ANATOMIC PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Most common tumor of men aged 15-34 yo and cause approximately 10% of all cancer deaths

A

Testicular germ cell tumors

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2
Q

Most common type of germ cell tumor (50%)

A

Seminomas

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3
Q

Most common mesenchymal tumor/neoplasm

A

Superficial Lipoma

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4
Q

Most common form of invasive breast cancer (2)

A

-ER positive
-HER2/neu negative

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5
Q

Most common type of ER+/Her2- detected by mammographic screening in women treated with menopausal hormone therapy

A

ER+/Her2-, Low proliferation

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6
Q

Most common type of carcinoma associated with BRCA2 germline mutations

A

ER+/Her2-, High proliferation

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7
Q

Most common molecular subtype of invasive breast cancer

A

HER2/neu positive

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8
Q

Most common type of breast carcinoma to present as an occult primary

A

Lobular carcinoma

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9
Q

Principal clinical features of extravascular hemolysis

A

-Anemia
-Splenomegaly
-Jaundice

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10
Q

Most specific morphologic finding in Hereditary Spherocytosis

A

Spherocytosis

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11
Q

Major pathologic manifestations of Sickle cell disease (3)

A

-Chronic hemolysis
-Microvascular occlusions
-Tissue damage

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12
Q

Most common cause of patient morbidity and mortality in Sickle cell disease

A

Vaso-occlusive crises

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13
Q

Most common cause of B+-thalassemia

A

Splicing mutations

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14
Q

Most common cause of B0-thalassemia

A

Chain terminator mutations

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15
Q

Most common type of chain terminator mutation in B0-thalassemia

A

creating a new stop codon within an exon

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16
Q

Most common cause of reduced alpha-chain synthesis in alpha-thalassemia

A

Gene deletion

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17
Q

Most severe form of alpha-thalassemia

A

Hydrops fetalis

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18
Q

Only hemolytic anemia caused by an acquired genetic defect

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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19
Q

Most important deficient GP1-linked protein in PNH blood cells

A

CD59 or Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis (MIRL)

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20
Q

Leading cause of disease-related death in individuals with PNH

A

Thrombosis

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21
Q

Most common form of immunohemolytic anemia

A

Warm antibody type

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22
Q

Most significant hemolysis caused by trauma to red cells is seen in individuals with (2)

A

-Cardiac valve prostheses
-Microangiopathic disorders

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23
Q

Most common and important anemias associated with red cell underproduction (3)

A

-Nutritional deficiencies
-Secondary to renal failure
-Chronic inflammation

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24
Q

Major form of Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

A

Pernicious anemia

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25
Q

Most characteristic alteration in the stomach of patients with pernicious anemia

A

Fundic gland atrophy

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26
Q

Two most common forms of DNA variation in human genome

A

-Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
-Copy number variations (CNVs)

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27
Q

Major structural protein of caveolae

A

Caveolin

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28
Q

Most abundant cytosolic protein in cells

A

globular protein actin (G-actin)

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29
Q

Initial site for the synthesis of all molecules destined for export out of the cell

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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30
Q

Most important inducer of VEGF production

A

Hypoxia

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31
Q

Most important receptor for angiogenesis

A

VEGFR2

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32
Q

Major component of the interstitial ECM

A

Fibronectin

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33
Q

Major constituent of basement membrane

A

Laminin

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34
Q

Best assessment of the morphology of hematopoietic cells

A

Marrow aspirate smers

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35
Q

Most common cause of agranulocytosis

A

Drug toxicity

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36
Q

Most common lesions encountered in the ovary (2)

A

-Functional or benign cysts
-Tumors

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37
Q

Most primary ovarian neoplasms arise from…

A

mullerian epithelium

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38
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumors

A

Serous tumors

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39
Q

Most common stimulus for hypertrophy of muscle

A

increased workload

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40
Q

Most common epithelial metaplasia

A

Columnar to Squamous

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41
Q

Hallmarks of reversible injury (2)

A

-reduced oxidative phosphorylation with resultant depletion of energy stores in the form of ATP
-Cellular swelling caused by changes in ion concentrations and water influx

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42
Q

First manifestation of almost all forms of injury to cells

A

Cellular swelling

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43
Q

Major causes of ATP depletion (3)

A

-reduced supply of oxygen and nutrients
-mitochondrial damage
-actions of some toxins (e.g. cyanide)

