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First Aid Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

K_m reflects ___

A

substrate affinity for enzyme (inversely)

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2
Q

V_max is a function of ___

A

enzyme concentration

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3
Q

low ___ means high enzyme affinity

A

K_m

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4
Q

inhibitors are studied with graph of ___ vs. ___

this is aka ___ plot (2)

A

1/V
1/[S]
double reciprocal
Lineweaver-Burk

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5
Q

x intercept of double reciprocal plot is ___

A

NAME?

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6
Q

y intercept of double reciprocal plot is ___

A

1/V_max

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7
Q

K_m is the ___ at which V is ___

A

substrate concentration

V_max/2

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8
Q

competitive/noncompetitive inhibitors do not change V_max

A

competitive

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9
Q

competitive/noncompetitive inhibitors do not change K_m

A

noncompetitive

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10
Q

efficacy change means ___ of dose response curve

A

vertical shift

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11
Q

potency change means ___ of dose response curve

A

horizontal shift

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12
Q

competitive inhibitors change ___

A

potency

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13
Q

non-competitive inhibitors change ___

A

efficacy

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14
Q

V_d in terms of plasma drug concentration

A

V_d = (amount of drug in body)/(plasma concentration)

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15
Q

drugs with low V_d distribute in ___
drugs with medium V_d distribute in ___
drugs with high V_d distribute in ___

A

blood
ECF or TBW
tissues

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16
Q

low V_d means ___ L

A

4–8

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17
Q

clearance (CL) in terms of plasma drug concentration (C_p)

A

CL = (rate of drug elimination)/(C_p)

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18
Q

CL in terms of V_d

A

CL = V_d x K_e

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19
Q

t_1/2 in terms of V_d

A

t_1/2 = (0.7 x V_d)/CL

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20
Q

loading dose in terms of V_d

A

LD = (C_p x V_d)/F

where F is bioavailability

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21
Q

maintenance dose in terms of C_p

A

MD = (C_p x CL)/F

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22
Q

zero order kinetics means

A

constant elimination per unit time

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23
Q

3 drugs with zero order kinetics

A

phenytoin
ethanol
aspirin

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24
Q

first order kinetics means

A

constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time

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25
Q

4 weak acid drugs

treat overdose of weak acid with ___

A 
phenobarbital
MTX
TCAs
aspirin
bicarbonate
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26
Q

weak base drug___

treat weak base overdose with ___

A

amphetamine

ammonium chloride

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27
Q

phase I metabolism is done by ___
its products are active/inactive
3 phase I reactions

A 
CYP450
active
reduction
oxidation
hydrolysis
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28
Q

phase II metabolism products are active/inactive,
polar/nonpolar
3 phase II reactions

A 
inactive
very polar
glucuronidation
acetylation
sulfation
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29
Q

geriatric patients lose phase ___ metabolism first

A

I

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30
Q

a partial agonist has higher/lower potency and
higher/lower efficacy
than full agonist.

A

higher OR lower OR same

lower

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31
Q

therapeutic index

A

TI = LD_50/ED_50

where LD_50 is median toxic dose,
ED_50 is median effective dose

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32
Q

the first synapse in a parasympathetic pathway is ___

A

nicotinic

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33
Q

the second synapse in a parasympathetic pathway is ___

A

muscarinic

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34
Q

the first synapse in a sympathetic pathway is ___

A

nicotinic

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35
Q

the second synapse in most sympathetic pathways is ___

2 exceptions are ___

A

noradrenergic
sweat gland
renal vascular smooth muscle

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36
Q

2nd synapse in sweat gland pathway is ___

A

muscarinic

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37
Q

2nd synapse in renal vascular smooth muscle pathway is ___

A

D1 dopaminergic

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38
Q

nicotinic receptor is ___tropic

muscarinic receptor is ___tropic

A

iono

metabo

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39
Q

nicotinic receptor is a ___-gated ___ channel

A

ligand

Na+/K+

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40
Q

alpha1 adrenergic effect on eye

A

dilator muscle contraction

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41
Q

alpha_1 adrenergic receptor type

A

G_qPLR

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42
Q

alpha_1 adrenergic affect on GIT

A

increased sphincter contraction

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43
Q

alpha_2 adrenergic receptor type

alpha 2 effect on metabolism

A

G_iPLR

decreased insulin release

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44
Q

beta_1 adrenergic receptor type

A

G_sPLR

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45
Q

beta_1 adrenergic affect on kidney

A

increased renin release

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46
Q

beta_1 adrenergic affect on metabolism

A

increased lipolysis

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47
Q

beta_2 adrenergic affect on vessels

A

vasodilation

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48
Q

both beta_1 and beta_2 affect the heart but ___ is stronger

only ___ affects the lungs, causing ___

A

beta_1
beta_2
bronchodilation

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49
Q

beta_2 adrenergic affect on metabolism (3)

A

increased lipolysis
increased glycogenolysis
increased insulin release

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50
Q

beta_2 adrenergic affect on eye

A

increased aqueous humor production

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51
Q

M1 muscarinic receptor is ___
M2 muscarinic receptor is ___
M3 muscarinic receptor is ___

A

G_qPLR
G_iPLR
G_qPLR

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52
Q

M2Rs are expressed by ___ and do ___

A

cardiomyocytes

negative inotropism and chronotropism

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53
Q

M3Rs do ___ to exocrine glands

A

increase secretion

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54
Q

M3Rs do ___ to GIT smooth muscle

A

increase peristalsis

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55
Q

M3Rs do ___ to lungs

A

bronchoconstriction

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56
Q

M3Rs do ___ (2) to eye

A

pupillary sphincter contraction (miosis)

ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation)

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57
Q

M3Rs do ___ to bladder

A

detrusor contraction

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58
Q

D1Rs are ___

they do ___

A

G_sPLR

renal vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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59
Q

D2Rs are ___

they do ___

A

G_iPLR

neurotransmitter modulation

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60
Q

histamine H1Rs are ___

A

G_qPLR

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61
Q

H1Rs do ___ (4)

A

RT mucus secretion
bronchoconstriction
itching
pain

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62
Q

histamine H2Rs are ___

they do ___

A

G_sPLR

gastric acid secretion

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63
Q

ADH V1Rs are ___

they do ___

A

G_qPLR

vasoconstriction

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64
Q

ADH V2Rs are ___

they do ___

A

G_sPLR

H2O reabsorption in collecting duct

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65
Q

Y is converted to ___ by ___.

this is blocked by ___, which works as a ___

A

DOPA
Y hydroxylase
metyrosine
antihypertensive

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66
Q

DOPA is converted to ___ by ___.

cofactor is ___

A

DA
DOPA decarboxylase (AAADC)
B6

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67
Q

DA is imported to vesicles by ___.

this is blocked by ___

A

VMAT (vesicular monoamine transporter)

reserpine

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68
Q

DA is converted to ___ by ___.

cofactor is ___

A

NE
DBH (DA beta hydroxylase)
vitamin C

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69
Q

In ___, NE is converted to ___ by ___, in the ___.

___ is required

A 
adrenal medulla
E
PNMT (phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase)
cytoplasm
SAM
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70
Q

After MAO-COMT in either order, DA becomes ___

A

HVA (homovanillic acid)

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71
Q

After MAO-COMT in either order, E becomes ___ and NE becomes ___

A

both become MHPG (methoxyhydroxyphenylglycol)

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72
Q

After COMT, E becomes ___ and NE becomes ___.

A

metanephrine

normetanephrine

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73
Q

adrenal pheochromocytomas make more ___ than ___, but other ones do the opposite

A

E

NE

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74
Q

catecholamine exocytosis is potentiated by ___ (2) and inhibited by ___

A

amphetamine
ephedrine
guanethidine

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75
Q

___ (3) blocks catecholamine reuptake

A

cocaine
amphetamine
TCAs

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76
Q

2 presynaptic receptors which inhibit catecholamine release

A

alpha_2

M2

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77
Q

1 presynaptic receptor which facilitates catecholamine release

A

AII (angiotensin)

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78
Q

rate limiting step of cholinergic neurotransmission is ___

this is inhibited by ___

A

Ch uptake

hemicholinium

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79
Q

ACh is synthesized by ___ from ___ and ___

A

choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)
choline
Ac CoA

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80
Q

uptake of ACh into vesicule is inhibited by ___

vesicular exocytosis is inhibited by ___

A

vesamicol

botulinum

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81
Q

direct cholinomimetic for GI motility

A

bethanechol

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82
Q

2 indications for bethanechol

A

ileus (post op, neurogenic)
urinary retention
b/c it activates bladder and bowel

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83
Q

2 direct cholinomimetics for glaucoma

A

pilocarpine

carbachol

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84
Q

pilocarpine causes contraction of ___ (2)

and secretion of ___ (3)

A 
pupillary sphincter
ciliary body
saliva
sweat
tears
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85
Q

contraction of ___ helps open angle glaucoma

contraction of ___ helps closed angle glaucoma

A

ciliary body

sphincter pupillae

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86
Q

direct cholinomimetic for testing asthma

A

methacholine

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87
Q

indirect cholinomimetics are ___s

A

AChEI

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88
Q

indirect cholinomimetic for GI motility

A

neostigmine

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89
Q

neostigmine has high/low CNS penetration

A

low

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90
Q

4 neostigmine indications

A

ileus (post op, neurogenic)
urinary retention
MG
post op NMJ block reversal

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91
Q

cholinomimetic for MG dx

A

edrophonium

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92
Q

cholinomimetic for MG tx

A

pyridostigmine

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93
Q

2 indirect cholinomimetics for glaucoma

A

echothiophate

physiostigmine

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94
Q

pyridostigmine has high/low CNS penetration
physiostigmine has high/low CNS penetration
echothiophate has high/low CNS penetration

A

low
high
low

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95
Q

cholinergic intoxication causes CNS ___

and skeletal muscle ___

A

excitation

excitation

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96
Q

2 antidotes for cholinergic intoxication

A

atropine

pralidoxime

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97
Q

pralidoxime functions in cholinergic intoxication by ___

A

regenerating active ChE

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98
Q

antimuscarinic for eye

A

atropine
homatropine
tropicamide

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99
Q

atropine causes ___ (2)

A

mydriasis

cycloplegia

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100
Q

cycloplegia means ___

A

inability to accomodate

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101
Q

antimuscarinic for Parkinson’s disease

A

benztropine

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102
Q

antimuscarinic for motion sickness

A

scopolamine

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103
Q

2 antimuscarinic for asthma and COPD

A

ipratropium

tiotropium

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104
Q

2 antimuscarinics for bladder spasticity

A

oxybutynin
darifenacin
solifenacin

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105
Q

glycopyrrolate used for ___ (3)

A

reduce airway secretions
drooling
peptic ulcers

106
Q

atropine effects

A

eye: pupil dilation, cycloplegia
respiratory: decreased secretions from airway
stomach: decreased acid secretion
gut: decreased motility
bladder: decreased urgency in cystitis

107
Q

atropine toxicity

A 
hot
dry
red
blind (cycloplegia)
mad (disoriented)

may cause acute angle-closure glaucoma, urinary retention (in BPH men or hyperthermic infants)

108
Q

at low doses E agonizes ___

at higher doses it agonizes ___

A

beta_1

all adrenergic receptors

109
Q

E is indicated for ___ (4)

A

anaphylaxis
open angle glaucoma
asthma
hypoTN

110
Q

NE agonizes ___

A

alpha_1 > alpha_2 > beta_1

111
Q

NE is indicated for ___

A

hypoTN (*decreases renal perfusion)

112
Q

isoproterenol agonizes ___

A

beta_1 = beta_2

113
Q

isoproterenol is indicated for ___

A

evaluation of tachyarrhythmias

114
Q

DA agonizes ___

A

D1 = D2 > beta adrenergic > alpha adrenergic

115
Q

DA is indicated for ___ (3)

A

shock
heart failure
unstable bradycardia

116
Q

DA’s effects on the heart

A

+ inotrope
+ chronotrope
at high doses

117
Q

dobutamine agonizes ___

A

beta_1 > beta_2 > alpha

118
Q

dobutamine is indicated for ___ (3)

A

heart failure

cardiac stress testing

119
Q

dobutamine’s effects on the heart

A

inotropic > chronotropic

120
Q

phenylephrine agonizes ___

A

alpha_1 > alpha_2

121
Q

phenylephrine is indicated for ___ (3)

A

pupil dilation
nasal decongestion
hypotension

122
Q

5 beta_2-selective agonists

A 
metaproterenol
albuterol
salmetrol
terbutaline
ritodrine
123
Q

2 beta_2 agonists for acute asthma

A

metaproterenol

albuterol

124
Q

beta_2 agonist for chronic asthma tx

125
Q

2 tocolytic beta_2 agonist

A

terbutaline

ritodrine

126
Q

3 indirect sympathomimetics

of these ___ (2) are secretagogues

A

amphetamine
ephedrine
cocaine

amphetamine
ephedrine

127
Q

3 amphetamine indications

A

narcolepsy
obesity
ADD

128
Q

3 ephedrine indications

A

nasal decongestion
urinary incontinence
hypoTN

129
Q

what drug should you avoid prescribing in patients with cocaine intoxication?

