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PATHOLOGY > Clinical Pathology > Flashcards

Clinical Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Prevailing cause of Chyluria

A

Wuchereria bancrofti (filariasis)

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2
Q

Main determinant of urine volume

A

Water intake

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3
Q

Two most commonly utilized testing modalities for indirect assessment of Bacteriuria and Leukocyturia

A

Reagent strip nitrite (bacteriuria) and Leukocyte esterase (leukocyturia)

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4
Q

Gold standard for detecting bacteriuria

A

Bacteriologic culture

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5
Q

Best reserved and most useful for those samples with abnormal dipstick results

A

Examination of the urine sediment

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6
Q

Most frequent epithelial cells seen in normal urine and the least significant

A

Squamous epithelial cells

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7
Q

Most common form of pleural effusion in the newborn

A

idiopathic congenital chylothorax

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8
Q

Most useful single marker for adenocarcinoma

A

CEA

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9
Q

Most common etiologic agent of pericardial effusions

A

Enterovirus

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10
Q

Most reliable method to differentiate peritoneal transudates from exudates

A

serum-ascites albumin gradient

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11
Q

Preferred method for the diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Ascitic fluid total neutrophil count

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12
Q

Most common association of eosinophilia in a peritoneal fluid

A

Chronic inflammatory process associated with chronic peritoneal dialysis

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13
Q

Most clinically significant antibodies detected during antibody screening

A

IgG

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14
Q

Most important function of polyspecific AHG

A

detection of IgG antibodies

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15
Q

Gold standard of measuring total body water

A

Tritiated water or Deuterium oxide

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16
Q

Most abundant glycosaminoglycan in the extracellular space

A

Hyaluronic acid

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17
Q

Main solutes in the Extracellular fluid (3)

A

Na, Cl, and HCO3

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18
Q

Main solutes in the Intracellular fluid (Cell) (4)

A

-K,
-Mg,
-PO4, and
-Protein

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19
Q

Main Phosphate in RBC

A

2,3-DPG

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20
Q

Main Phosphates in muscle (2)

A

ATP and Creatinine Phosphate

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21
Q

Main determinant of specific gravity of plasma

A

Protein

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22
Q

Chief determinant of how much ECF is retained

A

Effective vascular volume

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23
Q

Most important natriuretic peptide hormone for the renal excretion of sodium

A

Urodilatin

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24
Q

Main regulator of ADH secretion

A

Osmolality

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25
Q

Main determinant of the extracellular volume

A

Salt content of the body

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26
Q

Main source of energy for sodium reabsorption at all nephron segments

A

Basolateral Na-K ATPase

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27
Q

Best indicator of anemia

A

Low RBC count or number of RBC per volume of whole blood

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28
Q

Excellent indicator of hemolytic anemia

A

Elevated carbon monoxide levels in normocytic, normochromic anemia

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29
Q

Most common cause of macrocytic anemia

A

Nutritional deficiency such as Vitamin B12 and/or Folate

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30
Q

Most common cause of an elevated WBC

A

Infection

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31
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

A

demonstration of Philadelphia chromosome (i.e. the BCR/c-abl translocation between Chr 9 and 22 by either cytogenetics or molecular techniques)

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32
Q

Major cause of elevated PT and aPTT

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

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33
Q

Chief counter ion for sodium

A

Chloride

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34
Q

Four analytes that aid in the diagnosis of renal disease

A

BUN, Creatinine, Calcium, and Phosphate

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35
Q

Most abundant cation in the body

A

Calcium

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36
Q

Best measure of hypocalcemia, normocalcemia, or hypercalcemia

A

serum levels of ionized calcium

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37
Q

Three blood gas determinants interdependent by the Henderson-Hasselbach equation

A

PCO2, pH, and bicarbonate

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38
Q

Most common cause of metabolic alkalosis

A

Vomiting

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39
Q

hallmark of Pulmonary embolus

A

marked drop in the PO2

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40
Q

Most accurate method of diagnosing and monitoring treatment of diabetes mellitus

A

measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HgbA1C)

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41
Q

Only tissue in the body that can metabolize ammonia

A

Liver

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42
Q

It is the measurement of the reduction in light transmission caused by particle formation