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44
Q

Most reactive oxygen-derived free radical

A

-Hyroxyl radical (OH-)

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45
Q

Principal ROS responsible for damaging lipids, proteins, and DNA

A

-Hydroxyl radical (OH-)

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46
Q

Most important sites of membrane damage during cell injury (3)

A

-mitochondrial membrane
-plasma membrane
-membranes of lysosomes

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47
Q

Two phenomena consistently characterize irreversibility

A

-inability to reverse mitochondrial dysfunction (lack of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation) even after resolution of the original injury
-profound disturbances in membrane function

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48
Q

Most common type of cell injury in clinical medicine

A

Ischemia

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49
Q

Most characteristic feature of apoptosis

A

Chromatin condensation

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50
Q

Major mechanism of apoptosis in all mammalian cells

A

Mitochondrial pathway (intrinsic)

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51
Q

Most common genetic abnormality found in human cancers

A

mutation of TP53

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52
Q

Principal functional unit of the CNS

A

Neuron

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53
Q

Earliest morphologic markers of neuronal cell death

A

Acute neuronal injury (“red neurons”)

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54
Q

Most important histopathologic indicator of CNS injury, regardless of etiology

A

Gliosis

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55
Q

Second most common bone sarcoma in children

A

Ewing sarcoma of bone

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56
Q

Most common type of primary bone lymphoma in adults

A

Large B-cell Lymphoma

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57
Q

Most important activator of Factor IX in vivo

A

Factor VIIa/TF complex

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58
Q

Most important activator of Factor X in vivo

A

Factor IXa/Factor VIIIa complex

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59
Q

Most important coagulation factor

A

Thrombin

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60
Q

Potent inducer of platelet activation and aggregation through its ability to activate PARs

A

Thrombin

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61
Q

Most important plasminogen activator

A

t-PA

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62
Q

Most common form of thromboembolic disease

A

Pulmonary emboli

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63
Q

Most important independent risk factor for atherosclerosis

A

Family history

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64
Q

Most common cause of LVH

A

Chronic hypertension

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65
Q

Two most important causes of endothelial dysfunction

A

-Hemodynamic disturbances
-Hypercholesterolemia

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66
Q

Most common malignancy of the GI tract and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide

A

Adenocarcinoma of the colon

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67
Q

Two most important prognostic factor in colon adenocarcinoma

A

-Depth of invasion
-Presence of lymph node metastases

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68
Q

Most common site of metastatic colon adenocarcinoma

A

Liver

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69
Q

Hallmark of malignancy

A

Anaplasia or Lack of Differentiation

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70
Q

Most reliable feature that differentiates cancers from benign tumors

A

Invasiveness

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71
Q

Most common pathway for the initial dissemination of Carcinomas

A

Lymphatic spread

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72
Q

Most common causes of significant fatty change in the liver (fatty liver) in developed nations

A

-Alcohol abuse
-Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease which is often associated with Diabetes and Obesity

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73
Q

Most common exogenous pigment

A

Carbon (coal dust)

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74
Q

Only endogenous brown-black pigment

A

Melanin

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75
Q

Major participants in the inflammatory reaction in tissues

A

-Blood vessels
-Leukocytes

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76
Q

Hallmarks of Acute inflammation

A

-Rubor (redness)
-Tumor (swelling)
-Calor (heat)
-Dolor (pain)
-Functio laesa (Loss of function)

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77
Q

Most common mechanism of vascular leakage

A

contraction of endothelial cells resulting in increased interendothelial spaces

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78
Q

Most common exogenous agent of chemotaxis

A

Bacterial products

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79
Q

Most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils

A

H2O2-MPO-Halide system

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80
Q

Major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase

A

alpha1-antitrypsin

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81
Q

Two major vasoactive amines

A

-Histamin
-Serotonin

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82
Q

Richest source of histamine

A

Mast cells

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83
Q

Major prostaglandin made by mast cells

A

PGD2

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84
Q

Potent chemotactic agent and activator of neutrophils causing aggregation and adhesion of the cells to venular endothelium, generation of ROS, and release of lysosomal enzymes

A

LTB4

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85
Q

Morphologic hallmarks of Acute inflammatory reactions (2)

A

-Dilatation of small blood vessels
-Accumulation of leukocytes and fluid in the extravascular tissue

