First Aid - Immunology rando stuff Flashcards

1
Q

LND: cervical

A

head and neck

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2
Q

LND: hilar

A

lung

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3
Q

LND: mediastinal

A

trachea and esophagus

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4
Q

LND: axillary

A

upper limb, breast skin above umbilicus

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5
Q

LND: celiac

A

liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, upper duodenum

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6
Q

LND: S. mesenteric

A

lower duodenum, jejunum, illeum, colon to splenic flexure

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7
Q

LND: I. mesenteric

A

colon from splenic flexure to upper rectum

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8
Q

LND: internal iliac

A

lower rectum to anal canal above pectinate line, bladder, vaginal (middle third), prostate

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9
Q

LND: para-aortic

A

testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

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10
Q

LND: superficial inguinal

A

anal canal (below pectinate line, skin below umbilicus (except popliteal territory)

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11
Q

LND: popliteal

A

dorsolateral foot, posterior calf

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12
Q

LND: right lymphatic duct

A

right side above diaphragm

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13
Q

LND: thoracic duct

A

everything else and goes into left subclavian and internal jugular

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14
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A

S. pneumo, H. flu B, N. men, E. coli, Salmonella, Kleb., GBS

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15
Q

what pharyngeal pouch does thymus come from?

A

3rd

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16
Q

where in the spleen are T cells

A

periarterial lymphatic sheath within white pulp

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17
Q

where in the spleen are B cells?

A

follicles in the white pulp

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18
Q

what is the marginal zone?

A

area between red and white pulp comtaining APCs and specialized B cells. APCs present blood borne antigens.

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19
Q

What features do you see post-splenectomy?

A

howell jolly bodies, target cells, thrombocytosis

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20
Q

function of MHC I versus MHC II

A

MHC I - endogenous antigens to CD8+ T cells

MHC II - exogenous proteins to T helper cells

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21
Q

antigen loading in MHC I versus MHC II

A

MHC I - RER after delivery via TAP

MHC II - release of invariant chain into acidified endosome

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22
Q

HLA A3

A

hemochromatosis

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23
Q

HLA B27

A

Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis of IBD, Readtive arthritis

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24
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac

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25
Q

HLA DR2

A

MS, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture

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26
Q

HLA DR3

A

DM type I, SLE, Graves

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27
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, DM type I

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28
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia –> vit. B12 deficiency, Hashimoto thyroiditis

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29
Q

what enhances NK cell activity?

A

IL 2, IL 12, IFNb, IFNa

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30
Q

what induces NK killing

A

nonspecific activation signal and/or lack of MHC I

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31
Q

How do NK cells kill?

A

Ab-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity: CD 16 binds Fc of bound Ig –> activating NK cells

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32
Q

Th cells release ___ to activate TH1

A

IL12

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33
Q

Th cells release ___ to activate TH2

A

IL4

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34
Q

Th cells release ___ to activate TH17

A

TGFb and IL6

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35
Q

Th cells release ___ to activate Threg

A

TGFb

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36
Q

what are the two signals in T cell activation?

A
  1. antigen on MHC II recognized by TCR on Th or MHC I to Tc

2. B7 and CD28

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37
Q

What are the two signals in B cell activation?

A
  1. antigen on MHC II recognized by TCR on Th

2. CD40 on B cells binding to CD40L on Th to release cytokines for class switching

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38
Q

what do Th1 cells secrete?

A

IFNg to activate macrophages and CTLs

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39
Q

What are Th1 cells inhibited by?

A

IL4 and IL10

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40
Q

What do Th2 cells secrete?

A

IL4, IL5, IL6, IL13 to recruit eosinophils for parasite defense and promotes IgE production by B cells

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41
Q

What are Th2 cells inhibited by

A

IFNg

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42
Q

macrophage- lymphocyte interaction

A

macrophage=> IL12 –> stimulates T cells –> Th1=> IFNg –> stimulates macrophages

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43
Q

t reg function

A

suppress CD4 and CD8 t cell effector function

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44
Q

cell surface markers on t regs

A

CD3, CD4, CD25, FOXP3

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45
Q

Activated t regs produce what?

A

IL10 and TGFb

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46
Q

upregulated acute phase reactants in inflammation

A

serum amyloid A, CRP, ferritin, fibrinogen, hepcidin

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47
Q

downregulated acute phase reactants in inflammation

A

albumin, transferrin

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48
Q

What cytokines induce acute phase reactants?

A

IL6, IL1, TNFa, IFNg

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49
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency

A

hereditary angioedema. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated

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50
Q

C3 deficiency

A

increased risk of severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections: increased susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity reactions

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51
Q

C5-9 deficiencies

A

Neisseria bacteria

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52
Q

DAF (GPI anchored enzyme) deficiency

A

complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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53
Q

what cytokines are secreted by macrophages?

A

IL1, IL6, IL8, IL12, TNFa

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54
Q

What cytokines are secreted by all t cells?

