Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HEM Exam 3 > FOR THE TRULY BRAVE: Leukemia, Lymphoma, and PCD Integration > Flashcards

FOR THE TRULY BRAVE: Leukemia, Lymphoma, and PCD Integration Flashcards

1
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma affects which population

A
  • middle-aged to elderly adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

prognosis of high white blood count in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bone marrow aspirate for ALL

A
  • large cells- open chromatin- prominent nucleoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

70% of patients with MM present with

A
  • bone pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma - patients present with

A
  • high stage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prognosis of abnormal(11q23) in ALL

A
  • bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which is the most common adult leukemia

A
  • CLL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ALL is a malignancy of

A
  • committed lymphoid progenitor cell- pre-T or pre-B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

curability of small lymphocytic lymphoma

A
  • incurable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

liver or bone marrow involvement or extensive involvement of another extralymphatic organ is what stage

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

light chains expressed by flow cytometry of normal lymph nodes

A
  • B cells express both kappa and lambda light chains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

small lymphocytic lymphoma is the essentially the same disease as

A
  • CLL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • which can manifest clinically over months to years
A
  • CLL- CML
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

intermediate grade lymphomas

A
  • diffuse large cell lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CD 1-8 is which cell?

A
  • T cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mediastinal or soft tissue mass presents in which cell line

A
  • T cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

paracortical hyperplasia is the proliferation of

A
  • T lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

prognosis of hyperdiploidy in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • good
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what kind of disorder is CML classified as

A
  • myeloproliferative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which is the most common cancer in children

A
  • ALL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

prognosis of (4;11) in what condition?

What is the prognosis?

A
  • ALL
  • poor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

prognosis of >10 years of age in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma flow cytometry light chain

A
  • light chain restricted
  • only kappa or lambda
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma flow immunochemistry

A
  • positive for CD30 and CD15
  • negative for CD45
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bone disease associated with abnormal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow

A
  • lytic lesions/pathologic features- hypercalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

small lymphocytic lymphoma affects what cell

A
  • mature B cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

familial syndromes seen in what condition?

what are these syndromes?

A
  • ALL
  • down syndrome - neurofibromatosis - bloom syndrome - ataxia telangiectasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

deletions of chromosomes 5 and 7 in AML (good/bad)

A
  • bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma translocation

A
  • t(8;14)
  • t(2;8)
  • t(8:22)
  • c-myc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma translocation

A
  • t(14;18)
  • BCL2

FAUX LICK. IT’S A FAUX PAS FOR A 14 YEAR OLD TO LICK AN 18 YEAR OLD. SHIT, ITS PROBABLY ILLEGAL TOO. AND YOU KNOW WHAT COMES AFTER LICKING, 2 BASTARD CHILDREN (BCL2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma curability of low stage

A
  • low stage can be cured
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

lymphoblastic lymphoma flow cytometry

A
  • positive for CD4 and CD8
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

blast crisis can lead to

A
  • AML- ALL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

markers for ALL

A
  • CD19- CD10- TdT- no surface light chain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

prognosis of t(12;21) in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • good

JUST THINK THAT 12;21 IS HAPPY NUMBER BECAUSE IT GOES THE SAME WAY FORWARDS AS BACKWARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

stage 2 of Rai classification

A
  • lymphocytosis- splenomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which cell line of ALL has the worst prognosis

A
  • T cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

case symptoms of Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia

A
  • headache- blurred vision- hyperviscosity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

AML is a malignancy of

A
  • committed myeloid progenitor cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which population is impacted by PCD

A
  • adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

t(15;17) in cytogenetics with AML (good/bad)

A
  • good
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

follicular hyperplasia is the proliferation of

A
  • B lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

race most impacted by multiple myeloma

A
  • African Americans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what condition is also common in CLL

A
  • autoimmune hemolytic anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

in ALL malignant cells lose

A
  • ability to differentiate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CD 34 is which cell?

A
  • stem cell
  • blast cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what test do you do after CML is identified?

A
  • quantitative PCR for the bcr/abl transcript
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

clinical presentation of amyloidosis

A
  • raccoon eyes- enlarged tongue- proteinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

definition of leukemias

A
  • neoplasms of hematopoietic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

CLL is a malignancy of

A
  • mature B cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

follicular hyperplasia example

A
  • neck nodes in a patient with strep throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

follicular hyperplasia has a need for

A
  • antibody production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Reed-Sternberg cell is what kind of cell

A
  • activated B cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bone marrow aspirate of CLL