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86
Q

Most frequent cause of purulent (suppurative) inflammation

A

Infection with bacteria that cause liquefactive tissue necrosis

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87
Q

Dominant cells in most chronic inflammatory reactions

A

Macrophages

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88
Q

Most common cause of defective inflammation

A

Leukocyte deficiency resulting from:
-replacement of the bone marrow by leukemias and metastatic tumors
-suppression of the marrow by therapies for cancer and graft rejection

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89
Q

Most important stem cells for regeneration after injury (in adults)

A

Tissue stem cells

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90
Q

Most important cytokine for the synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins

A

Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-B)

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91
Q

Main source of collagen in lungs and kidneys

A

Myofibroblasts

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92
Q

Major collagen producers in liver cirrhosis

A

stellate cells

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93
Q

Most important cause of morbidity and mortality in Western society

A

Cardiovascular disease

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94
Q

Most common form of thromboembolic disease

A

Pulmonary embolism

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95
Q

5th most common cause of maternal mortality worldwide

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

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96
Q

Dominant histologic characteristic of infarction

A

ischemic coagulative necrosis

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97
Q

Most important determinant of whether vessel occlusion will cause tissue damage

A

Availability of an alternative blood supply

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98
Q

Make up the largest category of Mendelian disorders

A

Autosomal recessive traits

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99
Q

The principal functional unit of the CNS

A

Neuron

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100
Q

Gliosis is characterized by both __ and __ of astrocytes

A

Hypertrophy and Hyperplasia

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101
Q

other name of Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus

A

Obstructive Hydrocephalus

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102
Q

Communicating / Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus:
Ventricular system is obstructed

A

Noncommunicating

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103
Q

Communicating / Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus:
Does not communicate with the subarachnoid space

A

Noncommunicating

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104
Q

Communicating / Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus:
Example is a mass in the 3rd ventricle

A

Noncommunicating

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105
Q

Communicating / Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus:
Ventricular system is in communication with the subarachnoid space

A

Communicating

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106
Q

Communicating / Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus:
Enlargement of the entire ventricular system

A

Communicating

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107
Q

Type 1 / Type 2 Lissencephaly:
Smooth surface form

A

Type 1

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108
Q

Type 1 / Type 2 Lissencephaly:
Associated with mutations that disrupt the signaling for migration and the cytoskeletal “motor” proteins that divide migration of neuroblasts

A

Type 1

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109
Q

Type 1 / Type 2 Lissencephaly:
Rough or cobblestoned surfaced form

A

Type 2

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110
Q

Type 1 / Type 2 Lissencephaly:
Associated with genetic alterations that disrupt the “stop signal” for migration

A

Type 2

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111
Q

Major determinants of the consequences of CNS trauma (2):

A

-Anatomic location of the lesion
-Limited capacity of the brain for functional repair

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112
Q

Most prevalent cause of morbidity and mortality from neurologic disease

A

Stroke

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113
Q

How many percent of the body weight is the brain?

A

1-2%

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114
Q

How much (in percent) of the resting cardiac output does the brain receive?

A

15%

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115
Q

How much (in percent) of the body’s oxygen consumption does the brain consume?

A

20%

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116
Q

Most sensitive CNS cells

A

Neurons

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117
Q

Most sensitive neurons in the brain (3)

A

-Pyramidal cell layer of the hippocampus (especially area CA1, also referred to as Sommer sector)
-Cerebellar purkinje cells
-Pyramidal neurons in cerebral cortex

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118
Q

Major source of collateral flow in the brain

A

Circle of Willis

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119
Q

Most common culprit of embolism to the brain

A

Cardiac mural thrombi

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120
Q

Most common association of thrombotic occlusions (2)

A

-Atherosclerosis
-Plaque rupture

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121
Q

Most common sites of thrombotic occlusions to the brain (3)

A

-Carotid bifurcation
-Origin of the MCA
-either end of the basilar artery

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122
Q

Most important effects of hypertension on the brain (4)

A

-Lacunar infarcts
-Slit hemorrhages
-Hypertensive encephalopathy
-Massive hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage

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123
Q

Risk factor most commonly associated with deep brain parenchymal hemorrhages

A

Hypertension

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124
Q

Risk factor most commonly associated with lobar hemorrhages

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)

