general review Flashcards

1
Q

A large layer IV indicates extensive input from the _____.

A

thalamus

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2
Q

Bilateral damage to the DLPFC produces ___.

A

a disorder of executive attention

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3
Q

According to Posner & Petersen, the posterior network has to do with __ and __.

A

orienting and shifting attention

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4
Q

According to Posner & Petersen, the anterior network serves as the ___ system and involves ___.

A

detection subsystem, detecting stimuli either from sensory events or from memory.

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5
Q

According to Posner & Petersen, the alerting network , subserved by the __, can influence both the anterior and posterior networks by controlling ___.

A

Ascending reticular activating system, levels of arousal.

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6
Q

Right hemisphere lesions can impact an individual’s ability to _____.

A

express emotions

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7
Q

Limb apraxia characterized by the loss of ability to conceptualize, plan, and execute the complex sequences of motor actions involved in the use of tools or otherwise interacting with objects in everyday life. The inability to plan movements related to interaction with objects is associated with a lost the perception of the object’s purpose.

A

ideational apraxia

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8
Q

a neurological disorder characterized by the inability to correctly imitate hand gestures and voluntarily mime tool use, e.g. pretend to brush one’s hair. The ability to spontaneously use tools, such as brushing one’s hair in the morning without being instructed to do so, may remain intact, but is often lost.

A

ideomotor apraxia

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9
Q

apraxia associated with bilateral, nonfocal lesions and with left hemisphere lesions, especially in the posterior temporal-parietal junction

A

ideational

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10
Q

usually involves lesions in the left inferior parietal lobe or supplementary motor area or a lesion in the corpus callosum

A

ideomotor

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11
Q

result of lesions in the pyramidal motor system. inability to precisely move one’s hands or legs.

A

limb-kinetic apraxia

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12
Q

patients are aware they have impairments yet show no emotional distress about it

A

anosodiaphoria

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13
Q

part of the brain involving motivation and saliency

A

anterior cingulate

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14
Q

Damage to which part of the brain would result in emotional lability, lack of empathy, and Witzelsucht?

A

orbitofrontal

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15
Q

damage to which part of the brain would result in abulia?

A

DLPFC

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16
Q

passive behavior wherein one exhibits little spontaneous activity and markedly delayed responses and tends to speak briefly or softly

A

abulia

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17
Q

A “tighter” distribution of variability produces ___ reliability

A

high

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18
Q

The simplest IRT model is the ___, which is algebraically equivalent to the __ model.

A

1-parameter, Rasch

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19
Q

The ___ in IRT can be studied for various items to examine the discrimination and difficulty level of items.

A

item characteristic curve

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20
Q

Bayesian models are unique because…

A

They allow one to incorporate prior information into a statistical model.

21
Q

Neocortex has __ layers and limbic cortex has __.

A

6, 3

22
Q

Layer IV corresponds with inputs from the ___

A

thalamus

23
Q

Layers II and III indicate ___ connections

A

cortico-cortical

24
Q

____ agnosias results from extensive damage to visual association areas, while ____ agnosias may involve less extensive or disconnecting lesions in the regions between the __ and __.

A

apperceptive, associative, association cortex, memory

25
Q

Structures in the Papez circuit

A

anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, hippocampus, mammilary bodies, perirhinal-paraphippocampal cortex

26
Q

Patients with aneurysm/hemorrhage in the ACA can develop _____ due to damage to cholinergic neurons in the ___.

A

memory loss, basal forebrain

27
Q

Amnesia is associated with damage to the (4). functional impairment of more than one circuit is necessary for ___ to occur.

A

medial temporal lobe, thalamus, basal forebrain, parahippocampal gyrus; dense amnesia.

28
Q

Damage to the ___ is associated with profound memory loss with confabulation.

A

basal forebrain

29
Q

Damage to the ___ results in apathy and akinetic mutism

A

medial frontal lobe

30
Q

lesions to this area of the brain cause disinhibition

A

orbital frontal lesions

31
Q

damage to this area impacts top-down (executive) attention

A

DLPFC

32
Q

Core diagnostic criteria of delirium (5)

A

disturbance of attention and awareness; acute onset and fluctuation; other cognitive impairments (memory, perceptual, etc.); not better explained by a neurocog disorder or state of sedation/coma; evidence of physiologic/medical cause

33
Q

Etiologies of delirium (I WATCH DEATH)

A

infection, withdrawal, acute metabolic, trauma, CNS pathology, hypoxia, deficiences (nutritional), endocrinopathies, acute vascular, toxins/drugs, heavy metals

34
Q

predisposing/precipitating factors for delirium

A

older age, dementia, chronic illness, polypharmacy, depression, sensory dysfunction, respiratory failure, heart attack, surgery, drug side effects, drug withdrawal, pain

35
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Hyponatremia is a condition where sodium levels in the blood are lower than normal.

36
Q

Compared to dementia, measures of ___ and ___ are among the most sensitive indicators for patients with delirium. Measures of __ and __ are the most sensitive indicators for dementia.

A

attention & dysgraphia; memory & daily functioning.

37
Q

perception or feeling that bugs are crawling over the skin.

A

formication hallucinations.

38
Q

hallucinations that occur when falling asleep.

A

hypnagogic

39
Q

a place has been replaced or duplicated.

A

reduplicative paramnesia

40
Q

vivid, motion filled hallucinations that include the perception of small objects, animals, people, or familiar landscapes. Pleasant/entertaining, but can cause anxiety.

A

peduncular

41
Q

medication classes commonly associated with delirium: (11)

A

tricyclics, anticholinergics, benzos, corticosteroids, H2-receptor antagonists, sedatives, anticonvulsants, antiparkinsonism drugs, sympathomimetics, anti-inflammatories, antineoplastic drugs

42
Q

autonomic storm symptoms and causes

A

high blood pressure, tachychardia, diaphoresis. spinal cord injury above T5, substance use, med side effects, severe brain injury.

43
Q

signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

muscle rigidity, pallor, dyskinesia, hyperthermia, incontinence, unstable blood pressure, tachycardia, pulmonary congestion.

44
Q

signs of serotonin syndrome

A

mental status changes, agitation, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, tremor, diarrhea, incoordination, fever; death if untreated.

45
Q

_____ is the most severe form of ethanol withdrawal, manifested by confusion, sympathetic overdrive (autonomic hyperactivity), and hallucinations, which can progress to cardiovascular collapse.

A

Delirium tremens (DTs)

46
Q

cognitive abilities resistant to aging (5)

A

vocabulary and verbal skills including reading, simple attention, arithmetic, recognition memory and gist recall, remote memory

47
Q

Tests of __, __ and __ have demonstrated the greatest sensitivity in differentiating AD from normal aging and other forms of dementia.

A

declarative/episodic memory (verbal learning and delayed recall), language (naming, word list generation), and EF (cognitive flexibility)

48
Q

____ medications may cause side effects that negatively affect memory in persons with dementia.

A

tricyclic antidepressants