A

Turbidimetry

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43
Q

This is the term used for detecting light that is scattered at various angles; wherein scattered light yields a small signal that must be amplified

A

Nephelometry

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44
Q

This is the term used to measure the concentration of a substance by measuring the change of the angle of light as it passes from one medium to another of different concentrations

A

Refractometry

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45
Q

antibody typically associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

c-ANCA

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46
Q

most important test for diagnosing systemic necrotizing vasculitis

A

Tissue biopsy

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47
Q

third copy of the CCF (Custody and Control Form) goes to the

A

confirmatory laboratory

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48
Q

Positive drug test records of a drug testing facility are stored for how long?

A

stored indefinitely

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49
Q

a form of cytapheresis that removes the patient’s red blood cells and replaces them with allogeneic red blood cells

A

Red cell exchange (RCE) or therapeutic erythrocytapheresis

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50
Q

Red cell exchange (RCE) or therapeutic erythrocytapheresis is most commonly used in the treatment of

A

sickle cell disease

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51
Q

Requirements of allogeneic donor qualification for blood pressure

A

-<180 mm Hg systolic
-<100 mm Hg diastolic

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52
Q

Conventionally, what is the unit used to express renal clearance

A

mL/minute

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53
Q

Flocculation procedures differ from latex agglutination procedures because:

A

Soluble antigen reacts with antibody

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54
Q

Protein can be separated into _____ fractions by use of serum electrophoresis

A

Five (5)

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55
Q

In measuring lipids, how long should you advise the patient to fast before venipuncture?

A

12 hours

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56
Q

The circulating half life of N-Brain natriuretic peptide is:

A

60-120 min.

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57
Q

staining procedure utilized in detecting the presence of telomeres of chromosomes. This special stain produces an opposite banding pattern in relation to the routinely used stain.

A

R-banding

R stands for reverse.

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58
Q

HPV-related cervical carcinogenesis is brought about primarily by inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins, specifically pRB and p53. Which gene(s) are responsible for these inactivation?

A

E6 and E7

-E6 inactivates p53
-E7 inactivates pRB

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59
Q

After fecal DNA extraction, the purified DNA products are added to the PCR mastermix containing several primers, with the aim of detecting a specific etiologic agent (e.g. E. coli, Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Vibrio spp., etc.). Which specific test best describes the above procedure?

A

Multiplex PCR

-A single PCR step with multiple primers used

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60
Q

The most commonly used method to determine the relatedness of two or more bacterial strains

A

pulse-field gel electrophoresis

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61
Q

Most common cause of agranulocytosis

A

Drug-Induced

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62
Q

Serious infection is very likely once neutrphil count falls below _ per cc

A

500

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63
Q

Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of

A

Thrombin

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64
Q

The substance active in splitting fibrin, fibrinogen and fragments is

A

Plasmin

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65
Q

In cerebrospinal fluid examination, microbiologic examination is usually done in which tube

A

Tube 2

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66
Q

In the grading of sperm motility, what grade do you assign for sperm cells with slow forward progression and noticeable lateral movement?

A

Grade 2

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67
Q

In mycology, what does dimorphic mean?

A

displaying two morphologic types:

-one environmental (mould) and
-one in vivo (yeast)

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68
Q

in spectrophotometry, the device that allows for a narrow band of wavelength is

A

Monochromator

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69
Q

This parameter of a diagnostic test will vary with the prevalence of a disease in a population

A

Accuracy

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70
Q

National Blood Service Act of 1994

A

RA 7719

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71
Q

Higher Education Act of 1994

A

RA 7722

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72
Q

Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998

A

RA 8504

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73
Q

PRC Modernization Act of 2000

A

RA 8981

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74
Q

It is the removal of microorganisms to a certain level as not to be able to infect humans and cause disease (WHO)

A

Decontamination

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75
Q

eliminates nearly all recognized pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily all microbial forms (e.g., bacterial spores) on inanimate objects

A

Disinfection

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76
Q

Free of microorganisms

A

Sterilization

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77
Q

reduce the level of microbial contamination so that infection transmission is eliminated

