GI Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells of the GIT release secretin?

A

S cells

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1
Q

What is a normal ratio of villus height to crypt depth?

A

4:1

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1
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the microvilli?

A

600

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1
Q

What effect does caesarian section have on microbiota?

A

Restricts microbiota diversity

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1
Q

What caues pancreatic release of alpha amylase?

A

Cholecystokinin

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1
Q

Where is the final stage of peptide digestion?

A

At the brush border and in the enterocyte

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1
Q

Which germ layer does the wall of the gut come from?

A

Mesoderm

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1
Q

What do the names of proton pump imhibitors end with?

A

-prazole

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1
Q

Which drugs were used to treat peptic ulcers before PPIs were invented?

A

H2 antagonists

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1
Q

What is magnesium hydroxide used to treat?

A

Antacid treatment

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1
Q

Where is the vomit centre?

A

dorsolateral reticular formation in floor of 4th ventricle in medulla oblongata

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1
Q

Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with motion sickness?

A

Muscarinic and H1

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1
Q

What do we call the macrophages on the inner walls of hepatic sinusoids?

A

Kupfer cells

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1
Q

Some people who are overfed will not put on weight…why not?

A

They increase NEAT non-exercise activity thermogenesis eg fidgeting

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1
Q

How is acute viral hepatitis differentiated from chronic hepatitis?

A

Acute infection shows elevated IgM

Chronic infection shows to IgG

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1
Q

What percentage of regular IVDUs are HCV positive?

A

50-60%

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1
Q

What are the most common viral causes of chronic hepatitis?

A

HBV and HBC

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1
Q

How is chronic hepaptitis staged?

A

Degree of fibrosis

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1
Q

What is the most common type of steatosis?

A

Macrovesicular

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2
Q

How does the vagus nerve directly stimulate acid release in the stomach?

A

Vagal preganglionic cell ACh –> AChNR on post ganglionic –> releases ACh –> AChMR on Parietal cells –> HCl

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3
Q

What percentage of diarrhoea is due to bacteria in developed countries?

A

18%

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3
Q

Where does human papiloma virus like to infect?

A

Basal keratinocytes of transformational zone of cervix

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3
Q

<!--StartFragment-->

What is the hallmark pathological feature of acute and chronic viral hepatitis?<!--EndFragment-->

A

Apoptosis

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4
Q

What must be produced to cause haemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Shiga toxin aka verotoxin

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4
Q

Which intestinal lumenal transporter is inactivated during diarrhoea?

A

Na/Cl co-transporter

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4
Q

What type of muscle is in the esophageal wall?

A

Skeletal muscle proximally and smooth muscle distally

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4
Q

In which parts of the GIT are stem cells present?

A

All parts

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4
Q

What do Brunner’s glands in the GIT do?

A

Secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach

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4
Q

What do G cells of the GIT release?

A

Gastrin

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4
Q

What do we call delayed gastric emptying?

A

Gastrophoresis

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4
Q

What is the definition of chronic gastritis?

A

Stomach inflammation sustained for > 3 months

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4
Q

What is the role of M cells in the GIT?

A

Located over lymphoid aggregates and let antigens and microbes into gut for access to adaptive immune system

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4
Q

What happens to dietary fibre?

A

Metabolised by bacteria in proximal colon to produce short chain fatty acids, which are then absorbed in distal small bowel and proximal colon

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4
Q

What percentage of live births have a birth defect?

A

3%

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4
Q

In the portal lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?

A

Portal triad

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4
Q

Which hepatitis viruses have a vaccine?

A

A, B and D

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4
Q

How is HAV excreted?

A

In faeces

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4
Q

What colour is bilirubin?

A

Yellow

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4
Q

How is bilirubin trasnported in the blood?

A

Bound to albumin

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5
Q

Which bacteria uses Tir to gain entry to the host cell?

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

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6
Q

What is the leading cause of liver transplant?

A

HCV

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7
Q

Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes would suggest what type of diarrhoea?

A

Diarrhoea of small intestine

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7
Q

Which state of Australia has the highest rates of hepatitis A?

A

Norther Territory

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7
Q

What is <!--StartFragment-->choledocholithiasis?<!--EndFragment-->

A

<!--StartFragment-->

blockage of the bile duct<!--EndFragment-->

<!--EndFragment-->

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9
Q

Where do hepatic sinusoids drain?

A

Central vein

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10
Q

What do parietal cells of the stomach produce?

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

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11
Q

What % of people with long-standing GORD develop Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

5-8%

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12
Q

How is hepatitis E virus transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral

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13
Q

How can antibiotics cause diarrhoea?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics can alter gut microbiota and cause overgrowth of Clostridium difficile

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13
Q

Which cells secrete HCl in the stomach?

A

Parietal cells

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13
Q

A new drug is on the market, it is called braprazole. What type of drug is it likely to be?

A

Proton pump inhibitor

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14
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

Failure of hernaited gut to retract into coelom before it closes over

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14
Q

Name two D2 antagonists used to treat nausea

A

Metoclopramide (maxolon)

Prochlorperazine (stemetil)

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15
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction

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15
Q

What is a councilman body?

A

Apoptotic hepatocyte

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16
Q

How is acute hepatitis defined in terms of blood tests?

A

Raised ALT < 6 months

<!--EndFragment-->

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17
Q

What gives urine its yellow colour?

A

Urobilin

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18
Q

Which two toxins does enterotoxic E. coli use?

A

Heat labile toxin (LT) and head sensitive toxin (ST)

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19
Q

What will the sight, smell and taste of food trigger?

A

Salivation, gastric acid secretion, pepsin secretion and relaxation of gastric corpus and fundus

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20
Q

What do we call a finger-like extension of the mucosa of the GIT?

A

Villus

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20
Q

What defines Marsh type 2 coeliac disease?

A

Crypts enlarge

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20
Q

What drug is a systemic antacid?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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21
Q

What does the submucosa contain?

A

Dense, irregular connective tissue with nerves, small ganglia and blood vessels

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21
Q

How much can the stomach increase in size when full of food?

A

300-400%

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21
Q

What catalyses biliverdin –> bilirubin?

A

Biliverdin reductase

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22
Q

Which genes are implicated in coeliac disease?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8

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23
Q

What is the degree of leptin synthesis proportional to?

A

Size of fat storage

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24
Q

Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerbale to paracetemol toxicity?

A

Zone 3

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24
Q

What is the main form of cell death in chronic hepatitis?

A

Apoptosis

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25
Q

In regulation of eating, the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus projects to which other hypothalamic areas?

A

Paraventricular nuc.

Lateral hypothalamus

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27
Q

What is the main immediate treatment goal in diarrhoea and how is this achieved?

A

Replace fluids and electrolytes with oral rehydration

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27
Q

What type of epithelium is in the esophagus?

A

Stratified squamous, non-keratinizing

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27
Q

How does alpha amylase work?

A

Breaks alpha 1,4 linkages between glucose molecules

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27
Q

What happens to fatty acids and monoglycerides inside enterocytes?

A

They are formed into triglycerides in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, then packaged into chylomicrons and secreted into lymphatics

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27
Q

What liver pathology is seen in alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Mallory bodies and hepatocyte swelling

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27
Q

How much does 1 standard rink raise BAC by?

A

0.015%

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28
Q

How is glucose absorbed by enterocytes?

A

SGLT1 Sodium-dependent glucose trasnporter 1

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29
Q

What is the lifespan of a hepatocyte?

A

150 days

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30
Q

What defines Marsh type 1 coeliac disease?

A

Increased lymphocyte:enterocyte ratio (>30/100)

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31
Q

What is the normal ratio of T cells to enterocytes in the duodenum?

A

1:4

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31
Q

Which part of polypeptides do trypsin, elastase and chymotrypsins act on?

A

Interior bonds of peptides

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32
Q

Whih hepatitis viruses are most easily transmitted through contaminated food?

A

A and E

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33
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed?

A

30% in stomach

70% in gut

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34
Q

What stimulates G cells to release gastrin?

A

Amino acids

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35
Q

Which cells make bile?

A

Hepatocytes

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36
Q

Where does the last part of carbohydrate digestion occur?

A

Disaccharidases and isomaltases at the brush border of mucosal enterocytes

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36
Q

In the classic lobule model of the liver, what is at the centre?