A

beta blockers because of the unopposed alpha 1 activation leading to extreme hypertension

130
Q

2 alpha_2 agonists

A

clonidine

alpha-methyldope

131
Q

applications of clonidine

A

Hypertensive urgency, ADHD, severe pain, ethanol and opioid withdrawal

132
Q

Toxicity of clonidine

A

CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, small pupil size

133
Q

applications of alpha-methyl dopa

A

hypertension in pregnancy

134
Q

Toxicity of alpha-methyl dopa

A

direct Coombs+ hemolytic anemia, SLE like syndrome

135
Q

2 non-selective alpha blockers

___ is reversible blocker

A

phenoxybenzamine
phentolamine
phentolamine

136
Q

Phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine are (reversible/irreversible)?

A

phenoxybenzamine: irreversible; phentolamine: reversible

137
Q

applications of phenoxybenzamine

A

pheo to prevent hypertensive crisis from too much catecholamines

138
Q

toxicity of phenoxybenzamine

A

orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia

139
Q

applications of phenotolamine?

A

pts on MAO inhibitors that ate too much tyrosine

140
Q

applications of a1 selective blockers

A

urinary Sxs of BPH, PTSD (prazosin), HTN (except tamsulosin)

141
Q

Toxicity of a1 selective blockers

A

1st dose orthostatic hypoHTN
dizziness
H/A

142
Q

alpha_1 selective blockers end in ___

143
Q

alpha_2 selective blocker

A

mirtazapine

144
Q

mirtazapine is indicated for ___

A

depression

145
Q

3 mirtazapine SEs

A

sedation
increased cholesterol
increased appetite

146
Q

what are the appliations of beta blockers?

A

angina pectoris, MI, SVT, HTN, CHF, Glaucoma

147
Q

how do beta blockers effect angina pectoris?

A

decreases heart rate and contractility, resulting in decreased O2 consumption

148
Q

which beta blockers decrease mortality in Mis?

A

metoprolol, carvedilol, bisoprolol

149
Q

which beta blockers are used in SVT

A

metoprolol, esmolol

150
Q

how do beta blockers effect SVT?

A

they decrease AV conduction velocity

151
Q

how do beta blockers effect HTN?

A

decrease CO, decrease renin secretion by B1 block in JGA cells

152
Q

How do beta blockers effect CHF?

A

slows progression

153
Q

Which beta blocker effects glaucoma and how?

A

timolol by decreasing secretion of aqueous humor

154
Q

what are the toxic effects of beta blockers?

A

impotence; CV adverse effects: bradycardia, AV block, CHF; CNS effects: seizures, sedation, sleep alterations; dyslipidemia (metoprolol), asthma or COPD exacerbation

155
Q

acebutolol is ___-selective beta blocker

A

beta_1 (partial agonist)

156
Q

atenolol is ___-selective beta blocker

157
Q

betaxolol is ___-selective beta blocker

158
Q

esmolol is ___-selective beta blocker

159
Q

labetalol is ___-selective beta blocker

A

non, also nonselective alpha

160
Q

metoprolol is ___-selective beta blocker

161
Q

nadolol is ___-selective beta blocker

162
Q

pindolol is ___-selective beta blocker

A

non (partial agonist)

163
Q

propranolol is ___-selective beta blocker

164
Q

timolol is ___-selective beta blocker

165
Q

2 non-selectve alpha + beta blockers

A

carvedilol

labetalol

166
Q

2 partial beta agonists

A

pindolol

acebutolol

167
Q

what is nebivolol?

A

cardiac selective B1 adrenergic blockade with stimulation of beta 3 receptors leading to activation of NOS in vasculature

168
Q

tx for acetaminophen poisoning

A

N-acetyl cysteine

169
Q

tx for salicylate poisoning (2)

A

bicarbonate

dialysis

170
Q

purpose of bicarbonate in salicylate poisoning

A

alkalinize urine

171
Q

tx for amphetamine poisoning

A

ammonium chloride

172
Q

purpose of ammonium chloride in amphetamine poisoning

A

acidify urine

173
Q

tx for anticholinesterase poisoning (2)

A

atropine

pralidoxime

174
Q

tx for antimuscarinic toxicity

A

physiostigmine salicylate and control HTN

175
Q

tx for beta blocker toxicity

176
Q

tx for digitalis toxicity (5)