A

Decontamination

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78
Q

consists of evaluation of method performance by comparison of results versus those of other laboratories for the same samples

A

Proficiency testing

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79
Q

Definition of Oliguria in adults

A

<400 mL/day

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80
Q

A negative reagent strip test but a positive Clintest result in can be interpreted as:

A

Presence of non-glucose reducing sugars

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81
Q

This test for fetal lung maturity uses increasing amount of 95% ethanol wherein fetal lung maturity index is seen in highest concentration of ethanol that supports ring of foam after shaking

A

Foam stability test or Shake test

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82
Q

Parasite associated with Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobotrium latum

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83
Q

produce small yeast-like cells often found in macrophages (yeast form) and tuberculate macroconidia for its mold form

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

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84
Q

produce barrel-shaped arthroconidia (mold form) and thick-walled spherules with endospores (yeast form)

A

Coccidioides immitis

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85
Q

produce thick walled yeasts, with multiple budding yeast cells with very narrow necks (like a mariner’s wheel) and hyphae with intercalary and terminal chlamydoconidia

A

Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

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86
Q

Mold form appear like a lollipop (conidia on top of a conidiophore)

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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87
Q

a rickettsial infection that is primarily transmitted by the larval form of Leptotrombidium species (chiggers)

A

Scrub typhus

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88
Q

Causative agent of Scrub typhus

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

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89
Q

Causative agent of Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

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90
Q

Causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

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91
Q

Causative agent of Human monocytotropic ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia chafeensis

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92
Q

Causative agent of Murine typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

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93
Q

Epidemic typhus is transmitted by:

A

Body louse (Pediculus humanus var. corporis)

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94
Q

RMSF is transmitted by

A

Ixodidae ticks (tick borned disease)

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95
Q

Human monocytotropic ehrlichiosis is transmitted by:

A

Tick bite

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96
Q

Murine typhus is transmitted by

A

Flea bite (Xenopsylla cheopis)

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97
Q

recommended method for the detection of non-LGV C. trachomatis infection
in urogenital specimens

A

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

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98
Q

recommended for diagnosis of suspected sexual assault or abuse in boys or extragenital sites in girls

A

Cell culture

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99
Q

Recommended for diagnosis of ocular chlamydial infection

A

Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

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100
Q

most commonly used therapeutic target that can be interrogated by flow cytometry in acute myeloid leukemia

A

CD33

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101
Q

allows for the screening of several different mutations at one time by putting probes specific for different mutations on the membrane and then hybridizing a labeled patient DNA sample to the membrane

A

Reverse dot blot

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102
Q

The fluorescent dye that exhibits the greatest sensitivity for quantization of DNA is

A

SYBR Green

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103
Q

This determines the amount of current and the movement of the proteins for a fixed voltage in electrophoresis

A

Ionic strength of the buffer

104
Q

defined electrophoretically as the fraction that migrates in a position faster than albumin toward the anode

A

Prealbumin

105
Q

The single most abundant protein in normal plasma, usually constituting up to two- thirds of total plasma protein

A

Albumin

106
Q

Liver enzyme that is more specific for detecting liver disease in nonalcoholic, asymptomatic patients

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) / Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT)

107
Q

Liver enzyme that is most often used for monitoring therapy with potentially hepatotoxic drugs

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) / Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)

108
Q

the product usually measured to provide the result in assays for AST and ALT

A

NADH

109
Q

In this method, the immunoreaction and/or systemic reaction is carried out in one solution, which includes the reagent for signal development of enzyme

A

Homogeneous enzyme immunoassay

110
Q

gold standard in diagnosis of Syphilis, and should be positive, even after treatment

A

FTA-ABS

111
Q

a type of precipitation immunoassay that allows visualization of whether two antigens are identical, not identical or partially identical

A

Ouchterlony double diffusion testing

112
Q

a chronic idiopathic condition found predominantly in older patients presenting with acrocyanosis and Reynaud Phenomenon

A

Idiopathic Cold Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

113
Q

According to the US-FDA Advisory Panel consensus, the approved shelf life of additive solutions (Adsol, Nutricel, Optisol) is:

A

42 days

114
Q

Characterized by defective red cell membrane proteins spectrin and ankyrin

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

115
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis on PBS reveal red cells that are spherical which lack central pallor, and they show increased osmotic fragility when placed in?