A

Central vein

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37
Q

What hormone do enterochromaffin cells release?

A

Serotonin

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37
Q

Which enzyme conjugates bilirubin?

A

Glucuronyl transferase

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39
Q

What does low hemopexin indicate?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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40
Q

What percentage of the liver’s blood supply is from the portal vein?

A

75%

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42
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found?

A

Ileum

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43
Q

What does the allantois give rise to?

A

BLadder and urogenital tract

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45
Q

What is the main function of the muscularis mucosae layer of the GIT wall?

A

Mixing lumenal contents

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45
Q

How is fructose absorbed by enterocytes?

A

GLUT5

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46
Q

What would happen to a person without leptin receptors?

A

They would eat more and become obese

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47
Q

What is the average incubation period for HEV?

A

40 days

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48
Q

What percentage of the liver’s oxygen supply is from the portal vein?

A

50%

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50
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the gall bladder?

A

Simple columnar

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52
Q

What do chief cells of the stomach produce?

A

Proteases eg pepsinogen

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54
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics can cause overgrowth of what in the gut?

A

Clostridium difficile

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56
Q

What does sessile mean?

A

A polyp that is not attached via a stalk

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57
Q

Where does fat digestion begin?

A

In the mouth with a lingual lipase

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58
Q

What is intrinsic factor essential for?

A

Absorption of VitB12

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59
Q

Where are monosaccharides absorbed?

A

Tips of villi in duodenum and jejunum

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59
Q

What does a rising IgG titre indicate in a viral hepatitis?

A

Acute infection

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61
Q

What % of gastric ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?

A

70%

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62
Q

What percentage of energy is expended on basal metabolism?

A

65-75%

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63
Q

What is fatty liver known as?

A

Steatosis

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64
Q

What are the side effects of magnesium hydroxide?

A

Diarrhoea

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65
Q

In dysentery caused by entamoeba histolytica, what will be noted in a stool sample sent for lab investigation?

A

Fewer bacteria, because ameoba eat bacteria

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67
Q

In which layer of the GIT are scattered immune cells found?

A

Lamina propria

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68
Q

What is growth hormone release inhibitor better known as?

A

Ghrelin

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70
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

Diffuse nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis

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71
Q

What pathology is seen in acute viral hepatitis?

A

Lobular dissaray and apoptosis

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72
Q

What is the average incubation period for HBV?

A

60-90 days

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73
Q

What divides the functional/physiological right from left lobes of the liver?

A

Middle hepatic vein

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74
Q

Which cells synthesise leptin?

A

Adipocytes

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75
Q

Where are colonic lymphatics?

A

In the submucosa

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76
Q

Does fat boy or skinny boy have a higher basal metabolic rate?

A

Fat boy

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77
Q

What is stage 4 chronic hepaptitis known as?

A

Cirrhosis

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78
Q

What are the 3 levels of anatomical structure that increase surface area in the small intestine?

A

Plica circulare, villi, microvilli

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79
Q

In what part of the stomach is pepsinogen II secreted?

A

Cose to pylorus

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79
Q

How is hepatitis C virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

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80
Q

What is the problem in Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A

Deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase causes accumulation of toxic unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus

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81
Q

What does low haptoglobin indicate?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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82
Q

By what stage of the GIT is digestion pretty much complete?

A

Half way along jejunum

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83
Q

Which zone of the acinar model is most vulnerable to ischaemia?

A

Zone 3

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84
Q

What is the most significant pathway for alcohol conversion to acetaldehyde?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

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85
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of coeliac disease?

A

Small bowel biopsy during gluten exposure

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87
Q

When does colon cancer become invasive?

A

When it breaches muscularis mucosae

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90
Q

What does pepsinogen do?

A

Hydrolyses bonds between an aromatic amino acid (phenylalanine and tyrosine) and another amino acid

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91
Q

What percentage of diarrhoea is due to viruses in developed countries?

A

40%

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92
Q

How many mls of water are excreted per day in the faeces?

A

100ml

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93
Q

What do I cells of the GIT release?

A

Cholecystokinin

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94
Q

What catalyses haem –> biliverdin?

A

Haem oxygenase

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95
Q

What does pedunculated mean?