125
Q

Most frequent cause of clinically significant subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

rupture of a saccular (“Berry”) aneurysm in a cerebral artery

126
Q

Most common type of intracranial aneurysm

A

Saccular aneurysm

127
Q

Most common type of clinically significant vascular malformation

A

Arteriovenous malformation

128
Q

Most common site of AVM

A

territory of the MCA, particularly its posterior branches

129
Q

Most common entrance of microbes to the CNS

A

Hematogenous spread

130
Q

Most common etiology of Acute aseptic (viral) Meningitis

A

Enteroviruses (80% of cases)

131
Q

Most common offending organisms identified in non-immunosuppressed patients with brain abscess

A

Streptococci and Staphylococci

132
Q

Most serious complications of chronic tuberculous meningitis (2)

A

-Arachnoid fibrosis which could lead to hydrocephalus
-Obliterative endarteritis which could lead to arterial occlusion or infarction of underlying brain

133
Q

Most common pattern of tuberculous involvement in the brain

A

Diffuse meningoencephalitis

134
Q

Major patterns of CNS involvement of neurosyphilis (3)

A

-Meningovascular (common in HIV patients)
-Paretic
-Tabes dorsalis

135
Q

Permanent neurologic residue of Poliomyelitis

A

Flaccid paralysis

-muscle wasting
-hyporeflexia

136
Q

Pathognomonic microscopic finding in rabies

A

Negri bodies

137
Q

Principal pathologic effect of JC polyomavirus

A

Demyelination

138
Q

Three main forms of injury in fungal infection in the CNS

A

-Chronic meningitis
-Vasculitis
-Parenchymal invasion

139
Q

Most commonly encountered fungi that invade the brain

A

-Candida
-Cryptococcus

140
Q

Most common prion disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

141
Q

Pathognomonic finding in CJD

A

Spongiform transformation of the cerebral cortex

142
Q

Most striking alteration of Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI)

A

-Neuronal loss
-Reactive gliosis

143
Q

Where can you find the most striking alteration of FFI

A

Anterior ventral and Dorsomedial nuclei of the Thalamus

144
Q

Most common group of primary brain tumors

A

Gliomas

145
Q

Most common type associated with secondary glioblastoma

A

Proneural type

146
Q

Characteristic findings in Pilocytic Astrocytomas

A

-Rosenthal fibers
-Eosinophilic granular bodies

147
Q

Most common genetic alterations in oligodendrogliomas

A

mutations of the isocitrate dehydrogenase genes (IDH1 and IDH 2)

148
Q

Most common location of ependymomas in adults

A

Spinal cord

149
Q

Most common of the neuronal tumors of the CNS

A

Gangliogliomas

150
Q

Most common poorly differentiated neoplasms in CNS

A

Medulloblastoma

151
Q

Hallmark of rhabdoid tumor

A

consistent genetic alterations in Chromosome 22

152
Q

Most common CNS neoplasm in immunosuppressed individuals

A

Primary CNS Lymphoma

153
Q

Most common histologic group of primary CNS lymphoma

A

DLBCL

154
Q

Most common cytogenetic abnormality in meningioma

A

loss of chromosome 22, especially the long arm (22q)

155
Q

Five most common primary sites of origin of metastasis to the CNS

A

-Lung
-Breast
-Skin (melanoma)
-Kidney
-GIT

156
Q

Most frequent clinical manifestations of Tuberous sclerosis complex (3)

A

-Seizures
-Autism
-Mental retardation

157
Q

other name of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 (MEN1)

A

Wermer syndrome

158
Q

other name of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2A (MEN2A)

A

Sipple syndrome

159
Q

Also known as Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy (SHML)

A

Rosai-Dorfman Disease

160
Q

this disease presents in its most typical form as massive, painless, bilateral lymph node enlargement in the neck, associated with fever, leukocytosis, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

A

Rosai-Dorfman Disease

161
Q

hallmark genetic change of Burkitt Lymphoma

A

t(8;14), t(2;8), or t(8;22)

162
Q

cytogenetic abnormality in dermatofibrosarcoma protuberance

A

t(17;22) (q22;q15)

163
Q

most common primary heart tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

-May be a hamartoma rather than a true neoplasm because they regress spontaneously

164
Q

Spermatocytic seminomas occur most frequently in this age group

A

65 or older

165
Q

Most common form of testicular cancer in children, especially infants

A

Yolk sac tumor

166
Q

Most common secondary testicular tumor:

A

Lymphoma

167
Q

matrix protein specific to bones

A

Osteopontin

168
Q

Benign but locally aggressive neoplasm with large numbers of osteoclast-like giant cells in background of epithelioid to spindle shaped mononuclear cells

A

Osteoclastoma

169
Q

Glandular neoplastic lesion of the vulva which has a histologic appearance similar to that of intraductal papilloma of the breast.