A

Hypotonic salt solutions

116
Q

Most common cause of anemia in hospitalized patients

A

Anemia of chronic disease

117
Q

This anemia is characterized by high levels of hepcidin, responsible for blocking the transfer of iron to erythroid precursors

A

Anemia of chronic disease

118
Q

In β-thalassemia, an individual who inherits one abnormal allele (out of two) has this condition:

A

β-thalassemia minor

119
Q

Vitamins (2) that can falsely lower HbA1c levels by inhibiting glycosylation

A

Vitamins C and E

120
Q

most common mutation of the GALT gene

A

Q188R mutation on chromosome 9

121
Q

This colligative property of a solution is increased/elevated as its osmolality is increased

A

Boiling point

122
Q

This analytic technique in electrochemistry measures the quantity of electricity needed to convert an analyte to a different oxidation state

A

Coulometry

123
Q

This plastic is commonly used in the laboratory, is chemically resistant, and can be autoclaved

A

Polypropylene

124
Q

Acute transfusion reaction is defined as a reaction in which signs and symptoms present within ____ hours of a transfusion

A

24 hrs

125
Q

In immune mediated acute hemolytic reaction, a small volume of incompatible blood, as little as _____, can cause hemolysis

A

10 mL

126
Q

generally used in comparison of data between two variables by calculating the straight line fit

A

Linear regression

127
Q

Linear regression is calculated using what equation

A

y = a + bx

where:
a - intercept
b - slope

128
Q

These are the vertical distance between the data points and the best fit line

A

Residuals

129
Q

This is used to describe the relationship between the two methods

A

Correlation coefficient (r)

130
Q

This procedure determines the total allowable error in a specific test that represents the probability of providing an erroneous result which can lead to risk or harm of the patient

A

Sigma metric

131
Q

This is used for method evaluation between laboratories

A

Proficiency testing or External Quality Assessment

132
Q

Rules that evaluate quality control results as acceptable or not

A

Westgard rules

133
Q

Most optimal pH to use in thin smears for the visualization of cytoplasmic inclusions in malarial species

A

pH 7.0-7.2

134
Q

Most straightforward diagnostic method used when acute rubella (German measles) is suspected in a pregnant woman

A

assay of maternal serum for rubella IgM by EIA or IFA

135
Q

Pigmented conidia, spores, or hyphae due to the presence of melanin

A

Phaeoid or Dematiaceous

136
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), also called heparin- induced thrombocytopenia with thrombosis, is an adverse effect of treatment with

A

Unfractionated heparin

137
Q

This oncogenic protein has been identified in more than 90% of pancreatic cancers and therefore is considered a major causative factor in this disease

A

ras-p21

138
Q

Non-branching non-spore-forming gram positive intracellular rod, β hemolytic on Blood agar plate, and shows tumbling motility at room temperature

A

Listeria monocytogenes

139
Q

Gene responsible for Penicillin resistance among community-acquired MRSA

A

mecA gene

140
Q

Optical interferences caused by lipemia may be eliminated by

A

Ultracentrifugation

141
Q

Decreased water content in a specimen may be erroneously reported as having a decreased amount of analyte

A

Solvent exclusion effect

142
Q

most important ion in a single enzyme reverse transcriptase PCR that uses Thermus thermophilus DNA polymerase

A

Manganese

143
Q

In this method, the immunoreaction includes washing steps for separation, and an additional reagent is added for the enzyme reaction

A

Heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay

144
Q

In radioimmunoassay, which emissions are measured?