A
  • variable involvement- loss of heterogeneity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

paracortical hyperplasia example

A
  • neck nodes in patients with infectious mono
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

treatment of APL

A
  • all-trans retinoic acid (ALTRA)- induction chemo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

sinus histiocytosis example

A
  • lymph nodes draining a carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

stage 3 of Rai classification

A
  • lymphocytosis- anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor of choice

A
  • imatinib
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

lymphoblastic lymphoma affects which cell

A
  • immature T cells expressing CD3
  • coexpressing CD4 and CD8
  • and TdT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

median survival of stage 4

A
  • 2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

stage 0 of Rai classification

A
  • lymphocytosis only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma diagnosis based on

A
  • finding Reed-sternberg cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

stage 1 of Rai classification

A
  • lymphocytosis- lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the median age of diagnosis of ALL

A
  • 11
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

ALTRA moa

A
  • differentiating agent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

is AML curable

A
  • yes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

clinical manifestation of ALL

A
  • tumor lysis syndrome- lymph node involvement- mediastinal mass- CNS involvement- testicular involvement in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

multiple myeloma malignant plasma cells interact with

A
  • bone marrow microenvironment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

which are composed of myeloid origin

A
  • AML- CML
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the most common cause of enlarged lymph nodes?

A
  • benign reactive lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which are composed of lymphoid origin

A
  • ALL- CLL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

median survival of stage 1

A
  • 8 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

AML arising from history of MDS or myeloproliferative disorder (good/bad)

A
  • bad
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

lymphoblastic lymphoma affects which population

A
  • children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

gender most impacted by multiple myeloma

A
  • males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

most non-hodgkin lymphoma is what type of cell

A
  • B cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

forward scatter in flow cytometry separates based on

A
  • size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

steps of multiple myeloma

A
  • MGUS -> smoldering -> myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

findings associated with abnormal immunoglobulins and other factors secreted by malignant plasma cells

A
  • renal disease - rouleaux- amyloid- hyperviscosity- cryoglobulins- coagulation abnormalities CCRRAH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what are myeloma defining events

A
  • hypercalcemia- renal disease- anemia- bone diseaseCRAB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

non-hodgkin lymphoma risk factors

A
  • age
  • infections
  • immune disorders
  • toxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

median survival of stage 3

A
  • 3 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

treatment for AML

A
  • 7 days cytarabine- 3 days daunorubicin, idarubicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

age most impacted by multiple myeloma

A
  • 65-70
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

bone marrow aspirate in CML

A
  • hypercellular- increased M:E
87
Q

which chromosome is the Philadelphia chromosome?

A
  • t(9;22)- 22 BCR/ABL is Ph
88
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia related to cancer?

A
  • low grade lymphoma- involving bone marrow and spleen
89
Q

sinus histiocytosis stimulation of

A
  • antigen-presenting cells
90
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma affects which cell

A
  • mature B cell
91
Q

clinical and pathology findings associated with multiple myeloma are a consequence of

A
  • tumor mass effect of the malignant plasma cells - abnormal secretory products from the malignant plasma cells - monoclonal immunoglobulins and cytokines
92
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma curability

A
  • incurable
93
Q

amyloidosis present with which stain?

A
  • congo red staining of bone marrow biopsy
94
Q

in AML, malignant cells lose

A
  • the ability to differentiate
95
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia associated with which immunoglobulin

A
  • IgM
96
Q

diagnosis test for Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia

A
  • SPEP showing IgM monoclonal spike- serum viscosity
97
Q

side scatter in flow cytometry separates based on

A
  • complexity
98
Q

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma cytogenetic abnormalities? molecular abnormalities?

A
  • no cytogenetic abnormalities
  • abnormal Bcl-6
99
Q

risk factors for multiple myeloma

A
  • age- gender- race- family history- radiation exposure- chronic antigenic stimulation
100
Q

bone marrow biopsy of AML

A
  • monotonous population of mononuclear cells
101
Q

what percent of CML patients are asymptomatic

A
  • 20-40%
102
Q

importance of malignant cells in chronic phase of CML

A
  • maintain ability to differentiate
103
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia more common in which gender

A
  • men
104
Q

which can manifest clinically over weeks to months

A
  • AML- ALL
105
Q

mantle cell lymphoma flow cytometry

A
  • CD5 and CD19 positive
  • CD10 and CD23 negative

MY BOY CORCH ROCKED NUMBER 5 FOR STATE AT 19 YEARS OLD. HE WOULD GO ON MY MANTLE ABOVE MJ AND HIS 10+ CHAMPIONSHIPS BECAUSE WE ARE STATE FANS.

106
Q

CD 19 and early 20s are which cell?