A

A polyp attached by a stalk

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96
Q

What do enterochromaffin cell-like cells release?

A

Histamine

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98
Q

What are the pacemaker cells of rhythmic gut movement?

A

Interstitial cells of Cajal

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100
Q

What defines Marsh type 3 coeliac disease?

A

Villi are shortened and blunted: villous:crypt ratio is

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102
Q

What is/are the key histological feature/s of the duodenum?

A

Brunner’s glands, fewer goblet cells

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104
Q

What effects does distension of the stomach have?

A

Activates stretch receptors –> vago-vagal reflexes –> acid and pepsin secretion Stretch –> hypothalamus –> decrease appetite

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106
Q

How does diarrhoea cause death in the delayed phase?

A

Malnutrition

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107
Q

How big is a hepatic sinusoid?

A

0.7 x 2 mm

108
Q

What shape are enterocytes?

A

Columnar

109
Q

Which receptors should be targetted for treatment of nausea associated with exposure to toxins?

A

D2 and 5-HT3

110
Q

What is the most common familial colorectal cancer syndrome?

A

Lynch syndrome

112
Q

What type of nausea would a D2 antagonist be used to treat?

A

Chemical/toxin/drug associated

113
Q

Which bacteria typically causes travelle’s diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)

115
Q

At what time point does hepatitis become chronic?

A

> 6 months

116
Q

What are the important receptors for motion sickness/dizziness/vertigo associated nausea?

A

Muscarinic and H1

117
Q

Where do HBV and HCV replicate?

A

Hepatocytes

118
Q

In what form does hyperbilirubinaemia in the newborn cause neurotoxicity?

A

Kernicterus

<!--EndFragment-->

119
Q

What type of drug is ranitidine?

A

H2 antagonist

120
Q

In a hepatic sinusoid, what is the gap between endothelium and hepatocytes?

A

Space of Disse

121
Q

What is the quality of diarrhoea of small intestine?

A

Infrequent or normal frequency, but much more watery with larger volumes

122
Q

What’s a good antibiotic for anaerobic organisms?

A

Metronidazole

124
Q

Which nerve mediates peristalsis along the esophagus?

A

Vagus

126
Q

Which parts of the GIT have serosa as their outer layer?

A

Parts of the gat not attached to anything –> secretes fluid to stop them sticking

128
Q

How much water does the small intestine absorb per day?

A

8.5 L/day

130
Q

In haemolysis, what is the intermediate product betwen haem and bilirubin?

A

Biliverdin

132
Q

How is a bile duct discriminated from a portal vein and hepatic artery on microscopy?

A

Bile duct has columnar epithelium

133
Q

Which GIT cells secrete intrinsic factor?

A

Parietal cells

135
Q

Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

136
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the villi?

A

30x

138
Q

What % of gastric ulcers are due to NSAIDs?

A

25%

138
Q

What are the important receptors for the chemoreceptor trigger zone?

A

D2 and 5-HT3

139
Q

How is hepatitis D virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

140
Q

Frequent stools of low volume would suggest what type of diarrhoea?

A

Diarrhoea of colon

141
Q

Which hepatitis is most easily transmitted perinatally?

A

HBV

143
Q

What is a rare but potential side effect of H2 antagonists?

A

Gynecomastia

144
Q

What colour of soft drink/lolly will be be sweeter, even with the same amount of sugar?

A

Red

146
Q

How is entamoeba histolytica transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral spread

148
Q

What causes damage to hepatocytes in viral hepatitis?

A

The immune response

149
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Failure of smooth muscle of lower esophageal sphincter to relax causing dysphagia

150
Q

What percentage of oxygenation does blood in the hepatic sinusoids contain?

A

20%

151
Q

What is a prebiotic?

A

A dietary supplement that promotes beneficial bacteria

153
Q

Between which layers of the GIT wall are the myenteric ganglia?

A

Between circular layer and longitudinal layer of muscularis externa

154
Q

Where do hepatitis viruses A and E replicate?

A

In hepatocytes and in intestinal epithelia

156
Q

What causes the secretion of pancreatic lipolytic enzymes?

A

Cholecystokinin

158
Q

??? –> ROH + H2O + NADP+

A

RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 –>

161
Q

What is the prevalence of coeliac disease?