A

Papillary hidradenoma

170
Q

most common gene mutation/genetic abnormality associated with type II endometrial carcinoma

A

TP53

171
Q

antibody isotypes present on the surface of all mature, naïve B cells

A

IgM and IgD

172
Q

most common and important group of extra-adrenal paragangliomas

A

Carotid body paraganglioma

173
Q

the syndrome associated with PTEN mutation that presents with benign follicular appendage tumors (trichilemmomas) and adenocarcinomas, often of the breast, endometrium and thyroid.

A

Cowden syndrome

174
Q

This type of Endometrial Carcinoma includes high grade aggressive carcinomas such as Serous Carcinoma, Clear Cell carcinomas and even Malignant Mixed Mullerian Tumors

A

Type II

175
Q

most common cause of intestinal obstruction worldwide:

A

Herniation

176
Q

two closely related genetic disorders involving deletion of q12 band on the long arm of chromosome 15

A

Prader Willi Syndrome and Angelman Syndrome

177
Q

Most common genetic disorder causing mental retardation

A

Trisomy 21

178
Q

2nd most common genetic disorder causing mental retardation

A

Fragile X syndrome

179
Q

Autopsy technique that involves one-by- one removal of organs

A

Virchow technique

(“Vir-chop-chop”)

180
Q

Autopsy techinque that involves a combination of “in situ” dissection and removal of organ blocks

A

Rokitansky technique

(“Rokitan-situ”)

181
Q

Autopsy technique that involves “en bloc” removal of the thoracic, cervical, abdominal and urogenital organs

A

Ghon technique

(“Ghon complex”)

182
Q

Autopsy technique that involves “en mass” removal of the thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs with subsequent dissection into organ blocks

A

Letulle technique

183
Q

A fluid-phase process during which the plasma membrane invaginates and is pinched off to form a coated cytoplasmic vesicle

A

Pinocytosis

184
Q

most frequent pre-existing histologically detectable lesion in aortic dissection

A

Cystic medial degeneration

185
Q

vasculitide that has the highest association (30%) with chronic hepatitis B infection

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

186
Q

most common cause of right-sided heart failure

A

Left-sided heart failure

187
Q

hallmark of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) of the mycosis fungoides type

A

Sezary-Lutzner cells

188
Q

This immunostain best demonstrates Sustentacular cells in Phreochromocytoma

A

S-100

189
Q

also known as Ormund disease

A

Retroperitoneal Idiopathic Sclerosis

190
Q

This glomerular disease is characterized by diffuse thickening of the capillary wall on routine histologic sections and subepithelial spikes on electron microscopy which are immune complex deposits effacing the foot processes of the visceral epithelium

A

Membranous Nephropathy

191
Q

Malabsorption disease due to to defective lymphatic transport

A

Whipple disease

192
Q

A disorder associated with excessive secretion of transforming growth factor alpha

A

Menetrier disease

193
Q

Most frequent benign bone tumor

A

Osteochondroma

194
Q

This hyperplastic lesion is the most common oral mucosal mass submitted for biopsy and is usually composed of types I and III collagen

A

Irritation fibroma

195
Q

second most common salivary gland tumor

A

Warthin tumor

196
Q

Macrophages with abundant cytoplasm containing dusty brown pigment are also known as

A

Smoker’s marcophages

197
Q

PASH is stromal __ proliferation

A

Myofibroblastic

198
Q

Atypical vascular lesion can be distinguished from Angiosarcoma by:

A

MYC amplification

199
Q

Angiosarcoma of the breast is most common as:

A

After radiation therapy

200
Q

Myofibroblastoma of breast stains positive for (4)

A

-CD34
-ER/PR
-Desmin
-Vimentin

201
Q

True/False:
Major differentials of mesenchymal tumors like desmoid fibromatosis/nodular fasciitis of breast are metaplastic carcinoma

A

TRUE

202
Q

Desmoid tumors of the breast occurs (2):

A

-Sporadically
-Associated with Trauma

203
Q

Neurofibromas of breast are:

A

associated with NF1

204
Q

Granular cell tumor of the breast most commonly occurs in:

A

Female

205
Q

TRUE/FALSE:
In cases of radical nephrectomy for kidney tumors, regional lymph nodes should always be excised

A

FALSE

206
Q

Sarcomatoid morphology is found in what subtype of renal cell carcinoma

A

-Clear cell
-Chromophobe
-Collecting duct

207
Q

As per CAP, which system should be used to determine the tumor nuclear grade in kidney tumors

A

ISUP system

208
Q

Most common primary lymphoma of breast

A

DLBCL

209
Q

The association of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid with pheochromocytoma with or without parathyroid hyperplasia or adenoma is called:

A

Sipple syndrome

210
Q

The most preventable cause of human death

A

Smoking

211
Q

A form of malnutrition in children with combined severe protein and energy deficiency

A

Marasmus

212
Q

A form of malnutrition in children with severe protein deficiency but with relatively spared calorie intake

A

Kwashiorkor

213
Q

the major metabolite of alcohol, and is responsible for many of the
toxic effects

A

Acetaldehyde

214
Q

the major enzyme responsible for metabolizing alcohol

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

215
Q

most common form of angina and is caused by an imbalance in coronary perfusion (due to chronic stenosing coronary atherosclerosis) relative to myocardial demand, such as that produced by physical activity, emotional excitement or psychological stress

A

Stable or Typical angina

216
Q

These are clusters of Sezary-Lutzner cells (atypical T cells) found within the superficial epidermis in mycosis fungoides

A

Pautrier microabscesses

217
Q

These are necrotic and eosinophilic basal cells that appear to interface with the inflamed papillary dermis in lichen planus

A

Civatte or Colloid Bodies

218
Q

This type of malignant melanoma is characterized by proliferation of intraepidermal atypical melanocytes that appear dendritic and bizarre with a hyperplastic overlying epidermis, and widened and inflamed dermal papillae

A

Lentiginous melanoma

219
Q

a useful differentiator for Basal cell carcinoma vs. skin adnexal tumors and SCCa which typically show staining of stromal cells only

A

CD10

220
Q

results from rupture of small vessel from pooling of blood after the circulation ceases

A

Tardieu spots

221
Q

Salivary gland that is mixed (serous and mucous) but is predominantly mucous in type

A

Sublingual gland

222
Q

Gene mutated in mucinous tumors of the ovary irregardless if it is benign, borderline, or malignant

A

KRAS

223
Q

ovarian malignancy most commonly associated with ovarian or pelvic endometriosis

A

Clear cell carcinoma

224
Q

Gene mutated (somatic mutation) in Fibrous dysplasia

A

GNAS1

225
Q

Most commonly, this syndrome presents clinically as precocious sexual development in girls

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

226
Q

This syndrome presents with skeletal features of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia with skeletal deformities identified in childhood

A

Mazabraud syndrome

-Intramuscular myxomas often present in adulthood in the same anatomic region as existing fibrous dysplasia

227
Q

most common urinary bladder malignant tumor in children

A

Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma

228
Q

leakage of sperm into the interstitium, causing a granulomatous reaction and is induced by trauma or inflammation

A

Epididymitis nodosa (spermatic granuloma)

229
Q

Subtype of liposarcoma which contains abundant basophilic extracellular matrix, arborizing capillaries and primitive cells at various stages of adipocyte differentiation reminiscent of fetal fat

A

Myxoid Liposarcoma

230
Q

This demyelinating peripheral neuropathy is characterized clinically by weakness beginning in the distal limbs that rapidly advances to affect proximal muscle function (“ascending paralysis”). This may lead to life-threatening respiratory paralysis

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome or Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

231
Q

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal failure

232
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Solitary parathyroid adenoma arising in the nonfamilial setting

233
Q

Most common cause of hyperpituitarism

A

Pituitary adenoma

234
Q

The rate of tissue fixation (Buffered formalin) expressed in metric distance to time

A

1 mm per hour

235
Q

second most common congenital cardiac malformation

A

Atrial septal defect

236
Q

most common site of esophageal carcinomas

A

Distal third

237
Q

segment of the small intestine more prone to develop adenocarcinoma

A

Duodenum

238
Q

variant of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis that is commonly associated with a brain tumor (medulloblastoma)

A

Turcot syndrome

239
Q

This type of ovarian epithelial tumor usually progress from benign tumors through borderline tumors that may give rise to a low-grade carcinoma:

A

Type I tumors (Low-grade serous, endometrioid, and mucinous)

