FARR1 Flashcards

1
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethoxuximide

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2
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine

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3
Q

Acute promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoic acid

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4
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines

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5
Q

Alcohol use disorder

A

AA + disulfiram, naltrexone, or acamprosate for patient. Al-Anon for patient’s family

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6
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

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7
Q

Anorexia

A

Nutrition, psychotherapy

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8
Q

Anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

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9
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine, tocainide)

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10
Q

B12 deficiency

A

Vitamin B12 supplementation (work up cause with Schilling test)

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11
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Tamsulosin, finasteride

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12
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine (mood stabilizers)

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13
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal woman

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

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14
Q

Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

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15
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

SSRIs

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16
Q

Candida albicans

A

Amphotericin B (systemic), nystatin (oral thrush), azoles (vaginitis)

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17
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octeotride

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18
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Doxycyclin (+ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection), erythromycin eye drops (prophylaxis in infants)

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19
Q

Chronic gout

A

Probenecid (underexcretor), allopurinol (overproducer), fubuxostat

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20
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

IFN-a

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21
Q

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

A

Imatinib

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22
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

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23
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

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24
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin + vaccine booster + diazepam

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25
Q

CMV

A

Ganciclovir

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26
Q

Crohn disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab, methotrexate, azathioprine

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27
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Fluconazole (prophylaxis in AIDS pts)

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28
Q

Cyclophosphamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Mensa

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29
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first line)

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30
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

DDAVP (central); hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride (nephrogenic)

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31
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low sugar) + insulin replacement

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32
Q

Diabetes mellitus type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics, and insulin (if refractory)

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33
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K+ (potassium)

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34
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin/ampicillin + aminoglycosides

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35
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, vardenafil

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36
Q

ER (+) breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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37
Q

Ethylene glycol/methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

38
Q

Haemophilus influenzae (B)

A

Rifampin

39
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

Busiprone

40
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener)

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

41
Q

Heparin toxicity (acute)

A

Protamin sulfate

42
Q

HER2/neu (+) breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

43
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

44
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first line)

45
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrate

46
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

A

Heparin

47
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

48
Q

Influenza

A

Rimantadine, oseltamivir

49
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Erythromycin

50
Q

Long-term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin

51
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine/mefloquine (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

52
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

53
Q

Medical Abortion

A

Mifepristone

54
Q

Migraine

A

Sumatriptan

55
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin

56
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

B-interferon, immunosuppression, natalizumab

57
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, INH, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

58
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone (add doxycycline for possible concurrent Chlamydial infection)

59
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

Penicillin/ceftriaxone, rifampin, (prophylaxis)

60
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

61
Q

Osteomalacia/rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

62
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates; calcium and Vitamin D supplementation

63
Q

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

64
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

a-antagonists (eg phenoxybenzamine)

65
Q

Pneumocystitis jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX (prophylaxis in AIDS pt)

66
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist ergot)

67
Q

Prostate cancer/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

68
Q

Prostate carcinoma

A

Flutamide

69
Q

Pseduomonas aeruginosa

A

Antipseudomonal penicillin + aminoglycoside

70
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprostenol

71
Q

Ricketsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol (associated with aplastic anemia)

72
Q

Ringworm infections

A

Terbinafine, griseofulvin, imidazole

73
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

5-HT2A antagonists (2nd gen antipsychotics)

74
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

D2 receptro antagonists (eg 1st and 2nd generation antipsychotics)

75
Q

SIADH

A

Demeclocycline, lithium, vasopressin receptor antagonists

76
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea (inc. fetal hemoglobin)

77
Q

Sporothrix scheckii

A

Oral potassium iodide

78
Q

Stable angina

A

Sublingual nitroglycerin

79
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (antistaphylococcal penicillins); MRSA: vancomycin

80
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicllin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer if linked to endocarditis

81
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicllin/cephalosporin (systemic infection, pneumonia), vancomycin (meningitis)

82
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

83
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High-dose steroids

84
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures

A

Phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

85
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

86
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin

87
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

88
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia (tic doloureux)

A

Carbamazepine

89
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

A

5-ASA, infliximab, colectomy

90
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

91
Q

Warfarin toxicity

A

Fresh frozen plasma (acute), vitamin K (chronic)

92
Q

Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids