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2025 PHPM Royal College Study - based on AN Summary Notes > Grab bag- KNOW THESE > Flashcards

Grab bag- KNOW THESE Flashcards

1
Q

what four diseases require notification to WHO in all circumstances under the IHR (2005) (4)

A

1- smallpox
2- poliomyelitis due to wild type poliovirus
3- human influenza caused by a new subtype
4- severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

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2
Q

what are the 4 principles from Upshur’s ethical framework for public health (4)

A

1- harm principle
2- least restrictive or coercive means
3- reciprocity principle
4- transparency principle

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3
Q

what is a standard drink in Canada (4)

A

1- 12oz bottle of beer
2- 5oz glass of wine
3- 1.5oz shot of spirits

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4
Q

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what is the drinks/week that constitutes low risk (1)

A

1- having 2 or less standards drinks per week

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5
Q

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, if you drink 3-6 standard drinks per week, your risk of what health outcomes increase? (1)

A

1- risk of developing certain cancers - breast, colon, GI (rectum, liver, esophagus, larynx, throat, mouth)

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6
Q

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, if you drink 7+ standard drinks per week, your risk of what health outcomes increase? (1)

A

1- risk of heart disease and stroke

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7
Q

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what are some short-term risks of alcohol consumption (5)

A

1- injury to self and others
2- behaviours - impulsive, aggressive
3- impaired attention/judgment
4- impaired memory/cognition
5- nausea/vomiting

etc.

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8
Q

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what are some short-term risks of alcohol consumption after severe intoxication (3)

A

1- coma
2- respiratory arrest
3- death

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9
Q

what is latent period (1)

A

1- interval between initial contact with an infectious agent and the beginning of the communicable period (individual is not infectious
during the latent period)

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10
Q

what is incubation period (2)

A

1- interval between initial contact with an infectious agent and the first appearance of symptoms
2- can overlap with communicable period - I.e. you can be infectious before symptoms have appeared

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11
Q

what are the steps for drinking water treatment (7, 7ab)

Spicy Pickles Can Force Sylas (to) Fart Dangerously

A

1- Screening
2- Pre-chlorination
3- Coagulation
4- Flocculation
5- Sedimentation
6- Filtration
7- Disinfection:
7a- Primary disinfection
7b- Secondary disinfection

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12
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘screening’ (1)

A

1- Screening: remove debris

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13
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘pre-chlorination’ (1)

A

1- Pre-chlorination: arrests biological growth of
incoming source water

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14
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘coagulation’ (1)

A

1- Coagulation: chemicals rapidly mixed water in
order to bind large particles together

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15
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘flocculation’ (1)

A

1- Flocculation: gentle mixing used to increase the
particle size to create even larger suspended
particles (flocs)

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16
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘sedimentation’ (1)

A

1- Sedimentation: suspended particles settle out

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17
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is filtration (1)

A

1- Filtration: pass water through filter to capture
solid particles. Effective against protozoa and cysts

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18
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is disinfection (1)

A

1- Disinfection: inactivation of pathogens not
physically removed by filtration

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19
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is primary disinfection (1a, 1b examples - UV-CO)

A

1a- Primary disinfection: kills/inactivates bacteria,
viruses, other pathogens early in treatment process
before water enters distribution system
1b- e.g. chlorine, ozone, UV

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20
Q

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is secondary disinfection (1a, 1b examples - MCC)

A

1a- Secondary disinfection: provides longer-
lasting water treatment as the water moves through
distribution system
1b- e.g. monochloramine, chlorine, chlorine dioxide

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21
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘chlorination’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed - TCB (3)

A

YES
1- trihalomethanes
2- chloroform
3- bromodichloromethane

22
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘ozone’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed (1)

A

1- no

23
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘UV radiation’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed (1)

A

1- no

24
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘chlorination’, what are pros - CM (2)

A

1- residuals are easy to monitor
2- it is cheap

25
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘chlorination’, what are cons -TB (2)

A

1- May leave taste/odour
2- Disinfection by-products
can be harmful

26
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘ozone’, what are pros - TD (2)

A

1- high disinfectant capacity
2- removes taste/odour

27
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘ozone’, what are cons - EES (3)

A

1- expensive
2- energy intensive
3- requires secondary disinfection

28
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘UV radiation’, what are pros (1)

A

1- simple process

29
Q

re: primary disinfection ‘UV radiation’, what are cons (2)

A

1- requires Pre-treatment
filtration
2- Requires secondary disinfection

30
Q

define bias (2)

A

1- Consistent and systematic deviation from the truth
2- impacts the difference between the observed value and true value in a predictable manner (i.e. always occurs in the same direction)

31
Q

what are biases in screening (3)

