

A

Severe blistering and scarring of skin after minor trauma, absence of anchoring fibrils

168
Q

What are elastic fibers formed by?

A

Fibrillin microfibrils embedded in cross linked elastin
Synthesized by fibroblasts

169
Q

The cross links between elastin subunits consist of what?

A

Desmosine, each of which involves 4 converted lysins into two elastin molecules, forming coiled appearance to elastic fiber

170
Q

Elastin in elastic arteries is synthesized by what?

A

Smooth muscle cells, NOT fibroblasts

171
Q

What are effects of sunlight on elastic fibers?

A

Fiber disintegration
Fiber thickening
Fiber proliferation
Contribute to decreased skin elasticity and appears as deep wrinkles

172
Q

Where are reticular fibers/type 3 collagen formed?

A

In loose CT-formed by fibroblasts
In hematopoietic and lymphatic tissues-formed by reticular cells

173
Q

What does ground substance contain?

A

Proteoglycans which are GAGs bound to a core protein
Multiadhesive glycoproteins
Glycosaminoglycans GAGs

174
Q

Why is hydration of ECM is important?

A

So substances can diffuse through, resists compression and gives support

175
Q

Negative charge to GAGs attracts water, resulting in formation of?

A

Highly hydrated gels; permits diffusion of water soluble substances

176
Q

Failure of degredation results in accumulation of GAGs in genetic disorders like?

A

Hurler syndrome
Hunter syndrome
Sanfilippo syndrome
Morquio syndrome

177
Q

What glycosaminoglycan exists as just a GAG, not as a proteoglycan?

A

Hyaluronic acid, does not attach to core protein

178
Q

What does aggrecan exist in cartilage as?

A

Aggrecan-hyaluronan aggregates

179
Q

What is perlecan?

A

Proteoglycan in all basal lamina

180
Q

What is aggrecan?

A

Large proteoglycan with core protein bound with keratan sulphate and chrondriotin sulphate

181
Q

What are examples of multiadhesive glycoproteins?

A

Laminin-binding sites for type 4 collagen, integrins, and specific proteoglycans
Fibronectin-binding sites for collagen and specific GAGs and integrins, important for cell adhesion and cellular migration through ECM
Tenascin-present in embryonic tissue and wound healing
Osteopontin-binds to osteoclasts and attaches them to bone, plays role in calcification of ECM

182
Q

What do chondrocytes secrete?

A

Type II collagen, and ECM

183
Q

What does hyaline cartilage consist of?

A

Type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins

184
Q

What does elastic cartilage consist of?

A

Elastic fibers and elastic lamellae (condensation of fibers), type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins

185
Q

What does fibrocartilage consist of?

A

Type 1 and type II collagen, proteoglycans, multiadhesive glycoproteins

186
Q

What do fibroblasts secrete?

A

Type 1 collagen

187
Q

Where can fibrocartilage be found?

A

Knee meniscus, pubic symphasis, intervetebral discs

188
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A

Nose, articular joint, costal cartilage, trachea, larynx, bronchi of lungs

189
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

Pinna of ear, epiglottis

190
Q

What three GAGs does aggrecan hyaluronan aggregates have?

A

Chondrotin sulfate, hyaluronan, keratan sulfate

191
Q

What does type IX collagen do in cartilage?

A

Facilitates fibril interaction with matrix proteoglycan

192
Q

What does type X collagen do?

A

Organizes fibrils into three dimensional hexagonal lattices

193
Q

What does type XI collagen do?

A

Regulates fibril size

194
Q

What is role of multiadhesive glycoproteins in cartilage?

A

Influence the interaction between chondrocytes and matrix molecules
ex. Anchorin CII helps anchor chondrocytes to matrix, acts as collagen receptor on chondrocytes

195
Q

What is clinical significance to multiadhesive glycoproteins?

A

Used as markers to detect cartilage turnover and degeneration

196
Q

What is important role of aggrecans to cartilage ECM?

A

Binds water molecules with high affinity, hydrated ECM matrix provides resilience and diffusion of metabolites

197
Q

What does calcification of ECM do to cartilage (happens with aging)?

A

Results in chondrocyte cell death

198
Q

Where is highest concentration of proteoglycans, hyaluronan and multiadhesive glycoproteins at?

A

Capsular matrix, and only has type VI collagen fibrils

199
Q

What does territorial matrix of cartilage contain?

A

Randomlly arranged type II collagen fibrils, less concentration of sulfated proteoglycans

200
Q

What type of collagen assembles in interterritorial matrix?

A

Type II collagen

201
Q

What concentration of proteoglycans does interterritorial matrix have?

A

Lowest concentration

202
Q

What transcription factor triggers chondrogenic nodules to differentiate into chondroblasts?

A

SOX-9

203
Q

What is endomysium made of?

A

Type 3 collagen, contains finest capillaries

204
Q

What is perimysium made of?

A

Thick collagen, contains larger blood vessels

205
Q

What is epimysium made of?

A

Type 1 collagen, contains major nerve and blood vessels

206
Q

What does Titin do?

A

Center the thick filaments in middle between 2 z lines, also prevents excessive stretching of sarcomere

207
Q

What does alpha actin do?

A

Anchors actin filaments to z line

208
Q

What does nebulin do?

A

Helps alpha actin anchor actin filaments to z line, maintains length of actin filaments

209
Q

What does myomesin do?

A

Has myosin binding protein, attaches mysoin filaments with each other, holds myosin filaments at M line

210
Q

What does Mysoin binding protein C do?

A

Helps myomesin with its function

211
Q

What does dystrophin do?

A

Attaches actin to laminin in the external lamina

212
Q

What can be complication if dystrophin is abnormal?

A

Skeletal muscle contraction complications, Duchene muscular dystrophy

213
Q

What does desmin do?

A

Attaches z discs to each other, and attaches z disc to the sarcolemma using linkage protein ANKYRIN

214
Q

What is the length of TRIADS?

A

A-I junction to A-I junction

215
Q

What are cardiac muscles characterized by?

A

Large mitochondria

216
Q

What three types of junctional complexes are found in cardiac muscle?

A

Fascia adherens, macula adherens, gap junctions

217
Q

What are e-cadherins dependent on?

A

Calcium

218
Q

Where can fascia adherens be found in cardiac muscle?

A

Transverse portion

219
Q

What do fascia adherens attach to in cardiac muscle?

A

Actin filaments of last sarcomere

220
Q

Where are gap junctions located in cardiac muscle? What do they provide muscle?

A

Lateral portion
Allows communication and cardiac muscles to work as syncytium

221
Q

What is the length of DIADS?

A

Z line to Z line

222
Q

How are smooth muscle cells attached?

A

GAP junctions, called NEXUS junction

223
Q

What are the intermediate filaments of cytoskeleton smooth muscle made of?

A

Desmin and (vimentin in blood vessels)

224
Q

What thin filaments and intermediate filaments in smooth muscle attached to?

A

Dense bodies

225
Q

Why is smooth muscle thrown in different directions when contracting?

A

Desmin attached to sarcolemma

226
Q

What does smooth muscle have lots of that induce cisterna to discharge and regulate calcium?

A

Caveolin lipid rafts

227
Q

What does smooth muscle have abundantly in extracellular area?

A

Reticular fibers

228
Q

What thin actin filaments does smooth muscle contain?

A

Caldesmon and calponin, actin, tropomyosin

229
Q

What do caldesmon and calponin do?

A

Actin binding proteins that block myosin binding sites, action is calcium dependent

230
Q

What is arrangement of myosin II in smooth muscle?

A

Side-polar thick filament

231
Q

What do smooth muscle cells synthesize?

A

CT matrix, type 4 collagen, type 3 collagen, synthesizes type 1 collagen and elastin in blood vessels, synthesizes proteoglycans and glycoproteins

232
Q

What is repair process for smooth muscles?

A

Regenerate easily, can use undifferentiated stem cells

233
Q

What is repair process for skeletal muscle?

A

Myocytes and myotubules

234
Q

What is repair process for cardiac muscle?

A

Scar tissue formation for minor injury, cannot repair extensive injury

235
Q

What is glycophorin A in RBCs?

A

Attachment to band 3, contains antigenic sites for determning ABO blood types

236
Q

What is glycophorin C in RBCs?

A

Attachment to membrane lattice and plasma membrane

237
Q

What is band 3 protein?

A

Stabilizes plasma membrane by means of attachment to submembranous lattice, anchors cytoskeleton proteins, binds hemoglobin, anion transport

238
Q

What is spectrin?

A

Main peripheral membrane protein in plasma membrane, forms lattice of spectrin and contributes to the shape of erythrocytes and provides elastic properties

239
Q

What is spectrin anchored to lipid bilayer by?

A

Band 4.1 protein and ankyrin complex

240
Q

What is band 4.1 protein?

A

Contains band 4.1, actin, tropomyosin, tropomodulin, and adductin
Interacts with glycoprotein C

241
Q

What is ankyrin protein complex?

A

Contains ankyrin and band 4.2 protein
Interacts with band 3 protein
Binds integral membrane proteins to the spectrin lattice by forming complex with band 4.2 protein

242
Q

What causes rouleuax formation (coin stacking RBC)?

A

Increased levels of plasma immunoglobulin

243
Q

What do WBC granulocytes and agranulocytes both have?

A

Primary granules, called Axurophilic granules- function as lysosomes

244
Q

What granulocytes does WBC have?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

245
Q

What agranulocytes does WBC have?

A

Monocytes, lymphocytes

246
Q

What is most common circulating leukocyte?

A

Neutrophils

247
Q

What is least common circulating leukocyte?

A

Basophil

248
Q

What do azurophilic granules contain?

A

Myeloperoxidase, neutrophil defensin, acid hydrolases

249
Q

What do neutrophil small granules contain?

A

Enzymes, antimicrobial peptides, membrane proteins

250
Q

What do neutrophil tertiary granules contain?

A

Phosphatases, metalloprteinases-(break down ECM)

251
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

Local tissue response leads to cytokine release
Cytokines signal post capillary venules to insert selectins E and P
Passing neutrophils attach to selectins
Neutrophil secretes integrins and endothelial cells produce integrin ligand ICAM-1
Neutrophils get firmly attached
Neutrophils put out pseudopodia and migrate into loosened ECM CT (ECM loosened by heparin and histamine secreted by perivascular mast cells)
Proteases secreted by neutrophil destroy basement membrane, neutrophil becomes active in CT matrix and move towards injury site

252
Q

What reactions are eosinophils associated with?

A

Immediate allergic reactions, Helminth and parasitic infections

253
Q

What characteristic do eosinophils have?

A

Crystalloid body, secretes major basic proteins

254
Q

What do histaminases do in eosinophils?

A

Neutralizes histamines, reduces allergic reaction

255
Q

What do mast cells and basophils have in common?

A

Histamine and heparin
IgE antibody surface receptors

256
Q

What is the only cell that can circulate between lymphoid tissue and blood?

A

Lymphocyte

257
Q

What do NK cells secrete?

A

Perforins, Granzyme (proteases)

258
Q

What does the granulomere (inner) part of glycolyx coat contain?

A

Alpha granules, delta granules, lambda granules/lysosomes, microperoxisomes

259
Q

What do platelet alpha granules do?

A

Facilitate blood coagulation and platelet aggregation, growth factors

260
Q

What do platelet delta granules do?

A

Facilitate platelet adhesion and vasoconstriction
Contain ADP and ATP, serotonin, histamine

261
Q

What do platelet lambda granules/lysosomes do?

A

Hydrolytic enzymes function in clot reabsorption

262
Q

What is platelet open canalicular system?

A

Invaginations of plasma membrane

263
Q

What is platelet dense tubular system of hylomere?

A

Stores calcium ions

HHP (17 decks)

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