240
Q

the neoplastic alteration of the terminal-duct lobular units characterized by replacement of the native epithelial cells by one to several layers of a single epithelial cell type showing low-grade (monomorphic) cytological atypia

A

Flat Epithelial Atypia

241
Q

neoplastic proliferation of epithelial cells confined to the mammary ductal-lobular system and characterized by subtle to marked cytological atypia and an inherent but not necessarily obligate tendency for progression to invasive breast cancer

A

DCIS

242
Q

Oncogene and Tumor suppressor genes associated with invasive ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas

A

-KRAS (oncogene)
-CDKN2A (TSG)

243
Q

This is a failure of fusion of the dorsal and ventral pancreatic primordia, and is said to be the most
common congenital pancreatic abnormality

A

Pancreas Divisum

244
Q

atrophy of brain due to decrease in blood supply due to atherosclerotic lesions

A

Senile atrophy

245
Q

This disease is associated with toxic exposures to cadmium and is characterized by osteomalacia and osteoporosis

A

Itai-itai

246
Q

A disease caused by an enzyme deficiency in Sphingomyelinase

A

Niemann-Pick disease

247
Q

A disease caused by hexosaminase A deficiency

A

Tay-Sach disease

248
Q

A disease cause by Glucocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Gaucher disease

249
Q

Deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase

A

Von Gierke disease

250
Q

Circumscribed, flat lesion distinguished from surrounding skin by color and measuring 5 mm in diameter:

A

Macule

251
Q

Melanocytic nevus with lymphocytic infiltration surrounding nevus cells

A

Halo nevus

252
Q

Infiltrative atypical lymphocytes that form bandlike aggregates within the superficial dermis and invade the epidermis as single cells and small clusters is seen in:

A

Mycosis fungoides

253
Q

Dialysis-related amyloidosis is caused by deposition of:

A

fibrillar ß2-microglobulin (amyloid ß2M)

254
Q

Average growth rate of gallstones

A

1-2 mm/year

255
Q

most common type of biliary atresia

A

Acquired

256
Q

The physiological derangement set in motion by the causes of death that leads to the cessation of cellular electrical activity

A

Mechanism of Death

257
Q

most common plasma cell dyscrasia

A

Monoclonal gammopathy of uncertain significance

258
Q

Most common site of implantation of tubal pregnancy

A

Ampulla

259
Q

Also known as Lindsay tumor

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma, follicular variant

260
Q

Most common GIT segment involved by eosinophilic gastroenteritis

A

Stomach

261
Q

Mandibular intraosseous lesion described microscopically as “ginger root” pattern

A

Cementoma

262
Q

hallmark of osteoporosis

A

Histologically normal bone that is decreased in quantity

263
Q

defined as a low-grade chondrosarcoma with a second, high-grade component that does not produce cartilage

A

Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma

264
Q

contains sheets of large, malignant chondrocytes that have abundant clear cytoplasm, numerous osteoclast-type giant cells, and intralesional reactive bone formation, which often causes confusion with osteosarcoma

A

Clear cell chondrosarcoma

265
Q

composed of islands of well-differentiated hyaline cartilage surrounded by sheets of small round cells, which can mimic Ewing sarcoma

A

Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma

266
Q

Lesions where you can find Eosinophilic Granular Bodies (EGB)

A

-Pilocytic Astrocytoma
-Ganglion cell tumors
-Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma

267
Q

This occurs when the restoration of blood flow to ischemic but viable tissues results, paradoxically, in the death of cells that are not otherwise irreversibly injured

A

Ischemia-Reperfusion injury

268
Q

This cytokine is released from activated macrophages and is mitogenic for keratinocytes and fibroblasts. It also stimulates keratinocyte migration and granulation tissued formation.

A

EGF

269
Q

Results from secondary destruction of a structure that was previously normal in development

A

Disruption

270
Q

Represents extrinsic disturbance of development due to localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces

A

Deformation

271
Q

Represents a primary error of morphogenesis, in which there is intrinsically abnormal developmental process

A

Malformation

272
Q

Most common cause of hypogonadism in males

A

Klinefelter syndrome

273
Q

Most common etiologic agent of infective endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