A

1%

162
Q

Which enzyme breaks down alpha 1,6 bonds in polysaccharides?

A

Isomaltase

163
Q

How is giardia intestinalis transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral

164
Q

Which cells in the GIT release somatostatin?

A

D cells

165
Q

Which glands in the GIT secrete an alkaline mucous (mucous and bicarbonate) to neutralise acid from stomach?

A

Brunner’s glands

168
Q

What forms does conjugated bilirubin take?

A

Bilirubin mono-glucuronide and

bilirubin di-glucuronide

170
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis is due to a mutation in which gene?

A

APC

171
Q

What does secretin trigger?

A

Secretion of bicarbonate rich solution from pancreas

172
Q

What is colitis?

A

Inflammation of the bowel

173
Q

What liver pathology does paracetemol toxicity cause?

A

Coagulative necrosis predominantly in zone 3

174
Q

Which GI cells release gastrin?

A

G cells

175
Q

Which cells proteases in the stomach?

A

Chief cells

176
Q

What are 2 commonly used H1 antagonists for motion sickness?

A

Promethazine

Pheniramine

177
Q

Which nerve mediates the cephalic phase of digestion?

A

Vagus

178
Q

What is the antonym of mesenchymal?

A

Epithelial

179
Q

What are the layers of the GIT?

A

1 Epithelium 2 Lamina propria 3 Muscularis mucosae 4 Submucosa 5 Muscularis externa - innter circular layer 6 Muscularis externa - longitudinal layer 7 Serosa/adventitia

180
Q

What does the mesobephric duct become?

A

The vas deferens

181
Q

How much water can the colon absorb in a day?

A

4-5 L/day

182
Q

How is hepatitis A virus transmitted?

A

Faecal-oral route

183
Q

What % of pancreas is endocrine?

A

1-2%

184
Q

What do S cells of the GIT release?

A

Secretin

185
Q

What % of people infected with HCV will clear the virus?

A

30%

186
Q

What is/are the key histological feature/s of the ileum?

A

Peyer’s patches, more goblet cells, shorter villi

188
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the anal canal?

A

Stratified squamous, non-keratinised

190
Q

How is chronic hepatitis graded?

A

Degree of interface inflammation

191
Q

Which cells of the GIT release defensins?

A

Paneth cells

192
Q

How does enteropathogenic E. coli infect enterocytes?

A

It inserts Tir (translocated intimin receptor) into host cell via type 3 secretion. Tir is then expressed on host cell membrane. EPEC is then able to bind to Tir via intimin.

193
Q

What will most labs do to investigate a faeces sample from a GI infection?

A

Microscopy and culture

194
Q

What is the most effective treatment for recurrent C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Faecal transplant

195
Q

What do Harris-Benedict equations estimate?

A

Energy expenditure

196
Q

What is/are the key histological difference/s between small intestine and large intestine?

A

Small intestine has villi; large intestine does not. Large intestine has more goblet cells

197
Q

How does diarrhoea cause death in the acute phase?

A

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

198
Q

Through what does bile flow in liver lobules?

A

Through canaliculi to bile ducts

200
Q

What are the most common classes of cause of unintentional weight loss?

A

Malignancy

GI disease

Endocrinological

Anorexia nervosa

Infection

202
Q

How are most infections from toxoplasma gondii acquired?

A

Undercooked meat

204
Q

What gives faeces its brown colour?

A

Stercobilin

206
Q

What inactivates pepsin?

A

Neutral pH

208
Q

Name 2 proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole and esomeprazole

209
Q

What is a probiotic?

A

A live organism that promotes health when ingested in sufficient quantities

210
Q

Oral rehydration mixtures typically contain what?

A

NaCl, KCl, NaHCO3, glucose

212
Q

What colour is urobilinogen?

A

Clear

213
Q

What is the chief function of the muscularis externa in the GIT wall?

A

Movement of contents along gut

214
Q

What % of the world is HCV positive?

A

3%

216
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

217
Q

How much alcohol is in a standard drink?

A

10g

218
Q

What effects does early-life exposure to hepatitis viruses have on clinical course?