A

anti-dig Fab

177
Q

tx for Fe toxicity

A

desferoxamine, deferasirox

178
Q

tx for Pb toxicity (4)

A

CaEDTA
dimercaprol
succimer
penicillamine

179
Q

tx for Hg/As/Au toxicity

A

dimercaprol (BAL), succimer

180
Q

tx for Cu/As/Au toxicity

A

penicillamine

181
Q

tx for CN- toxicity (3)

A

nitrite
hydroxocobalamin
thiosulfate

182
Q

tx for methemoglobinemia (2)

A

methylene blue

vitamin C

183
Q

tx for CO toxicity (2)

A

100% O2

hyperbaric O2

184
Q

tx for MeOH/ethylene glycol toxicity (3)

A

fomepizole> ethanol

dialysis

185
Q

tx for opioid toxicity

186
Q

tx for benzo toxicity

A

flumazenil

187
Q

tx for TCA toxcity

A

bicarbonate

188
Q

purpose of bicarbonate in TCA toxicity

A

alkalinize serum

189
Q

tx for heparin toxicity

A

protamine sulfate

190
Q

tx for warfarin toxicity (2)

A

vitamin K

plasma (if active bleeding)

191
Q

tx for tPA/streptokinase toxicity

A

aminocaproic acid

192
Q

tx for theophylline toxicity

A

beta blocker

193
Q

Fe poisoning is particularly common with ___

194
Q

Fe is cytotoxic because of ___

A

membrane lipid peroxidation

195
Q

acute Fe poisoning presents with ___

A

gastric bleeding

196
Q

chronic Fe poisoning presents wtih ___ (2)

A

metabolic acidosis

GI obstruction 2’ to scarring

197
Q

drugs causing atropine-like SEs

198
Q

drugs causing coronary vasospasm

A

cocaine

sumatriptan, ergot alkaloids

199
Q

drugs causing flushing

A

vancomycin
adenosine
niacin
Ca2+ channel blockers

200
Q

drugs causing dilated cardiomyopathy

A

doxorubicin, daunorubicin

201
Q

drugs which cause torsades

A 
class Ia antiarrhythmics
 (quinidine)
class III antiarrhythmics
 (sotalol)
antiarrhythmics, macrolides, antipsychotics, TCAs
202
Q

drugs which cause agranulocytosis

A 
clozapine
carbamazepine
colchicine
dapsone
PTU
methimazole
203
Q

drugs which cause aplastic anemia

A 
chloramphenicol
, carbamazepine
benzene
NSAIDs
PTU
methimazole
204
Q

drug causing direct coombs positive hemolytic anemia

A

alpha methyldopa, penicilin

205
Q

drug causing gray baby syndrome

A

chloramphenicol

206
Q

drugs causing hemolysis in context of G6PD deficiency

A 
INH
sulfonamides
, dapsone
primaquine
aspirin
ibuprofen
nitrofurantoin
207
Q

drugs causing megaloblastic anemia

A

pheyntoin
MTX
sulfa

208
Q

drugs causing thrombocytopenia

A

heparin, cimetidine

209
Q

thromboti complications

210
Q

drug causing cough

211
Q

drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis

A

bleomycin
, methotrexate
amiodarone
busulfan

212
Q

drug causing acute cholestatic hepatitis, jaundice

A

macrolide - erythromycin

213
Q

drugs causing diarrhea

A

metformin, erythromycin, colchicine, orlistat, acarbose

214
Q

drugs causing hepatic necrosis

A

halothane
Valproic acid
acetaminophen
amanita phalloides

215
Q

drugs causing pancreatitis

A

didanosine, corticosteroids, alcohol, valproic acid, azathioprine, diuretics (furosemide, HCTZ)

216
Q

drug causing hepatitis

217
Q

drugs causing pseudomembranous colitis

A

clindamycin

ampicillin, cephalosporins

218
Q

drugs causing gynecomastia

A 
spironolactone
digitalis
cimetidine
alcohol
ketoconazole
estrogens
219
Q

drugs causing hot flashes

A

tamoxifen

clomiphene

220
Q

drugs causing adrenocortical insufficiency

A

glucocorticoid withdrawal leads to HPA suppression

221
Q

drugs causing hypothyroidism

A

Li

amiodarone, sulfonamides

222
Q

drugs causing gout

A

furosemide
, cyclosporine

thiazides, pyrizinamide, niacin

223
Q

drugs causing photosensitivity

A

sulfonamides
amiodarone
tetracycline, 5FU

224
Q

drugs causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A 
anti-epileptic drugs (carbamazepine
ethosuximide
lamotrigine
phenobarbital
phenytoin
)
sulfa
penicillin
allopurinol
225
Q

drugs causing SLE-like syndrome

A

Sulfa, hydralazine
INH
procainamide
phenytoin, etanercept

226
Q

drugs causing teeth discoloration

A

tetracyclines

227
Q

drugs causing fat redistribution

A

protease inhibitors, glucocorticoids

228
Q

drugs causing gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin, verapamil, cyclosporine, nifedipine