A
  • B cell
107
Q

risk factors of most patients with non-hodgkin lymphoma

A
  • most patients have no identifiable risk factors
108
Q

diagnosis of multiple myeloma

A
  • monoclonal plasma cells of >10%AND- Myeloma Defining event
109
Q

risk factors for ALL

A
  • prior radiation- prior chemo- familial syndromes
110
Q

prognosis of <1 year of age in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • bad
111
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia is a disease of which population

A
  • adults
112
Q

CD 15 is which cell?

A
  • granulocytic
113
Q

median survival of stage 0

A
  • > 15 years
114
Q

treatment of CLL

A
  • not a curable diseases- treat only if symptoms present
115
Q

risk of developing myeloma from MGUS

A
  • 1% per year
116
Q

CML tends to choose which pathway

A
  • myeloid
117
Q

petechiae are present in

A
  • AML- ALL
118
Q

median survival of stage 2

A
  • 6 years
119
Q

lymphatic involvement on both sides of the diaphragm is what stage?

A

III

120
Q

lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • continuous lymph node group to contiguous lymph node group
121
Q

t(9;22) in ALL

A
  • bad but does not independently drive disease
122
Q

CLL is an incidental lab finding in what percentage of cases

A
  • 20%
123
Q

ALL most commonly of which cell line

A
  • B cell
124
Q

B symptoms

A
  • fever > 38 degrees
  • drenching night sweats
  • weight loss > 10% over 6 months
125
Q

multiple myeloma is a tumor of

A
  • plasma cells
126
Q

risk of developing myeloma from smoldering

A
  • 10% per year
127
Q

what does MGUS stand for

A
  • monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
128
Q

prognosis of hypodiploidy in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • bad
129
Q

leukemias have what kind of involvement

A
  • significant peripheral blood and bone marrow involvement
130
Q

biomarkers for multiple myeloma

A
  • extreme bone marrow clonal plasmacytosis- elevated free serum light chain level- more than one focal lesion on MRI
131
Q

small lymphocytic lymphoma affects what population

A
  • adults
132
Q

bence jones protein

A
  • kappa light chains in urine protein electrophoresis
133
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma flow cytometry nor cytogenetics

A
  • not diagnostic
134
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma affects which cell

A
  • mature B cell
135
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma closely related to

A
  • ALL FAB L3
136
Q

result of the Philadelphia chromosome

A
  • fusion protein with constitutive tyrosine kinase activity
137
Q

median age of diagnosis for CLL

A
  • 72
138
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia cell morphology

A
  • >10% lymphoplasmacytic
139
Q

best screening test for CML

A
  • fish
140
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia most symptoms caused by

A
  • elevated IgM
141
Q

prognosis of t(9;22) in ALL (good/bad)

A
  • bad
142
Q

single nodal region or a single extra nodal site is what stage

A

I

143
Q

small lymphocytic lymphoma flow cytometry

A
  • CD5 and CD23 present
  • light chain restricted
144
Q

what is the most frequent molecular abnormality in AML

A
  • FLT3
145
Q

paracortical hyperplasia has an increased need for

A
  • cell-mediated immunityq
146
Q

non-hodgkin lymphoma associated toxic chemicals

A
  • pesticides- herbicides- benzenes
147
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma grade

A
  • low grade
148
Q

two or more nodal regions of an extra nodal site on the same side of the diagraphragm is what stage

A

II

149
Q

being older and being diagnosed with AML (good/bad)

A
  • bad
150
Q

labs for amyloidosis

A
  • < 10% clonal plasma cells in bone marrow- <3% g/dl monoclonal protein
151
Q

peripheral blood in CML

A
  • numerous immature granulocytes- increased basophils
152
Q

treatment related AML mostly due to

A
  • radiation therapy- chemo
153
Q

lab findings for CLL

A
  • leukocytosis- lymphocytosis- hypogammaglobulinemia- smudge cells
154
Q

most common type of non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
155
Q

how do you distinguish A stage from B stage?

A

A stage is the absence of the B stage symptoms

156
Q

low CD numbers are which cell?

A
  • T cell
157
Q

13q14 small lymphocytic lymphoma prognosis

A
  • good
158
Q

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma can be associated with

A
  • immune dysfunctional
159
Q

CD 33 is which cell?

A
  • myeloid
160
Q

PCD are diseases associated with

A
  • monoclonal proliferation of immunoglobulin producing plasma cells
161
Q

flow cytometry of normal lymph nodes

A
  • mixture of B and T cells
  • T cells express either CD4 or CD8
162
Q

CD 13 is which cell?