A

Less severe acute infection and higher chance of chronic infection

219
Q

What is the difference between a gastric erosion and acute gastric ulcer?

A

Erosion is limited to mucosa, whereas an acute ulcer penetrates into the submucosa

220
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of steatosis?

A

Alcohol and obesity

222
Q

Which immunoglobulin is most common in the gut?

A

IgA

223
Q

What do D cells in the GIT release?

A

Somatostatin

225
Q

What degree of amplification is achieved in the small intestine by the folds of Kirkring?

A

3x

226
Q

Which hormone is released from the stomach in a fasted state and stimulates appetite?

A

Ghrelin

228
Q

What type of cells infiltrate in interface inflammation of chronic hepatitis?

A

Lymphocytes

229
Q

How much water is excreted in faeces per day?

A

About 100 ml/day

230
Q

What do we call the GI control systems that are activated prior to eating?

A

Cephalic phase of digestion

231
Q

What are the three classes of anti-diarrhoeal agents?

A

Anti-motility. Anti-secretory. Binding agents.

232
Q

What is the average incubation period for HAV?

A

30 days

233
Q

Which pathogen typically causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea?

A

Clostridium dificille

234
Q

Name 6 examples of when you would treat diarrhoea with antibiotics.

A

Cholera. Systemic infection. Immunocompromised. Severe shigella infections. Protazoal infections. Pseudomembranous colitis.

235
Q

What percentage of absorption of products of digestion is done in the small intestine?

A

85%

236
Q

Which reflex mediates signals from the upper GIT that regulate upper GIT functions such as swallowing and acid secretions?

A

Vago-vagal reflex

237
Q

Which part of the villus is secretory in the small intestine?

A

Crypts

238
Q

RH + NADPH + H+ + O2 –>

A

ROH + H2O + NADP+

240
Q

Are gut bacteria predominantly aerobic or anaerobic?

A

99.9% are anaerobic

241
Q

What do we know about clostridium species?

A

Gram positive

Rod

Anaerobe

Spore forming

242
Q

How long does an acute HAV infection typically last?

A

2-3 weeks

243
Q

Which organ is most commonly defective at birth?

A

Heart

244
Q

Which protein transports conjugated bilirubin into the bile canaliculus?

A

cMOAT (aka MRP-2)

245
Q

What is the problem in Dubin-Johnson disorder?

A

Genetic defect in cMOAT causes accumulation of non-toxic conjugated bilirubin

246
Q

What is the most common form of hiatus hernia?

A

Sliding

247
Q

What changes to liver architecture may there by after extensive repair?

A

More fibrous and different lobular structure

248
Q

What are the effects of gastrin?

A

Causes parietal cells to release acid

249
Q

Define dysentery

A

Blood, pus and mucous in faeces

250
Q

What effect will injection of neuropeptide Y have on eating?

A

Increase

251
Q

What is endangered with a fracture of the medial epicondyle of the elbow?

A

Ulna nerve

252
Q

Define mesenchymal cells

A

Cells that lost contact with each other

and move independently and alone

253
Q

Injecting cocaine and amphetamine regulated transcirpt (CART) will have what effect on eating?

A

Decrease

255
Q

What is the most common genetic mutation that can cause obesity?

A

MC4R

Melanocortin 4 receptor

256
Q

How do proton pump inhibitors work?

A

Irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATP ase

257
Q

How do prostaglandins protect the mucosa from injury?

A

Promote HCO3- secretion, inhibit acid secretion, maintain blood flow

258
Q

What is gastrophoresis?

A

Delayed gastric emptying

259
Q

Define coeliac disease

A

Immunologically mediated disease… in genetically susceptible individuals… driven by gluten… which results in chronic inflammation… of the small bowel mucosa

260
Q

What blood test is indicative of acute HBV infection?

A

Anti-HBc IgM

261
Q

What is a very common non-human host of giardia intestinalis in Australia?

A

Possum

262
Q

What % of duodenal ulcers are due to Helicobacter pylori?

A

92%

263
Q

What are the most common pathogenic agents in dysentery?

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli/Shigella Entamoeba histolytica

264
Q

Which hepatitis viruses tend to cause chronic disease?

A

HBV and HCV

265
Q

What effects does CCK cause as a hormone?