229
Q

drugs causing myopathy

A

fibrates, niacine, colchicine, hydroxychloroquine, interferon-alpha, penicillamine, statins, glucocorticoids

230
Q

drugs causing osteoporosis

A

corticosteroids, heparin

231
Q

drugs causing cinchonism

A

quinidine, quinine

232
Q

drugs causing parkinson-like syndrome

A

antipsychotics, reserpine, metoclopramide

233
Q

drugs causing seizures

A

INH, buproprion, imipenem/cilastatin, tramadol, enflurane, metoclopramide

234
Q

drugs causing tardive dyskinesia

A

antipsychotics, metoclopramide

235
Q

fluoroquinolones cause ___ (3) in kids

A

tendonitis
tendon rupture
cartilage damage

236
Q

___ causes Fanconi’s syndrome

A

expired tetracycline

237
Q

Fanconi’s syndrome is ___ wasting of ___ (4)

A 
tubular
bicarbonate
AAs
glucose
uric acid
238
Q

3 drugs causing interstitial nephritis

A

methicillin
NSAIDs
furosemide

239
Q

drugs causing hemorrhagic cystitis

prevent this by giving ___

A

Cyclophosphamide
ifosfamide
mesna

240
Q

cardiovascular aspects of cinchonism

A

flushing

arrhythmia

241
Q

4 neurological sx of cinchonism

A

tinnitus/hearing loss
blurry vision
somnolence
confusion

242
Q

2 cutaneous sx of cinchonism

A

flushing

rash

243
Q

drugs causing DI

A

Li

demeclocycline

244
Q

drugs causing disulfiram-like reaction

A

metronidazole
cephalosporins (some)
, griseofulvin
procarbazine
1st generation sulfonylureas

245
Q

disulfiram-like reaction means

mechanism is ___

A

feeling bad after EtOH

acetaldehyde dehydrogenase inhibition

246
Q

drug causing nephrotoxicity + neurotoxicity

A

polymixins

247
Q

drugs causing nephrotoxicity + ototoxicity

A

aminoglycosides
vancomycin
loop diuretics
cisplatin

248
Q

drugs causing antimuscarinic effects?

A

atropine, TCAs, H1 blockers, antipsychotics

249
Q

CYP450 inducers

A

chronic alcoholism, modafinil, St. John’s wort, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital, nevirapine, rifampine, griseofulvin, carbamezepine

250
Q

CYP450 substrates

A

antiepileptics, anti-depressants, antipsychotics, anesthetics, theophylline, warfarin, statins, OCPs

251
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A

acute alcohol abuse, gemfibrozil, ciprofloxacin, isoniazid, grapefruit juice, quinidine, amiodarone, ketoconazole, macrolides, sulfonamides, cimetidine, ritonavir

252
Q

Sulfa drugs

A

probenacid, furoseide, acetazolamide, celecoxib, thiazides, sulfonamide antibiotics, sulfasalazine, sulfonylurea

253
Q

3 drugs metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase

A

ethylene glycol
MeOH
EtOH

254
Q

ethylene glycol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase to ___
effects are ___ (2)

A

oxalic acid
acidosis
nephrotoxicity

255
Q

MeOH is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase to ___ (2)

effects are ___ (2)

A

formaldehyde
formic acid
acidosis
retinal damage

256
Q

EtOH is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase to ___

effects are ___ (3)

A

acetaldehyde
nausea
vomiting
hypoTN

257
Q

___ inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

A

fomepizole

258
Q

5 non-obvious sulfa drugs

A 
celecoxib
probenecid
thiazides
sulfonylurea
sumatriptan
259
Q

systemic part of sulfa allergic rxn

260
Q

cutaneous part of sulfa allergic rxn (3)

A

rash
urticaria (hives)
Stevens-Johnson

261
Q

hematologic part of sulfa allergic rxn (3)

A

Hemolytic anemia
thrombocytopenia
agranulocytosis

First Aid (23 decks)

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