A

Gamma rays and Beta rays

145
Q

Isolated elevations in Alkaline Phosphatase and LDH are most compatible with:

A

Space occupying lesions in the Liver

146
Q

Most common method for comparison of a continuous variable between groups

A

Student t-Test

147
Q

This pear-shaped parasite has a spiral groove on its ventral surface as well as stiff, rotary movement

A

Chilomastix mesnili

148
Q

Male/Female:
A hookworm with a fan-shaped copulatory bursa at its posterior end

A

Male

149
Q

a medium used to test aerotolerance of bacteria

A

Thioglycollate broth

150
Q

Recommended coagulant for coagulation tests

A

Sodium Citrate 3.2%

151
Q

-CD5 positive
-dim CD20 and surface immunoglobulin
-CD23 positive

A

CLL

152
Q

The normal size of erythrocytes usually falls within this range

A

6-8 um

153
Q

Particle found within the cytoplasm of red cells which is actually smooth, round remnants of nuclear chromatin, usually seen in megaloblastic anaemia, haemolytic anaemia, and in post-splenectomy patients

A

Howell-Jolly Body

154
Q

irregularly spiculated red cells in which the ends of the spicules are bulbous and rounded and are usually seen in abetalipoproteinemia and in certain cases of liver disease

A

Acanthocytes

155
Q

method susceptible to the solvent displacing effect that results in falsely decreased electrolyte values

A

Indirect ion-selective electrodes

156
Q

The buffer pH most effective at allowing amphoteric protein to migrate toward the cathode in an electrophoretic system

A

pH 4.5

157
Q

Principle of the PO2 electrode

A

Amperometry

158
Q

Most commonly used method for clinical and epidemiologic measurement of plasma triglycerides

A

Hydrolysis

159
Q

An enzyme present in skeletal but not in cardiac muscle, hence it can serve as a sort of “negative” cardiac marker. It is released from damaged muscle at a fairly fixed ratio to myoglobin

A

Carbonic anhydrase III

160
Q

Clinical Laboratory Law

A

RA 4688

161
Q

Sanitation Code of the Philippines

A

PD 856

162
Q

Labor Code

A

PD 442

163
Q

It consists of the detailed, day-to-day operations needed to meet the immediate needs of the laboratory

A

Tactical Planning

164
Q

It can be defined as
1) deciding on the objectives of the organization and the need to modify existing objectives if appropriate;
2) allocating resources to attain these objectives; and 3) establishing policies that govern the acquisition, use, and disposition of these resources

A

Strategic Planning

165
Q

most commonly defined as the range of values into which 95% of nondiseased individuals will fall; this definition implies that 5% of nondiseased individuals can have laboratory results outside the reference range

A

Reference intervals

166
Q

the probability of a positive result in a person with the disease (true-positive rate).

A

Sensitivity

167
Q

Confirmatory tests require high ___ to be certain of the diagnosis

A

High SPECIFICITY

168
Q

Three main statistical measures of accuracy

A

Mean - Average
Median - Middle value
Mode - Most common value

169
Q

The ability to measure only the substance of interest is also known as:

A

Specificity

170
Q

Amount of protein being excreted in heavy proteinuria

A

> 4 g/day

171
Q

Used as a confirmatory test for identifying a sugar other than glucose in the urine

A

Thin layer chromatography

172
Q

Only pathogenic microfilariae with no sheath

A

Onchocerca volvulus

173
Q

Only cestode that produces operculated eggs

A

Diphyllobotrium latum

174
Q

most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis

A

Quantitative abnormality in platelets

175
Q

most common cause of excessive or abnormal bleeding

A

Thrombocytopenia

176
Q

Platelet abnormality characterised by abnormal aggregation to ADP, epinephrine and collagen, but normal aggregation with ristocetin

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

177
Q

The principle of this instrument relies on the injection of a monodisperse suspension of particles into the center of a flowing stream of fluid that passes through a small quartz capillary tube at a constant velocity

A

Flow cytometry

178
Q

The main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in the erythrocyte is to

A

Provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin

179
Q

Denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen

A

Heinz bodies

180
Q

This is an autosomal dominant caused by expansion of a (CTG)n repeat in the 3′ untranslated region of the myotonin protein kinase gene on chromosome 19q13.3

A

Myotonic dystrophy

181
Q

This is an autosomal recessive disease and is the most common of the hereditary ataxias

A

Friedreich ataxia

182
Q

This is an autosomal recessive hereditary cancer syndrome caused by mutations in the human homolog of the bacterial mutY gene. Because of the autosomal recessive nature of this disorder, the families typically show no evidence of vertical transmission of the disease

A

MYH-associated Polyposis

183
Q

It is the measurement of current flowing through an electrochemical cell when potential is applied to the electrodes

A

Amperometry

184
Q

This method serves as the reference method in determining total serum protein concentration. The test principle involves acid digestion of proteins to convert the nitrogen to ammonium ion.