A

Contractions of gall bladder to force bile down into duodenum. Releases digestive enzymes from pancreas. Stimulates satiety centre in hypothalamus

266
Q

How can you distinguish an artery from its partner vein?

A

Usually smaller and more tortuous

267
Q

All derivatives of endoderm are _______

A

Epithelial tissues

268
Q

What catalyses acetaldehyde –> acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

269
Q

What happens to goblet cell frequency along the course of the GIT?

A

Increases

270
Q

What are the side effects of sodium bicarbonate?

A

Alkalosis

Kidney problems

Oedema

271
Q

What is the most commonly used H2 antagonist?

A

Ranitidine

272
Q

What will be seen in the stool of an invasive diarrhoea?

A

Blood and pus

273
Q

Blood, but not pus, in diarrhoea suggests which organism?

A

Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli

274
Q

_______ consists of an open chain of four pyrrole rings

A

Bilirubin

275
Q

What happens with withdrawal of antacids?

A

Rebound acidity

276
Q

Where is alanine transferase located?

A

Cytoplasm of hepatocytes

277
Q

What is the most common cause of liver cancer?

A

HBV

278
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring energy expenditure?

A

Double labeled water (Deuterium/oxygen 18)

279
Q

How do antacids work?

A

Neutralise stomach acid

280
Q

What activates cholesterol esterase?

A

Bile

281
Q

What catalyses trypsinogen –> trypsin?

A

Enterokinase and trypsin

282
Q

What is the role of smooth ER in hepatocytes?

A

Fat and steriod metabolism

283
Q

What effects does somatostain have in the GIT?

A

Inhibits histamine release from enterochromaffin cell-like cells Inhibits HCl release from parietal cells

284
Q

Bilirubin consists of an open chain of _______

A

four pyrrole rings

285
Q

What do we call a fertilized ovum?

A

Zygote

286
Q

What are the American (more stringent) criteria for Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Evidence of columnar epithelial lining in esophagus; AND

Evidence of goblet cells in esophagus

287
Q

What is the function of paneth cells?

A

Secrete anti-microbial peptides (defensins)

288
Q

What do paneth cells release?

A

Defensins

289
Q

What is the average incubation period for HCV?

A

6-7 weeks

290
Q

Which germ layer does the epithelium of the gut come from?

A

Endoderm

291
Q

How is hepatitis B virus transmitted?

A

Percutaneous or permucosal

292
Q

Elevated ALT levels in hepatitis indicate what?

A

Replicating virus

293
Q

What percentage of faeces is bacteria?

A

60-70%

294
Q

Inflammation around the portal tract is known as what?

A

Interface inflammation

295
Q

What would happen to energy intake if all microbiota were removed from a person?

A

Energy intake would need to increase

296
Q

Which enzyme activates IL-1?

A

IL-1 converting enzyme (ICE) aka caspase 1

298
Q

Which cells of the GIT release cholecystokinin?

A

I cells

299
Q

What is the pathological hallmark feature of steatohepatitis?

<!--EndFragment-->

A

Hepatocellular ballooning degeneration

300
Q

Where does pinworm live?

A

Anus

301
Q

Pharmacologically, what are the two most important inputs to the vomit centre?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

Vestibular input

302
Q

Which protease acts at the carboxy terminals of peptides?

A

Pancreatic carboxypeptidase

303
Q

What is koilocytosis?

A

A ring around nucleus

305
Q

What is the defining feature of enterohaemorrhagic E. coli?

A

It produces shigatoxin

306
Q

Barrett’s esophagus infers what relative risk for esophageal adenocarcinoma?

A

30-60

307
Q

Particularly offensive smelling diarrhoea stool suggest what type of organism?

A

Anaerobic

308
Q

What is a commonly used antimuscarinic drug for motion sickness?

A

Hyoscine hydrobromide

309
Q

What is the largest internal organ?

A

Liver

310
Q

Where do central veins drain to?

A

Hepatic vein

311
Q

Which enteroendocrine cells release serotonin?

A

Enterochromaffin cells

312
Q

What type(s) of collagen are found in the liver?

A

1 and 3

313
Q

What type of epithelium is present in the small intestine?

