General Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Permanent tissues (3)

A

Cardiac muscle, Nerve, and Skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hallmark of reversible injury

A

Cellular swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hallmark of irreversible injury

A

Membrane damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Morphologic hallmark of cell death

A

Loss of the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Key mediators that attack neutrophils

A

LTB4, C5a, IL-8, and Bacterial products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Activates Mast cells

A
  • Tissue trauma
  • Complement proteins - C3a and C5a
  • Cross-linking of cell surface IgE by antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Complement pathway in which C1 binds IgG or IgM that is bound to antigen

A

Classical pathway (“GM makes Classic cars”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Complement pathway in which microbial products directly activate complement

A

Alternative pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complement pathway in which MBL binds to mannose on microorganisms and activates complement

A

Mannose-binding Lectin pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mechanisms that mediate pain

A
  • PGE2

- Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Upregulates cellular adhesion molecules (ICAM and VCAM) on endothelium (2)

A

TNF and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Upregulates integrins on leukocytes

A

C5a and LTB4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Opsonins

A
  • C3b

- IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fever

A
  • IL-1

- TNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anti-inflammatory (2)

A
  • IL-10

- TGF-beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Defining characteristic of Granuloma

A

Epithelioid histiocytes

  • Macrophages with abundant pink cytoplasm
  • Usually surrounded by giant cells and a rim of lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Disease with noncaseating granulomas on neck (stellate-shaped granulomas)

A

Cat-scratch Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Syndrome with

  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Infection (recurrent)
  • Eczema
A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

“how do you TIE a WASP”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sensitive marker for screening of SLE

A

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Highly specific marker for confirmation of SLE

A

Anti-dsDNA or Anti-Sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Characteristic of drug-induced lupus

A

Antihistone antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Syndrome with:

  • Dry eyes (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca)
  • Dry mouth (Xerostomia)
  • Recurrent dental carries
A

Sjogren syndrome

can’t chew a cracker, dirt in my eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sjogren syndrome is characterized by

A
  • ANA

- anti-ribonucleoprotein antibodies (anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Commonly involved organ in Diffuse type of scleroderma

A

Esophagus

-dysphagia for both solids and liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diffuse type of Scleroderma

A

antibodies to DNA topoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Limited type of Scleroderma

A

CREST syndrome

C - Calcinosis/anti-Centromere antibodies
R - Raynaud phenomenon
E - Esophageal dysmotility
S - Sclerodactyly
T - Telangiectasias of the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SLE, SS, and Polymyositis

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Characteristic of MCTD (2)

A
  • ANA

- serum antibodies to U1 ribonucleoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stable tissues / Quiescent

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common offender of delayed wound healing

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Components of Granulation tissue

A
  • Fibroblasts - deposits type III collagen
  • Capillaries - provide nutrients
  • Myofibroblasts - contracts wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most commonly affected with Kaposi Sarcoma by HHV-8

A
  • Older Eastern European Male
  • AIDS patient
  • Transplant patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most commonly affected with Nasopharyngeal carcinoma by EBV

A
  • Chinese male

- African individual

34
Q

Disease with mutated restriction endonucleases

A

Xeroderma pigmentosa

35
Q

Sporadic mutation of RB gene (2)

A
  • Both hits are somatic

- unilateral retinoblastoma

36
Q

Germline mutation of RB gene

A
  • 2nd hit is somatic
  • Bilateral retinoblastoma (familial RB)
  • Osteosarcoma
37
Q

t(9;22)

A
  • CML and ALL (Philadelphia chromosome)

- ABLBCR

38
Q

t(8;14)

A

Burkitt lymphoma

-c-MycIg heavy chain

39
Q

t(11;14)

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

-cyclin D1 - Ig heavy chain

40
Q

t(14;18)

A

Follicular cell lymphoma

-Ig Heavy chain - Bcl2

41
Q

Angiogenic factors (2)

A
  • FGF

- VEGF

42
Q

Hallmark of malignancy/Absolute distinguishing feature

A

Metastatic potential

43
Q

Important for determining prognosis

A

Grading of cancer

44
Q

other name of Poorly differentiated

A

Anaplastic

45
Q

other name of Disorganized growth

A

Loss of polarity

46
Q

Receptor for platelet adhesion with von willibrand factor

A

GPIb

47
Q

Receptor for platelet aggregation via fibrinogen

A

GPIIb/IIIa

48
Q

Mediator released during platelet degranulation that promotes exposure of GPIIb/IIIa

A

ADP

49
Q

Mediator released during platelet degranulation that promotes platelet aggregation

A

TXA2

50
Q

Most common overall symptom in disorders of primary hemostasis

A

Epistaxis

51
Q

Most feared complication in disorders of primary hemostasis

A

Intracranial bleeding

52
Q

Autoimmune production of IgG against platelet antigen (GPIIb/IIIa)

A

ITP

53
Q

Most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children and adults

A

ITP

54
Q

Acute/Chronic:

Children and responds well to treatment

A

Acute

55
Q

Acute/Chronic:

Adult and often relapse

A

Chronic

56
Q

RBC morphology in Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

A

Schistocytes

57
Q

TTP/HUS:

Loss or decreased ADAMTS13

A

TTP

58
Q

TTP/HUS:

abnormal platelet adhesion

A

TTP

59
Q

TTP/HUS:

Most commonly seen in adult females

A

TTP

60
Q

TTP/HUS:

with CNS abnormalities

A

TTP

61
Q

TTP/HUS:

Endothelial damage by drugs or infection

A

HUS

62
Q

TTP/HUS:

Associated with undercooked beef with E.coli 0157:H7

A

HUS

63
Q

TTP/HUS:

with Renal insufficiency

A

HUS

64
Q

Qualitative platelet disorder with genetic GPIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

“Big suckers”

65
Q

Qualitative platelet disorder with impaired platelet adhesion

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

“Big suckers”

66
Q

Qualitative platelet disorder with genetic GPIIb/IIIa deficiency

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

67
Q

Qualitative platelet disorder with impaired platelet aggregation

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

68
Q

Irreversibly inactivates COX-> no TXA2 -> impairs aggregation

A

Aspirin

69
Q

Impairs both adhesion and aggregation

A

Uremia

70
Q

Most common coagulation factor inhibitor

A

anti-factor VIII

71
Q

aPTT does not correct after mixing studies

A

plasma with anti-factor VIII

72
Q

aPTT corrects after mixing studies

A

Hemophilia A

73
Q

Most common inherited coagulation disorder

A

von willebrand factor deficiency

74
Q

Disorder with abnormal ristocetin test and can be treated with Desmopressin

A

von willebrand factor deficiency

75
Q

Vitamin K gamma carboxylates

A
  • Factors 9, 10, 7, 2

- Protein C, S

76
Q

Vitamin K deficiency occurs in

A
  • Newborns
  • Long-term antibiotic therapy
  • Malabsorption
77
Q

Best screening test for DIC

A

elevated D-dimer

78
Q

Goal of Plasmin

A
  • cleave fibrin and serum fibrinogen
  • destroy coagulation factors
  • block platelet aggregation
79
Q

Most common inherited cause of hypercoagulable state

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

80
Q

Most common type of embolus

A

Thromboembolus