A

Kieldahl method

185
Q

Friedewald formula

A

LDL-C = TC – HDL – (TAG/5)

-Use TAG/2.22 if given in mmol/L

186
Q

In which settings (3) will you not use the Friedewald formula

A

-when TAG is >400 mg/dL
-high quantities of chylomicrons (lipemic or non-fasting specimens)
-patients with dysbetalipoproteinemia

187
Q

Disease state that leads to the highest serum elevation of Alkaline Phosphatase

A

Paget disease (10-25x the upper normal)

188
Q

Method of incubating fecal material on a piece of filter paper strip in a test tube containing water

A

Harada-Mori culture

189
Q

This is a quantitative technique to determine the number of eggs present per gram of faeces (e.p.g.).

A

McMaster Technique

190
Q

Possible alternative to ether or ethyl acetate for fecal concentration procedure

A

Gasoline

191
Q

Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, contains bacteria and WBC but no red blood cells.

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

192
Q

Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, (+) RBC (-/+) bacteria, (-) WBC

A

Entamoeba histolytica

193
Q

Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus, peripheral chromatin, (-) RBC, (-) bacteria, (-) WBC

A

Entamoeba hartmanii

194
Q

Amoebic trophozoite with one nucleus but no peripheral chromatin

A

Endolimax nana

195
Q

Most common species of Plasmodium in the cooler parts of the tropics

A

Plasmodium vivax

196
Q

It is the largest of the human malaria parasites and the cause of much illness and absenteeism from work and school.

A

Plasmodium vivax

197
Q

The method for detection of autoantibodies to nuclear and intracellular antigens which requires precipitin reaction, has high specificity but low sensitivity

A

Double immunodiffusion

198
Q

a spread of data in which elements are distributed symmetrically around the mean, with most values close to the center

A

Gaussian (normal) distribution

199
Q

mathematical process for calculating the best 
straight line to t the relationship observed between two variables measured on the same items

A

Linear regression

200
Q

calculated as the nth root of the product of a distribution of n numbers

A

Geometric mean

201
Q

statistical measures that are calculated based on the assumption that the data points follow a Gaussian distribution and include parameters such as mean, variance, and standard deviation

A

Parametric statistics

202
Q

Nonparametric statistics are statistical measures that are based on __ or __ of data

A

Rank or Order

203
Q

The specificity of DNA hybridization reactions is determined by which component of hybridization assays?

A

Probe

204
Q

In real-time PCR, the two steps which occur simultaneously are:

A

Amplification and Detection

205
Q

How many primers are used in loop-mediated amplification?

A

4 to 6

206
Q

Chronic Neutrophilic Leukemia (CNL) has been shown to be associated with mutations of:

A

CSF3R

207
Q

This morphologic alteration of neutrophils is characterized as large peroxidase-positive granules which represents abnormal lysosomal development in affected cells.

A

Chediak-Hegashi cells

208
Q

This mature B-cell neoplasm is morphologically diagnosed by evidence of large cells with slate blue cytoplasm and moderately large, frequently oval or clefted nuclei

A

Hairy cell leukemia

209
Q

The characteristic cytochemical feature of hairy cell leukemia include a strong acid phosphatase reaction that is not inhibited by:

A

Tartaric acid

210
Q

An ideal antibody in a precipitation reaction has:

A

High AFFINITY and High AVIDITY

211
Q

measurement of the absorvance of a stain on a support medium usually done after chromatography

A

Densitometry

212
Q

measurement of the current flow produced by an oxidation-reduction reaction

A

Amperometry

213
Q

measures quantity of electricity needed to convert an analyte to a different oxidations state

A

Coulometry

214
Q

measures potential in between two electrodes in a solution

A

Potentiometry

215
Q

measurement of the resulting current from which potential is applied to an electrochemical cell

A

Voltammetry

216
Q

By estimate, around how much of medical decisions are based on laboratory results?

