antenatal care Flashcards

1
Q

what supplement is advised for all women trying to get pregnant

A

folic acid 400mg from before conception to 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which vitamin supplements may be advised and which should be avoided

A

10mg vit D is good // not Vit A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

foods to avoid in pregnancy

A

listeria: unpasturised milk, ripened soft cheese, pate or undercooked meat // salmonella: avoid raw eggs, meat (esp chicken)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when should flying be avoided in pregnancy

A

single pregnancy >37 weeks // multiple pregnancies > 32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

natural remedies for N+V in pregnancy

A

ginger or p6 acupuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

medications for N+V in pregnancy

A

antihistamines (eg promethazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

function folic acid

A

helps synthesise DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what can cause folic acid deficiency

A

phenytoin // methotrexate // pregnancy // alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

high risk neural tube defects

A

previous defect in parents or pregnancy // AED, coeliac, diabetes, thalassaemia // obese >30 BMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

risks with smoking and pregnancy + canabis

A

low birthweight // preterm // IUGR // stillbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

risks of alcohol in pregnancy

A

fetal alcohol syndrome (smooth philtrum, thin lips, microcephaly) // IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

risks of cocaine in pregnancy

A

maternal HTN or placental abruption // foetal prematurity or abstinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

heroin risks pregnancy

A

abstinence syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how many antenatal checks are recommended in first pregnancy (uncomplicated)

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how many antenatal checks are recommended in subsequent pregnancy (uncomplicated)

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which conditions are generally screened for in pregnancy (maternal)

A

anaemia // UTI // bloods group + rhesus // pre-eclampsia // hep B, HIV, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which conditions are generally screened for in pregnancy (foetal)

A

downs // abnormalities // neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is the booking visit in pregnancy

A

8-12 weeks (ideally <12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

invx booking visit

A

BP, urine, BMI // FBC, glucose, rhesus // Hep B, syphilis, HIV // urine culture

20
Q

when are scans to confirm dates

A

10-13+6

21
Q

what can increased nuchal translucency on USS indicate

A

downs // congenital heart defect // abdo wall defect

22
Q

what can cause hyperechogenic bowel on USS indicate

A

CF // downs // CMV

23
Q

when is the combined testing for downs syndrome offered

A

11-13.6

24
Q

when is the quadruple testing for downs syndrome offered

A

those who missed combined testing - 14-20 weeks

25
Q

when is the anomaly scan performed

A

18-20+6

26
Q

when does second screen for anaemia and blood antibodies occur

A

28 weeks

27
Q

when would first + second dose of anti-D be given to negative mothers

A

28 weeks // 34 weeks

28
Q

when is cephalic version indicated

A

36 weeks

29
Q

when is placental site identified

A

week 20

30
Q

how is SFH measured

A

top of pubic bone to top of uterus (centimetres)

31
Q

when should SFH be used

A

from 20 weeks // pregnancy should be within 2cm of gestation

32
Q

what can increase FSH

A

fibroids, BMI, polyhydramnios

33
Q

what tests are done in combined test for downs

A

nuchal transluceny + serum bHCG + pregnancy assoc plasma protein A (PAPPA)

34
Q

what results from combined test indicate downs

A

thick nuchal translucency + raised hCG + low PAPPA

35
Q

what results from combined test indicate edwards or patus

A

similar to downs but LOWER hCG

36
Q

what is performed in quadruple test for downs + what indicates it

A

low AFP + low oestrogen + raised hCG + raised inhibin

37
Q

how can trisomy results be interpreted

A

lower chance (less than 1 in 150) or high chance (more than 1 in 150)

38
Q

what further screening is offered if high chance trisomy + what is involved

A

non-invasive prenatal test –> ccfDNA (detection 99%)

39
Q

what diagnostic testing for downs is done in 1st trimester and what is the risk

A

chorionic villus sampling –> 2% risk miscarriage, adequate sample

40
Q

what diagnostic testing for downs is done in 2nd trimester and what is the risk

A

amniocentesis –> 1% risk, sample may not be big enough

41
Q

what does it mean to be rhesus negative

A

no D antigen on red blood cell

42
Q

what type of pregnancy is at risk from rhesus incompatibility

A

rhesus -ive mum and rhesus +ive baby

43
Q

what causes rhesus reaction in pregnancy

A

maternal blood forms antibody against rhesus antigen in baby –> IgG produced –> attacks baby and causes haemolysis

44
Q

consequences of rhesus haemolysis on baby

A

hydrops fetalis // jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly // heart failure

45
Q

when should antiD be given

A

28 and 34 weeks (or after sensitising events + klehaur test))

46
Q

sensitising events in pregnancy

A

delivery // TOP // miscarriage >12 weeks // ectopic // external cephalic version //APH // amniocentesis, CVS // trauma

47
Q

what tests are done to babies with rhesus -ive mother

A

FBC, blood group, coombes test (for antiglobin)