A

1- Selection bias: healthy people more likely to be screened
2- Lead-time bias: overestimate survival by detecting disease earlier
3- Length-time bias: overestimate survival by detecting slowly progressing disease

32
Q

if H0 (null hypothesis) is no disease/outcome, what is meant by alpha (1)

A

1- Type 1 error - false positive - error that occurs when you reject the null when it is true
e.g. you tell a man they they are pregnant

33
Q

if H0 (null hypothesis) is no disease/outcome, what is meant by beta (1)

A

1- Type 2 error - false negative - error that occurs when you don’t reject the null when it is false
e.g. you tell a visibly pregnant woman that they are not pregnant

34
Q

define basic reproductive number (R0) (1)

A

1- Average number of secondary infections
generated by the first infectious individual in a
population of completely susceptible individuals

35
Q

what are SMART objectives/goals (5)

A

1- specific
2- measurable
3- achievable
4- relevant
5- timely

36
Q

what is the scope of the federal Quarantine Act (1)

A

1- Quarantine Act can only be invoked for issues between points of entry and exit into Canada (i.e. no jurisdiction on movement between PT)

37
Q

what are the most effective strategies to prevent falls, generally (in the elderly) - STN SMSM (8)

A

1- Exercise: challenge your balance and build strength.
2- sleep sufficiently
3- Take your time: don’t rush when walking or getting up.
4- Nutrition and hydration
5- Get your sight and hearing checked regularly - use glasses/hearing aids as needed
6- Medications - avoid polypharmacy, some meds can make you dizzy/prone to fall
7- shoes - Wear well-fitting, sturdy shoes.
8- mobility device - Consider using a cane or other mobility device if needed.

38
Q

what are strategies to prevent falls indoors (in the elderly) - LCGRW (5)

A

1- Lighting - sufficient
2- clutter-free - Keep stairs free of clutter and exterior stairs and walkways free of clutter, ice or snow.
3- grab bars - Install hand rails along stairs and safety grab bars in the bathroom.
4- remove hazards - slipping and tripping hazards, and use non-slip mats or rugs.
5- within reach - Ensure regularly used items are within reach.

39
Q

define primary data (1)

A

1- new data collected as part of an assessment, study, etc.

40
Q

define secondary data (1)

A

1- pre-existing data is then synthesized or processed and can come from multiple sources of primary data

41
Q

what are some sources of primary data - SIP-FF (5)

A

1- interviews (key informant)
2- focus groups
3- surveys/questionnaires
4- public meetings
5- forums

42
Q

what are some sources of secondary data - SHG MRCS (7)

A

1- statistics canada (e.g. CCHS)
2- health care data (e.g. from CIHI)
3- government reports and websites
4- municipal planning documents
5- reports from public health agencies
6- community - data from community organizations
7- school board data

43
Q

what are groups generally considered at higher risk for various diseases (10)

A

1- extremes of age - young children, elderly
2- immunocompromised
3- chronic medical conditions
4- comorbid medical conditions
5- rural/remote/Northern place of living
6- pregnant people
7- indigenous people
8- immigrants/newcomers? (Depends on disease - look at context)
9- those who are hospitalized or in ICU
10- institutionalized (incarcerated, LTC, etc.)

44
Q

define vaccine hesitancy (1)

A

1- Delay in acceptance or refusal of vaccines despite availability of vaccine services

45
Q

what are categories of reasons for vaccine hesitancy (3)

A

1- complacency
2- convenience
3- confidence

46
Q

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does complacency mean - NE (2)

A

1- need - Lack of perceived need or value for vaccine
2- experience - Lack of experience with vaccine preventable
diseases

47
Q

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does convenience mean - AC (2)

A

1- access - Lack of access (geographic barriers, time barriers)
2- Cost barriers

48
Q

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does confidence mean - LF- PI-PARDS (9)

A

1- Lack of trust in vaccine, provider, or the process
2- Fear of being injected with a substance derived
from disease-causing organisms
3- Past adverse experiences
4- intimidated - Feeling intimidated
5- Perceived risk/benefit
6- Actual risk/benefit (technical concerns over
probability of side effects)
7- Religious beliefs
8- Social context and media personalities
9- Distrust of health system, industry, government

49
Q

SEE MEASLES, MPOX, (CONGENITAL) SYPHILIS SLIDE DECKS

A
50
Q

What are modifiable risk factors that could be relevant to many (if not most) diseases (4)

A

1- exercise/physical activity
2- diet
3- alcohol consumption & tobacco use
4- overweight/obesity

51
Q

what are the core pillars of the PHAC STBBI action plan (4 +1)

A

1- prevention
2- testing
3- initiation of care and treatment
4- ongoing care and support

5- enabling environment underpinning it all

2025 PHPM Royal College Study - based on AN Summary Notes (30 decks)

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