274
Q

Most common pediatric tumor of the heart

A

Rhabdomyoma

275
Q

most common outcome of the most common pediatric tumor of the heart

A

Spontaneous regression

276
Q

thymoma subtype that has the highest likelihood of invasion

A

B3

277
Q

most common location of accessory or supernumerary spleens

A

Splenic Hilum

278
Q

a skin lesion associated with tuberculosis but typically devoid of organisms, seen in both adults and children, and is characterized microscopically by dermal necrosis, a poorly formed granulomatous infiltrate, vasculitis, and edema

A

Papulonecrotic tuberculid

279
Q

a reactivation type of tuberculosis which generally involves the face

A

Lupus vulgaris

280
Q

a form of tuberculid presenting as recurrent tender subcutaneous nodules that occur mainly on the calves of women with tuberculin hypersensitivity

A

Erythema induratum (of Bazin)

281
Q

Skin manifestation pathognomonic to Lyme disease

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

282
Q

generally multiple, yellowish, papulonodular lesions that occur chiefly on the neck and face (particularly lower eyelids) of women. Microscopically, these tumors are formed by clusters of small ducts lined by epithelium two cells thick, occasionally with comma-shaped extensions

A

Syringoma

283
Q

occur chiefly on the palms and soles but have been reported in many other sites. They often show a moat and hillock pattern and, histologically, are characterized by a sharp junction between the proliferating, nonpigmented, small keratinocytes and the adjacent epidermis.

A

Eccrine poromas

284
Q

typically presents as a dome-shaped lesion with a central crater filled with keratin

A

Keratoacanthoma

285
Q

The disorder results from deficiency of a conjugation enzyme UDP-glucuronosyl transferase 1A1 (UGT1A1).

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

286
Q

Constant parathyroid finding in patients with MEN types 1 and 2a

A

Primary chief hyperplasia

287
Q

A distinct morphologic feature of this follicular neoplasm of the thyroid is the presence of “cytoplasmic yellow body” which is a round pale yellow cytoplasmic inclusion in a paranuclear location having a refractile quality and detectable both in tissue sections and in fine needle aspiration smears

A

Hyalinizing trabecular adenoma

288
Q

salivary gland which has the highest percentage of developing a cancerous tumor

A

Sublingual gland

289
Q

most common site of cancer involving the Sinonasal cavities

A

Maxillary sinus

290
Q

Its other name is osteopetrosis or marble bone disease

A

Albers–Schönberg disease

291
Q

multiple enchondromas with soft tissue hemangiomas

A

Maffucci syndrome

292
Q

Multiple enchondromas having a predominantly unilateral distribution

A

Ollier’s disease

293
Q

Tuberous sclerosis (3)

A

-subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
-cortical hamartomas
-subependymal nodules

294
Q

Neurofibromatosis 2 (2)

A

-Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
-multiple meningiomas and gliomas e.g. spinal ependymoma

295
Q

Neurofibromatosis 1 (4)

A

-Neurofibromas of the peripheral nerves
-optic nerve gliomas
-lisch nodules
-café au lait spots

296
Q

Von-Hippel Lindau disease (4)

A

-Hemangioblastoma of the cerebellum and retina
-pancreatic, liver and renal cysts
-renal cell CA
-pheochromocytoma

297
Q

Endometriosis + Endosalpingiosis + Endocervicosis =

A

Mullerianosis

298
Q

causative agent of verruca vulgaris

A

HPV 2

299
Q

In classifying glomerular diseases by distribution, when a single glomerulus is affected and the lesion involves only a part of the glomerulus, this is classified as:

A

Segmental

300
Q

This is the most common (60-70%) dysplastic lesion of the renal artery characterized by “string of beads” morphology with alternating stenosis and mural thinning.

A

Medial fibroplasia with aneurysms

301
Q

Most common type of odontogenic tumor

A

Odontoma

302
Q

Most common form of Schneiderian papillomas

A

Exophytic

303
Q

The three main factors that influence the origins of nasopharyngeal carcinomas:

A

-Age
-Heredity
-EBV infection

304
Q

Typical location of giant cell tumor of the bone

A

Epiphysis

305
Q

This is regarded as the extra-articular counterpart of pigmented villonodular synovitis

A

Diffuse Giant Cell Tumor of Tendon Sheath

306
Q

Most common congenital anomaly of the pancreas

A

Pancreas divisum

307
Q

Vitamin deficient in patients with diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia

A

Vitamin B3

308
Q

This UV penetrate more into the deep layers of the skin and may lead to premature skin aging

A

UVA

309
Q

Most common uterine sarcoma

A

Leiomyosarcoma