A

IL2, IL3

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55
Q

What cytokines are secreted by Th1

A

IFNg

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56
Q

What cytokines are secreted by Th2

A

IL4, IL5, IL10

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57
Q

IL1

A

fever, activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules, induces chemokin secretion to recruit leukocytes

58
Q

IL2

A

growth of Th, Tc, Tregs

59
Q

IL3

A

stimulates bone morrow stem cells, GM-CSF like

60
Q

IL 4

A

induces Th2 differentiations, growth of B cells, class switching to IgE and IgG

61
Q

IL5

A

B cell differentiation, class swtiching to IgA, growth and differentiation of eosinophils

62
Q

IL6

A

fever and acute phase proteins

63
Q

IL8

A

chemotactice factor for neutrophils

64
Q

il 10

A

modulates inflammatory response. Inhibits actions of activated T cells and Th1, secreted by T reg and Th2

65
Q

IL12

A

differentiation of T cells into Th1, activates BK cells, secreted by B and macrophages

66
Q

TNFa

A

septic shock mediator, activates endothelium. Causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leaks

67
Q

IFNg

A

antiviral, antitumor. Activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells. Increases MHC expression and antigen presentation in cells

68
Q

cell surface proteins on t cells

A

TCR, CD3, CD28 (CD4 and CD40L on Th; CD8 on Tc)

69
Q

cell surface proteins on B cells

A

Ig, CD 19, CD20, CD21, CD40, MHC II, B7

70
Q

cell surface proteins on macrophages

A

CD14, C40, MHC II, B7, Fc and C3b receptors

71
Q

cell surface proteins on NK cells

A

CD16, CD56

72
Q

superantigens

A

s. pyogenes, s. aureus

cross link beta region on the TCR –> massive release of cytokines

73
Q

endotoxin/LPS

A

stimulate macrophages by binding C14

74
Q

antigenic variation examples

A

bacteria: salmonella (2 flagella), borrelia, n. gonorrhea (pilus)
virus - influenza
parasites: trypansomes (programmed reearrangement

75
Q

anaphylaxis

A

type I

76
Q

allergic and atopic disorder

A

type I

77
Q

AI hemolytic anemia

A

type II

78
Q

pernicious aneia

A

type II

79
Q

ITP

A

type II

80
Q

erythroblastosis fetalis

A

type II

81
Q

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

type II

82
Q

rheumatic fever

A

type II

83
Q

goodpasture syndrome

A

type II

84
Q

bullous pemphigoid

A

type II

85
Q

pemphigus vulgaris

A

type II

86
Q

SLE

A

type III

87
Q

polyarteritis nodosa

A

type III

88
Q

poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

type III

89
Q

serum sickness

A

type III

90
Q

arthus reaction

A

type III

91
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

type IV

92
Q

guillain barre

A

type IV

93
Q

graft versus host disease

A

type IV

94
Q

ppd

A

type IV

95
Q

contact dermatitis (poison ivy, nickel)

A

type IV

96
Q

anti-Ach receptor

A

myasthenia gravis

97
Q

anti-BM

A

goodpasture

98
Q

anti-cardiolipin

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

99
Q

lupus anticoagulant

A

SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome

100
Q

anticentromere

A

limited scleroderma (CREST)

101
Q

anti-desmoglein

A

pemphigus vulgaris

102
Q

anti-dsDNA

A

SLE

103
Q

anti-Smith

A

SLE

104
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase

A

DM type I

105
Q

Anti-hemidesmosome

A

bullous pemphigoid

106
Q

antihistone

A

drug induced lupus

107
Q

anti jo-1

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

108
Q

anti-SRP

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

109
Q

anti-Mi2

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

110
Q

antimicrosomal

A

hashimoto’s thyroiditis

111
Q

antithyroglobulin

A

hashimoto’s thyroiditis

112
Q

antimitochondrial

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

113
Q

antinuclear antibodies

A

SLE, nonspecific

114
Q

anti-Scl 70

A

diffuse scleroderma

115
Q

anti-DNA topoisomerase I

A

diffuse scleroderma

116
Q

anti-smooth muscle

A

autoimmune hepatitis

117
Q

anti-ssa

A

sjogren’s

118
Q

anti-ssb

A

sjogren’s

119
Q

anti-Ro

A

sjogren’s

120
Q

anti-La

A

sjogren’s

121
Q

anti-TSH receptor

A

Graves

122
Q

Anti-U1 RNP

A

mixed connective tissue disease

123
Q

c-ANCA (PR3-ANCA)

A

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)

124
Q

IgA antiendomysial

A

Celiac

125
Q

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase

A

celiac

126
Q

p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA)

A

microscopic polyangitis, Churg-strauss

127
Q

RF (IgM to IgG Fc region)

A

RA

128
Q

anti-CCP

A

RA

129
Q

alemtuzumab

A

CD52; CLL

130
Q

Bevacizumab

A

VEGF; renal cell carcinoma, colorectal cancer

131
Q

cetuximab

A

EGFR; stage IV colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer

132
Q

rituximab

A

CD20; B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, rheumatoid arthritis (with MTX), ITP

133
Q

Trastuzumab

A

HER2/neu; breast cancer gastric cancer

134
Q

Infliximab

A

TNFa; IBD, RA, AS, psoriasis

135
Q

adalimumab

A

TNFa; IBD, RA, AS, psoriasis

136
Q

Natalizumab

A

a4 integrin; MS, CD

137
Q

Abciximab

A

Gp Iib/IIIa; antiplatelet for ischemic complications for percutaneous coronary intervention

138
Q

denosumab

A

RANKL; osteoporosis

139
Q

digoxin immune Fab

A

digoxin; antidote for toxicity

140
Q

omalizumab

A

IgE; allergic asthma, preent IgE binding FceRI

141
Q

Palivizumab

A

RSV F protein; RSV prophylaxis for high-risk infants