gynae infection - viral Flashcards

1
Q

who is susceptible to CMV

A

immunocompromised eg HIV, organ transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

histology CMV

A

owls eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

congenital CMV symptoms

A

IUGR, blueberry muffin skin, microcephaly, deaf, encephalitis (seizures), hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which type of HSV more likely causes cold sores vs genital

A

HSV1 = mouth // HSV2 = genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

symptoms genital herpes

A

painful genital ulcers (dysuria + itch) // primary infection more severe eg headache, fever, malaise // inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

invx genital herpes

A

NAAT (+ HSV serology)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

mx genital herpes

A

saline bath, topical lidocaine // oral aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is C section adviced with genital herpes

A

if primary attack at 28 weeks or later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mx for HSV gingivostomatits

A

oral aciclovir + chlorehexidine mouthwash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what causes genital warts

A

HPV 6 + 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1st line mx genital warts

A

topical podophyllum (multiple, non-keritanised) or cryotherapy (solitary, keritanised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2nd line mx genital warts

A

imiquimod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what cells are infected in HIV

A

CD4 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is HIV seroconversion (primary HIV)+ when does it happen

A

when body reacts to virus and antibodies begin to form (may not be detected yet) // 3-12 weeks after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

features HIV seroconversion

A

flu like eg sore throat, lymph, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, rash, mouth ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when do HIV antibodies become positive

A

usually 4-6 weeks can take 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do you test for HIV antibodies

A

ELISA test + blot assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when does HIV antigen usually become positive

A

1 week to 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is HIV diagnosed

A

combined p24 antigen + HIV antibody // positive on 2 separate occasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is testing for HIV contacts done

A

test at 4 weeks and again at 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ART for HIV

A

3 total // 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhib drugs + 1 protease inhib OR a non-nuclease reverse transcriptase inhib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when should ART in HIV be started

A

as soon as diagnosis is confirmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what effect does ritonavir (protease inhibitor) have on p450

A

inhibitor

24
Q

who can get HIV prep and what drugs are given

A

high risk eg partner // Tenofovir and emtricitabine

25
Q

what part of disease activity increases risk of HIV transmission

A

raised viral load

26
Q

what does not require PePSE

A

human bites

27
Q

mx HIV PEPSE

A

start taking within 72 hours // combination of ART // take for 4 weeks

28
Q

symptoms from effects of virus in HIV (not related to low CD4

A

worsening psoriasis + dermatitis !! // diarrhoea // recurrent STI

29
Q

what opportunistic infections can cause diarrhoea in HIV

A

cryptosporidium (most common) // CMV // giardia // myobacterium

30
Q

incubation and diagnosis cryptosporidium

A

7 days // zeihl neelsen (acid fast stain)

31
Q

when is mycobacterium seen in HIV + symptoms

A

CD4 <50 // sweats, fever, hepatomegaly, deranged LFTs

32
Q

mx mycobacterium HIV

A

rifabutin, ethambutol and clarithromycin

33
Q

what HIV infections occur at CD4 200-500

A

oral thrush // shingles // hairy leukoplakia // kaposi sarcoma

34
Q

what HIV infections occur at CD4 100-200

A

Cryptosporidiosis // cerebral toxoplasmosis // leukoencephalopathy // jirovecii pneumonia // dementia

35
Q

what HIV infections occur at CD4 50-100

A

aspergillosis // oesophageal candidas // CNS lymphoma

36
Q

what HIV infections occur at CD4 <50

A

CMV retinitis // mycobacterium

37
Q

what patients require Jiroveci prophylaxis

A

those with CD4 <200

38
Q

mx Jiroveci pneumonia

A

co-trimoxazole (or IV pentamidine) // steroids if hypoxic

38
Q

invx Jiroveci pneumonia

A

CXR // exercise induced desaturation

39
Q

most common cause cerebral lesions HIV

A

toxoplasmosis

40
Q

symptoms toxoplasmosis

A

headache, confusion, drowsy (mimics glandular fever)

41
Q

invx toxoplasmosis

A

CT - ring enhancing lesions

42
Q

mx toxoplasmosis

A

sulfadiazine or pyrimethamine

43
Q

what is primary CNS lymphoma assoc with

A

EBV

44
Q

invx CNS lympoma

A

CT - solid enhancing lesions // thallium SPECT +ive

45
Q

mx CNS lymphoma

A

steroids + chemo (methotrexate) + brain irradiation

46
Q

what causes encephalitis in HIV

A

HIV or CMV

47
Q

most common fungal CNS infection in HIV

A

cryptococcus

48
Q

invx cryptococcus meningitis HIV

A

LP - high opening pressure, raised protein, reduced glucose

49
Q

what causes Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

JC virus –> demylination

50
Q

symptoms Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

behavioural changes

51
Q

invx Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

CT // MRI better for demyelination

52
Q

invx HIV dementia

A

CT - cortical atrophy

53
Q

what causes kaposis sarcoma

A

herpes virus 8 (HHV8)

54
Q

symptoms kaposis

A

purple plaques on skin or mucosa (GI or resp) // haemoptysis and pleural effusion

55
Q

mx HIV oesophaegal candidas

A

(CD4<100) / fluclonazole and itraconazole

56
Q

RF invasive aspergillosis

A

HIV, leukaemia, broad spec abx