A

70%

217
Q

Syndrome in obese men, hypertension causes a reduction in plasma volume, resulting in (amongst other changes) a relative increase in red blood cell count

A

Gaisbock syndrome

218
Q

In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species lacks a sheath and lack nuclei in the tail tip

A

Onchocerca volvulus

219
Q

In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a sheath but no tail tip nuclei

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

220
Q

In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a sheath and two nuclei beyond the ends of the nuclear column

A

Brugia malayi

221
Q

In stained preparations, the microfilariae of this species has a poorly-staining sheath with nuclei extending to the rounded tip

A

Loa loa

222
Q

Vector of Loa loa (the eye worm)

A

Chrysops

223
Q

Vector of Onchocerca volvulus

A

Simulium

224
Q

Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Culex and Aedes (also Anopheles)

225
Q

A nematode that can cause a massive infection and may cause rectal prolapse in children

A

Trichuris trichiura

226
Q

The protein section of the urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:

A

Albumin

227
Q

What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?

A

CSF/Serum albumin ratio

-if <9, intact BBB

228
Q

Whole blood and RBC units are stored at what temperature?

A

1°C to 6°C

229
Q

Platelet concentrates prepared from whole blood and apheresis components are routinely stored at _°C to _°C, with continuous agitation for up to _ days

A

…20°C to 24°C…

…5 days

230
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Toxicology

A

East Avenue Medical Center (EAMC)

231
Q

Cause of Malignant Tertian Malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

232
Q

Cause of Benign Tertian Malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

233
Q

Cause of Benign Quartan Malaria

A

Plasmodium malariae

234
Q

Cause of Quotidian Malaria

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

235
Q

Causative agent for mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis

A

Leishmania braziliensis

236
Q

Structural component of Staphylococcus aureus that inhibits antibody mediated clearance by blocking opsonization

A

Protein A

237
Q

components of the cell wall which allows Staphylococcus aureus to bind to fibronectin, and subsequently ECM

A

Teichoic acid

238
Q

the preferred cleansing agent for syphilitic lesions which may be directly sampled by gentle abrasion

A

Sterile water

239
Q

Visualization of __ is necessary for definitive identification of Treponema species under darkfield microscopy

A

Motility

240
Q

the endpoint for the manual standard VDRL and RPR tests

A

Flocculation

241
Q

This is possibly the most common microdeletion syndrome in humans but not often recognized due to its broad spectrum of clinical features and mild presentation.

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome

242
Q

It is the major metabolite of heme, the iron-binding tetrapyrrole ring found in hemoglobin, myoglobin, and cytochromes

A

Bilirubin

243
Q

The largest major nonimmunoglobulin protein in plasma, with a molecular weight of 725,000 Da is:

A

α2-Macroglobulin

244
Q

most often associated with human leukocyte antigen DR2 and the presence of anti-DNA antibodies among SLE patients

A

presence of anti-SSa/Ro

245
Q

shelf life of blood units when additive solutions are utilized

A

42 days

246
Q

In the preparation of platelet concentrates, what is the main reason of leaving behind at least 50ml of plasma?

A

To maintain pH of at least 6.2 during storage

247
Q

Act regulating the operation and maintenance of clinical laboratories

A

RA 4688

248
Q

Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998

A

RA 8504

249
Q

National System for Newborn Screening

A

RA 9288

250
Q

international standard that specifies the quality management requirements particular to medical laboratories

A

ISO 15189

251
Q

Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969

A

RA 5527

252
Q

“Blood Banking Law” – act regulating the collection, processing and sales of human blood.

A

RA 1517

253
Q

Five (5) steps of Six Sigma

A

-Define
-Measure
-Analyze
-Improve
-Control

254
Q

Six sigma is measured by:

A

DPMO (Defects per Million Opportunities)

255
Q

another quality tool aside from six sigma which is ultimately designed to reduce wastes-used by Toyota

A

Lean process

PATHOLOGY (26 decks)

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