A

Cilliated simple columnar

314
Q

What is the pathogen in cholera?

A

Vibrio cholerae

315
Q

What is the last macronutrient to pass through the pylorus after a meal?

A

Fat

316
Q

How much alcohol can a person typically clear in 1 hour?

A

1 standard drink = 0.015% BAC = 10 g alcohol

317
Q

What stimulates D cells to release somatostatin?

A

Luminal acid

318
Q

What effects do artificial sweeteners have on GI activity?

A

Bind to L cell receptors to increase glucose absorption

319
Q

What is the quality of diarrhoea of colon?

A

Frequent stools of low volume

320
Q

How much water does the colon absorb per day?

A

1.4 L/day

321
Q

What are the extra-intestinal complications of entamoeba histolytica?

A

Liver or brain abscesses

322
Q

How do goblet cells contribute to immunity?

A

Secrete mucins, lysozyme and lactoferrin

323
Q

With sustained alcohol intake, what is induced to high levels and provides an alternative pathway for EtOH metabolism?

A

CYP2E1 aka MEOS Microsomal Ethanol Oxidising System

324
Q

What colout is bile?

A

Dark green to yellowish brown

325
Q

How much bile can the human liver produce per day?

A

Close to 1 litre per day

326
Q

What is family of molecules, composed of a steroid structure with four rings, a five or eight carbon side-chain terminating in a carboxylic acid?

A

Bile salts

327
Q

What are the most important bile acids in humans?

A

Cholic acid, deoxycholic acid, and chenodeoxycholic acid

328
Q

What percentage of bile salts are reasorbed and were are they reasbosrbed?

A

95% are reabsorbe din the terminal ileum

329
Q

Which hormones regulate pancreatic juice secretion?

A

Secretin and cholecystokinin

330
Q

Which cells of the pancreas secrete bicarbonate?

A

Duct cells

331
Q

Which cells of the pancreas produce digestive enzymes?

A

Acinar cells

332
Q

What is the predominant component of bile?

A

Cholesterol

333
Q

Which 3 substances can trigger exocrine secretions from the pancreas?

A

ACh (from vagus), CCK and secretin

334
Q

What activates pancreatic lipase?

A

Co-lipase

335
Q

Define cirrhosis

A

Nodules of regenerating hepatocytes surrounded by bands of fibrosis tissue

336
Q

Which hepatitis viruses can cause cirrhosis?

A

B and C

337
Q

Which chronic liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis?

A

All of them

338
Q

Which cells are stimulated to cause fibrosis in cirrhosis?

A

Stellate cells

339
Q

What is a potential consequence of splenomegaly in cirrhosis?

A

Thrombocytopenia

340
Q

What is the most common cause of portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis

341
Q

How is portal hypertension defined?

A

Increase of >8mmHg in the portal vein

OR

Increase of >5mmHg in pressure gradient between portal vein and hepatic vein

342
Q

What are the 3 cardinal consequences of portal hypertension?

A

Splenic enlargment. Ascites. Varices at sites of porto-systemic anastamoses

343
Q

What are the 3 main points of anastomosis between the portal and systemic venous systems?

A

Esophagus. Rectum. Umbilicus

344
Q

Which liver enzymes are located in hepatocyte cytoplasm?

A

AST, ALT, LD

345
Q

Which liver enzymes are associated with the biliary membrane?

A

GGT and ALP

346
Q

Which enzyes are released with hepatocellular damage?

A

AST and ALT

347
Q

Is ALT or AST more specific to liver damage?

A

ALT

348
Q

Where is ALT present?

A

Cytosol of hepatocytes

349
Q

Where is AST present?

A

Cytosol and mitochondria of liver, muscle and blood cells

350
Q

What is suggested if AST > ALT?

A

Acute liver damage

351
Q

What is suggested if ALT > AST?

A

Chronic or resolving liver damage

352
Q

Which of AST and ALT has a longer half life?

A

ALT

353
Q

What does elevated GGT levels suggest?

A

Biliary disease

354
Q

What is the most common cause of raised liver enzymes?

A

Obesity

355
Q

Pain from an ulcer in the duodenum is made _______ with eating

A

Better

356
Q

Pain from an ulcer in the stomach is made _______ with eating

A

worse