A
  • granulocyte
163
Q

what genetic abnormality is most seen in APL

A
  • t(15;17) PML/RARa
164
Q

morphology of cells in ALL

A
  • homogenous lymphoblasts
165
Q

sinus histiocytosis expansion of

A
  • subcapsular/medullary sinus
166
Q

immunophenotyping

A
  • identifying phenotype using fluorescently labelled antibodies
167
Q

result of malignant plasma cells interacting with bone marrow microenvironment

A
  • activation of osteoclasts- suppression of osteoblasts- leads to lytic bone disease
168
Q

morphology of the cells in CLL

A
  • homogenous mature lymphocytes- smudge cells on smear
169
Q

mantle cell lymphoma occurs in which population

A
  • middle aged to elderly adults
170
Q

is multiple myeloma curable?

A
  • no
171
Q

sinus histiocytosis is proliferation of

A
  • histiocytes
  • tissue macrophages
172
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma peak incidence

A
  • 20s
173
Q

what is the acute presentation of ALL in teens?

A
  • mediastinal or soft tissue mass
174
Q

treatment related AML (good/bad)

A
  • bad
175
Q

morphology of cells in AML

A
  • homogenous myeloblasts- Auer rod
176
Q

follicular hyperplasia enlargement of

A
  • germinal center
  • tangible-body macrophages
  • increased mitotic activity
177
Q

non-hodgkin lymphoma associated infections

A
  • HIV
  • EBV
  • H.pylori
  • Hep B and C
  • HTLV-1
  • HHV-8
178
Q

pathogenesis of CML

A
  • Philadelphia chromosome
179
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma affects which population

A
  • children
180
Q

CML stands for

A
  • chronic myelogenous leukemia
181
Q

CD 14 is which cell?

A
  • monocytic
182
Q

what is an Aeur rod

A
  • pink needle in the cell
183
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by presence of

A
  • Reed-sternberg cell
184
Q

lab values for MGUS

A
  • < 3.0 g/dL serum monoclonal proteinAND- < 10% monoclonal plasma cells in bone marrow- no end organ damage
185
Q

paracortical hyperplasia expansion of

A
  • paracortical activity
  • increased mitotic activity
  • activated lymphocytes
186
Q

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma occurs in which population

A
  • children
  • adults
187
Q

smoldering myeloma labs

A
  • > 3.0 g/dL serum monoclonal proteinOR> 10-60% bone marrow plasma cellsOR- urinary monoclonal proteinAND- no myeloma defining events
188
Q

morphology of the cells in CML

A
  • heterogenous
189
Q

mantle cell lymphoma expresses high levels of

A
  • cyclin D1
190
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma smaller peak incidence

A
  • >50s
191
Q

acute DIC and coagulopathy most commonly seen in

A
  • APL
192
Q

precursor protein in amyloidosis

A
  • secreted in a soluble state- becomes insoluble at some tissue sites and compromises organ function
193
Q

immunoglobulins most often found in MM

A
  • IgG - IgA- light chains only
194
Q

CLL stands for

A
  • chronic lymphocytic leukemia
195
Q

mantle cell lymphoma translocation

A
  • t(11;14)
  • cyclin D1 gene
196
Q

lymphoma pathology classification schemes

A
  • working formulation
  • WHO
197
Q

follicular small cleaved lymphoma may progress to

A
  • large cell lymphoma
198
Q

light chains in amyloidosis

A
  • lambda light chains
199
Q

clonality of AML

A
  • clonal expansion of myeloid blasts
200
Q

Waldenstrom’s macrogammaglobulinemia phenotype

A
  • mature B cell
201
Q

Amyloid light chain amyloidosis associated with

A
  • multiple myeloma- abnormal light chains
202
Q

trisomy 12 small lymphocytic lymphoma prognosis

A
  • bad
203
Q

high grade lymphomas

A
  • burkitt’s lymphoma
  • lymphoblastic lymphoma
204
Q

findings associated with abnormal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow

A
  • impaired hematopoiesis- hypogammaglobulinemia- bone disease- nerve root compression
205
Q

leukemias are diagnosed according to

A
  • prominent cell type involved- stage of maturation
206
Q

lymphoblastic lymphoma presents with what symptom

A
  • mediastinal mass
207
Q

typical pattern on flow cytometry for CLL

A
  • mature B cell phenotype with CD5 and CD23- light chain restricted
208
Q

therapeutic options for CML

A
  • Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitors- allogenic stem cell transplantation
209
Q

% of bone marrow blasts in AML

A
  • >20%
210
Q

low grade lymphomas

A
  • small lymphocytic lymphoma
  • follicular small cleaved lymphoma
211
Q

symptoms of smoldering multiple myeloma

A
  • asymptomatic
212
Q

common lab finding of CML

A
  • leukocytosis- neutrophilia- basophilia- eosinophilia
213
Q

stage 4 of Rai classification

A
  • lymphocytosis- thrombocytopenia

HEM Exam 3 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions