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RTE 1513 > Final Exam - Past Questions > Flashcards

Final Exam - Past Questions Flashcards

1
Q

how many bones in adult vertebral column?

A

26

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2
Q

most post. part of typical vertebra?

A

spinous processes

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3
Q

joints btw articular processes of vertebra

A

zygapophyseal joints

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4
Q

Does C1 have a vertebral body?

A

no

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5
Q

what must tech make sure to do on spine XRs to improve the vis. of spine?

A

coll. lat borders

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6
Q

AP C-Spine CR?

A

CR 15-20º cephalic to C4

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7
Q

why is AP C-spine angled 15º cephalic?

A

to open joint spaces

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8
Q

During AP “open mouth”, an imaginary line btw what 2 landmarks is made perp to IR?

A

lower margin of incisors/mastoid tip (skull base)

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9
Q

AP “Open Mouth” dens shows what?

A

C1 & C2

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10
Q

Is the Judd method intended to show the zygapophyseal joints btw C1 & C2?

A

no

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11
Q

what pos’s project dens thru shadow of foramen magnum when upper portion of dens is obscured by teeth, when skull base and upper incisors are superimposed?

A

Fuchs/Judd method

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12
Q

C-vert. contain what in their transverse processes?

A

foramen

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13
Q

detail is improved on a lat c-spine by using what?

A

sm focal spot

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14
Q

What XR shows articular pillars & zygapophyseal joints on C-spine?

A

lat C-spine

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15
Q

what is done on an ant. obl c-spine to prevent the superimposition of the mandible?

A

extend chin

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16
Q

an ant obl c-spine shows the IV foramina/pedicles ______ to IR

A

closest

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17
Q

an LAO c-spine show’s what?

A

L IV foramina/pedicles

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18
Q

which obl’s are preferred for C-spine? why?

A

ant. obl.; less thyroid dose

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19
Q

CR for post obl c-spine?

A

15º cephalic to C4

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20
Q

An RPO of c-spine shows what?

A

L IV foramina/pedicles

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21
Q

In a post obl c-spine, the IV foramina/pedicles _______ to IR are shown

A

furthest

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22
Q

CR AP T-spine?

A

perp T7 (3-4” inf. jugular notch)

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23
Q

what manual technique is done in the lat T-spine to enhance the visualization of the vertebral bodies?

A

low mA & 3-4s exposure T (w orthostatic breathing)

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24
Q

the Lat T-spine shows what?

A

open IV foramina

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25
Q

on the lat T-spine, the vertebral column must be _______ to tabletop to open up IV joint spaces

A

II

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26
Q

what can be done on a lat T-spine to improve vis. of post. spine by preventing excessive density along post. aspect of spine?

A

pb apron behind pt

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27
Q

which XR best demonstrates a compression fracture of T-spine?

A

lat T-spine

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28
Q

which XR best demonstrates C7-T1?

A

Swimmer’s lat/Twining method

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29
Q

what is performed when the upper aspect of T-spine is obscured by shoulders, when the upper T-spine is the area of interest?

A

Swimmer’s lat/Twining method

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30
Q

if pt enters ER bc of MVA & is on backboard w C-collar, and initial XR only shows C1-C6, & no CT is available, what XR should be performed?

A

horizontal beam Swimmer’s lat

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31
Q

what kind of contrast/latitude is preferred for L-spine?

A

short-scale, narrow latitude

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32
Q

iliac crest is located at the level of?

A

L4-5

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33
Q

what 2 L-spine XRs would show a possible compression fracture of L3, by best demonstrating body of L3 & IV joint spaces above and below it?

A

collimated AP & lat L-spine

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34
Q

if you must perform an L-spine on a pregnant female, what 3 things should a tech do?

A
  1. use higher kVp & lower mAs,
  2. increase SID,
  3. coll. as much as possible
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35
Q

neck of Scottie dog?

A

pars interarticularis

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36
Q

what is the sm bone found btw the sup. & inf. articular processes?

A

pars interarticularis

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37
Q

ear of scottie dog?

A

sup. articular process

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38
Q

eye of scottie dog?

A

pedicle

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39
Q

foot of scottie dog?

A

inf. articular process

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40
Q

nose of scottie dog?

A

transverse process

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41
Q

scottie dogs are only seen on what projections?

A

obl L-spine XRs

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42
Q

what XRs best show the degree of movement at the fusion site (after a spinal fusion was performed at L3-4)?

A

lat hyperextension & hyperflexion

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43
Q

why should a pt flex knees during an AP L-spine?

A

to reduce lordotic curve/straighten spine

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44
Q

CR for AP L-spine?

A

perp to iliac crest

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45
Q

what should tech do to prevent scatter from reaching IR on a lat L-spine?

A

pb mat behind pt

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46
Q

what is shown on a lat L-spine?

A

IV foramina, IV joint/disk spaces of L-spine

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47
Q

how much is a pt rotated for an obl L-spine?

A

45º

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48
Q

what pos should you place a pt to see the L apophyseal joints of L-spine?

A

LPO

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49
Q

how much rotation should you rotate pt to see the zygapophyseal joints at L1-2?

A

50º obl

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50
Q

how much rotation should you rotate pt to see the zygapophyseal joints at L5-S1?

A

30º obl

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51
Q

what pos demonstrates the R apophyseal joints of L-spine?

A

RPO

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52
Q

how much body rotation is needed to best demonstrate the L3-4 zygapophyseal joints?

A

45º

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53
Q

which ant obl L-spine XR will show the R apophyseal joints?

A

LAO

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54
Q

CR for lat L5-S1 spot when pt has insufficient waist support?

A

5-8º caudad to 1.5” inf. iliac crest & 2” post. ASIS

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55
Q

for a cone down view of L5-S1 in an AP projection, must angle CR?

A

30-35º cephalic

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56
Q

S1-2 is located at the level of?

A

ASIS

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57
Q

another term for sacral horn

A

cornu of sacrum

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58
Q

term for sup. aspect of coccyx?

A

base

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59
Q

an avg of ___ segments make up the adult coccyx

A

4

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60
Q

CR for AP Axial Sacrum?

A

15º cephalic to midway btw pubic symphysis & ASIS

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61
Q

CR for AP Axial Coccyx?

A

10º caudad to 2” sup. to pubic symphysis

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62
Q

CR for lat Sacrum/Coccyx?

A

perp to 3-4” post. ASIS

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63
Q

how many degrees do you int. rotate feet for AP pelvis?

A

15-20º (IF NO FRACTURE SUSPECTED)

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64
Q

how much do you abduct femora from vertical on a bilat frog/modified cleaves for pelvis?

A

40-45º

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65
Q

for the Lauenstein-Hickey method (for unilat hip) the pt is what?

A

rotated onto affected side until femur touches table and is II to IR

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66
Q

Lauenstein-Hickey method for hip shows what?

A

foreshortened femoral neck, but shows head & acetabulum

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67
Q

humeral epicondyles are _________ to IR for AP Int Shoulder

A

perp

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68
Q

humeral epicondyles are __________ to IR for AP Ext Shoulder

A

II

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69
Q

AP Int Shoulder shows what?

A

lesser tubercle in full profile (med)

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70
Q

AP Ext Shoulder shows what?

A

greater tubercle in profile (lat)

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71
Q

CR for AP Int/Ext Shoulder

A

perp 1” inf. coracoid process (which is 3/4” inf. to lat. portion of clavicle)

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72
Q

Post Obl shoulder aka?

A

Grashey method

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73
Q

Grashey method shows

A

glenoid cavity in profile; open scapulohumeral joint space

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74
Q

on Grashey for shoulder, a person w a round/curved back needs ______ rotation to place body of scapula II to IR

A

more

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75
Q

how much body rotation is needed for Grashey method?

A

35-45º towards affected side

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76
Q

breathing technique for clavicle?

A

full inspiration (to raise clavicles out of lung field)

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77
Q

CR for AP Axial clavicle?

A

15-30º cephalic to midclavicle

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78
Q

thin pt’s need ___________ angle than thick pt’s for AP Axial clavicle

A

10-15º more

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79
Q

what must pt do for positioning of AP scapula?

A

abduct arm 90º and supinate hand (salute)

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80
Q

which landmarks are used for positioning go scapula “Y” lat?

A

sup. angle of scapula & AC joint (rotate until imaginary line btw is perp to IR)

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81
Q

min weights used for AP AC joints w weights?

A

5-8 lbs

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82
Q

what is done to project the AC joint sup. to acromion for optimal vis.?

A

Alexander method, CR 15º cephalic to midpoint btw AC joints

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83
Q

What SID for AC joints?

A

72”

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84
Q

breathing technique for AP scapula?

A

orthostatic breathing

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85
Q

3 potential errors in skull positioning

A
  1. excessive neck flexion/extension
  2. head rotation/tilt
  3. incorrect CR angle
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86
Q

how do you find the sella turcica?

A

3/4” ant. & 3/4” sup. to EAM

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87
Q

sella turcica houses the?

A

pituitary gland

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88
Q

neuro XRs use _____ focal spot

A

sm

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89
Q

which XR puts the petrous ridges below the maxillary sinuses?

A

Parietoacanthial (Waters) method

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90
Q

what must be done before performing SMV XRs?

A

rule out fractures/subluxation of C-spine

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91
Q

pt enters ER w possible fracture of R zygomatic arch, what is the best XR routine?

A

SMV, bilat obl tangential, & AP Axial

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92
Q

what line is II to IR for SMV of zygomatic arches?

A

IOML

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93
Q

if pt cannot hyperextend neck enough for SMV, what should tech do?

A

make CR perp to IOML

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94
Q

what is the pt pos for obl inferosuperior tangential zygomatic arch (Mays view)

A

(from SMV pos) pt must rotate & tilt 15º toward affected side

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95
Q

CR for AP axial Towne zygomatic arch when IOML perp to IR

A

37º caudad to 1” sup. glabella (exiting level of gonion)

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96
Q

what XR will show blowout & tripod fractures?

A

PA Waters

97
Q

pt enters ER and the doc is concerned about a blowout fracture of the L orbit. what 3 routine XRs will best demonstrate this injury?

A

modified parietoacanthial, 30º PA facial, & lat facial

98
Q

optic foramina are located w/in

A

sphenoid bone

99
Q

what XR best demonstrates orbital floors?

A

PA 30º Orbits or Modified Waters

just PA Caldwell is NOT a good answer

100
Q

what XR puts petrous ridges in lower 1/2 of maxillary sinuses?

A

parietoacanthial (modified/shallow) waters

101
Q

what XR uses the 3pt landing?

A

parietoorbital obl optic foramina/Rhese method (chin, cheek, nose)

102
Q

the Rhese method projects the optic foramina in?

A

the lower outer quadrant

103
Q

TMJ XR’s are routinely done w?

A

mouth open & closed

104
Q

CR for axiolat TMJ (modified schuller)

A

25-30º caudad to 1/2” ant. & 2” sup. EAM

105
Q

CR for axiolat obl TMJ (modified law)

A

15º caudad to 1.5” sup. to EAM

106
Q

panorex of mandible requires pt’s chin adjusted so the _____ is II to the floor

A

IOML

107
Q

the _____________ of the mandible extends upward from the post. part of the ramus up to the adjacent joint

A

condyloid process

108
Q

the _____ is perp to IR during PA Axial Mandible

A

OML

109
Q

CR for PA Axial mandible

A

20-25º cephalic, exit acanthion

110
Q

CR for AP Axial (Towne) mandible when OML perp to IR

A

35º caudad to glabella

111
Q

the AP Axial (Towne) Mandible best demonstrates what portion of the mandible?

A

condyloid processes (bilat)

112
Q

CR for Axiolat Obl Mandible

A

25º cephalic from IPL to exit downside mandibular region

113
Q

30º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?

A

body of mandible

114
Q

45º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?

A

mentum

115
Q

10-15º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?

A

general survey of mandible

116
Q

0º rotation towards IR on axiolat obl mandible demonstrates?

A

ramus

117
Q

the chin is extended in the axiolat obl mandible to?

A

free C-spine of superimposition of ramus

118
Q

which bones are assoc. w the inner canthus of the eye?

A

lacrimal

119
Q

what XR of sinuses does a trauma pt in a C-collar need to demonstrate blood/fluid levels?

A

horizontal beam lat

120
Q

what is the sm flap of cartilage that covers the ear opening?

A

tragus

121
Q

CR for lat facial?

A

perp to zygoma (midway btw outer canthus & EAM)

122
Q

OML is at how many degrees from IR on a parietoacanthial (waters) for facial?

A

37º

123
Q

what touches the upright bucky for a waters facial?

A

chin

124
Q

____ neck extension is required for a modified/shallow waters

A

less

125
Q

OML is at how many degrees from IR on a modified waters for facial?

A

55º

126
Q

which XR gives vest view of orbital floors?

A

Modified water facial

127
Q

CR for modified waters?

A

perp, exit acanthion

128
Q

CR for PA Axial (Caldwell) facial

A

15º caudad, exit nasion

129
Q

what must be done to the PA Caldwell facial to put petrous ridges below the IOM & demonstrate the orbital floors?

A

increase CR angle to 30º caudad, exit nasion

130
Q

which waters method demonstrates zygomatic arches?

A

parietoacanthial (waters) method

131
Q

tube that passes from the kidney to the urinary bladder

A

ureter

132
Q

which of the following is not found in the urinary system?

glomerulus, calyx, adrenal, nephron

A

adrenal

133
Q

which kidney is usually always more inf.?

A

R kidney

134
Q

avg adult bladder can hold how much fluid?

A

350-500 mL

135
Q

when pt signs consent form, legally this means that once the consent has been signed, the pt

A

may still claim that they were not properly informed of the procedure risks

136
Q

when do you pull on the catheter to create pressure?

A

never

137
Q

when pt is vomiting, the pt’s head is lifted/turned to the side to prevent?

A

aspiration

138
Q

AP trendelenburg pos (for IVP/VCUG) enhances

A

pelvicalyceal filling

139
Q

routine IVPs are done w what breathing technique?

A

expiration

140
Q

what is a good example of a routine IVP?

A

scout KUB, nephrogram, AP KUB, RPO KUB, LPO KUB, & post void

141
Q

which procedure requires an injection of contrast media into a vein to vis. kidneys?

A

intravenous pyelography

142
Q

what must be included on the AP scout for an IVP/IVU?

A

pubic symphysis

143
Q

if a nephrogram taken during an IVU shows that the renal parenchyma is poorly visualized, but the calyces are contrast enhanced, what did the tech do?

A

exposure was not taken soon enough following contrast injection

144
Q

CR centering for nephrotomogram?

A

midway btw xiphoid process & iliac crest

145
Q

in tomography, the area of interest is at the same height as the?

A

fulcrum

146
Q

RPO for IVP puts which kidney in profile?

A

L

147
Q

an LPO taken during an IVU shows that the R kidney is foreshortened & superimposed on the spine, what should tech do?

A

decrease rotation

148
Q

during a retrograde cystogram, the contrast media is normally introduced by

A

gravity flow thru a catheter

149
Q

term for voiding under voluntary control

A

urination

150
Q

in an AP cysto, contrast fills

A

slowly by gravity - never by force

151
Q

(Cysto) what is needed to see the posterolateral aspect of the bladder, especially UV junction?

A

steeper obl (60º rotation)

152
Q

what pos do you place a male pt for a VCUG?

A

rotate into 30º RPO (superimpose urethra over R thigh)

153
Q

during a VCUG, pt is asked to void during XR to vis. the?

A

urethra

154
Q

gallbladder is located where?

A

RUQ

155
Q

what is peristalsis?

A

normal contractive waves of digestive system

156
Q

what term describes the formation of sacs/pouches in colon?

A

diverticulosis

157
Q

veriform appendix is attached to the

A

cecum

158
Q

the opening btw the esophagus & stomach

A

cardiac orifice

159
Q

what type of pt has a transverse stomach

A

hypersthenic

160
Q

CR for RAO UGI?

A

perp to L2/duodenal bulb (1-2” sup. to lower lat rib margin) midway btw spine & L/upside lat border of abdomen

161
Q

pt enters ER w possible perforated ulcer, what should be performed?

A

UGI w gastroview

162
Q

what is demonstrated on RAO for UGI?

A

BaSO4 filled duodenal bulb & c-loop in profile

163
Q

what pos is preferred for SBS?

A

prone KUB

164
Q

the supine KUB for SBS is centered where?

A

@ iliac crest

165
Q

KUB stands for

A

kidneys, ureters, & bladder

166
Q

how much BaSO4 is given to the pt for a SBS?

A

16 oz (2 cups)

167
Q

CR for AP scout for SBS

A

perp iliac crest

168
Q

PA SBS, after an hour, should be centered at

A

iliac crest

169
Q

the SBS is completed after?

A

contrast passes ileocecal valve

170
Q

enema tip for BE should be inserted into rectum on

A

suspended expiration

171
Q

if tech experiences resistance while inserting enema tip, the tech should

A

have radiologist insert tip using fluoro guidance

172
Q

what sign is frequently seen w carcinoma of the colon?

A

napkin ring/apple core sign

173
Q

LPO for BE shows which colic flexure?

A

R colic/hepatic flexure

174
Q

the lat rectum (BE) demonstrates what filled w contrast?

A

recto-sigmoid region

175
Q

if the pt is undergoing a double-contrast study, or just cannot be put in a recumbent lat pos, what should tech do instead?

A

ventral decubitis

176
Q

how much do you rotate a pt for an AP Axial Obl butterfly for BE?

A

30-40º LPO

177
Q

CR for AP Axial Obl Butterfly for BE?

A

30-40º cephalic to 2” inf. & 2” med. to R/upside ASIS

178
Q

why perform an AP Axial Obl Butterfly?

A

to demonstrate elongated rectosigmoid segments, w less superimposition

179
Q

what is the most diagnostic study for detecting possible diverticulosis?

A

double-contrast BE

180
Q

when performing a double-contrast BE, what must be done to the kVp?

A

reduce to 90-100 kVp

181
Q

if pt is having a mild adverse reaction to contrast, suffering from nausea, flushing, hyperventilation, & urticaria should be treated w

A

benadryl

182
Q

2 types of contrast media

A

ionic & non-ionic

183
Q

which contrast media is more expensive?

A

non-ionic

184
Q

which contrast has low osmolality, less chance of reaction, & the inability to dissociate into 2 separate ions?

A

non-ionic contrast

185
Q

which contrast agents may increase the severity of side effects?

A

ionic

186
Q

what is the correct course of action when a pt experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes, & some metallic taste during an injection?

A

reassure pt, contin. injection/XR, while carefully observing pt for possibly more severe reactions

187
Q

term for leakage of contrast media from a vein into surrounding tissue

A

extravasation

188
Q

recommended treatment for extravasation?

A

warm towel over injection site

189
Q

the rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system

A

bolus injection

190
Q

moderate itching/sneezing, mild urticaria (hives) are

A

mild systemic reactions to contrast

191
Q

some metallic taste in mouth & temp. hot flashes occur

A

in many pt’s & is an expected outcome/side effect from the introduction of contrast media

192
Q

how long is it recommended to withhold metformin (glucophage, diabetes medication) following a contrast media procedure?

A

48 hrs

193
Q

primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast study is?

A

to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction

194
Q

what is often given before an IVU to reduce risk of a contrast media reaction?

A

prednisone (and benadryl)

195
Q

if a pt comes in for an IVU and the lab report indicates that a w/in normal range of creatinine and BUN levels, the tech should

A

proceed w study

196
Q

what should the tech do if the pt experiences a hot flash after the injection of an iodinated contrast?

A

comfort pt; this is a common side effect

197
Q

routine NT shoulder?

A

AP Int/Ext

198
Q

which shoulder needs pt rotated 45-60º?

A

Scapula Y view

199
Q

which XR puts greater tubercle in profile medially?

A

none

200
Q

acromion located on?

A

scapula

201
Q

clavicle articulates w?

A

sternum & scapula

202
Q

humeral head articulates w

A

glenoid cavity of scapula

203
Q

ant/post shoulder dislocations more common?

A

ant.

204
Q

which shoulder rotation puts humeral epicondyles perp to IR?

A

AP Int

205
Q

shoulder XR’s are centered to which landmark?

A

1” inf coracoid process

206
Q

which shoulder rotation provides a lat prox humerus?

A

AP Int

207
Q

what is in profile on AP Int shoulder?

A

lesser tubercle (medially)

208
Q

what is in profile on AP Ext shoulder?

A

greater tubercle (laterally)

209
Q

what shoulder pos is done when pt has suspected shoulder fracture?

A

AP neutral

210
Q

how much do you rotate pt for Grashey?

A

35-45º toward affected side

211
Q

CR for post obl shoulder/Grashey?

A

perp scapulohumeral joint (2” inf & med from superolat border of shoulder)

212
Q

which XR puts glenoid cavity in profile?

A

Grashey

213
Q

which XR shows open scapulohumeral joint space?

A

Grashey/post obl shoulder

214
Q

how much do you rotate a pt to get glenoid fossa in profile?

A

45º to affected side

215
Q

2 pos/XRs for routine clavicle?

A

AP & AP 15º cephalic

216
Q

arm pit aka

A

axilla

217
Q

0º AP & AP Axial w 15-30º cephalic angle are ___________ clavicle XRs

A

routine/common

218
Q

med. end of clavicle

A

sternal extrem.

219
Q

pt enters ER w possible fracture of mid wing area of scapula. pt can stand. in addition to routine AP scapula w arm abducted, what should be done to show this area?

A

have pt drop affected arm behind them for lat scapula

220
Q

pt enters ER w multiple injuries. dr. concerned about dislocation of prox humerus. pt cannot stand. what is best routine?

A

AP shoulder (neutral) & Neer method

221
Q

pt enters ER w dislocated shoulder. tech attempts to pos. pt in transthoracic lat but unable to raise unaffected arm completely over head; tech should?

A

angle CR 10-15º cephalic

222
Q

XR of ant obl scapular Y shows scapula slightly rotated; vertebral & axillary borders are not superimposed, axillary border is more lat than vertebral border; tech should?

A

increase rotation

223
Q

pt comes in for treatment of arthritic R shoulder; pt can’t abduct arm enough for axiolat of scapulohumeral joint. what other XR will best show scapulohumeral joint?

A

Scapula Y

224
Q

pt enters ER w possible R AC joint separation; R clavicle and AC joint exams are ordered. clavicle shows sm linear fracture; tech should?

A

consult w dr. before continuing w AC joint study

225
Q

what other XR can be performed if separation of AC joint is suspected?

A

AP 15º cephalic (Alexander method)

226
Q

CR AP Axial clavicle?

A

15-30º cephalic to midclavicle

227
Q

if AP Axial clavicle shows clavicle w/in mid aspect of lung apices, tech should

A

increase cephalic CR

228
Q

what angle joins the med & lat borders of scapula?

A

inf angle

229
Q

scapula articulates w?

A

clavicle & humerus

230
Q

coracoid process is the most ____ part of scapula

A

ant

231
Q

how should pt pos arm for AP scapula?

A

abduct 90º & supinate hand

232
Q

what type of obl is a lat scapula Y?

A

ant obl (pt PA)

233
Q

which landmarks are palpated for lat scapula Y?

A

sup scapula angle & AC joint

234
Q

how many degrees do you rotate pt for lat scapula Y?

A

45-60º

235
Q

CR for lat scapula Y?

A

perp to midvertebral border (or med border) of scapula

236
Q

the scapular spine is _____ to IR in a lat scapula Y

A

perp

237
Q

which XR provides a true lat of scapula & scapulohumeral joint?

A

lat scapula Y

238
Q

SID for AC joints?

A

72”

239
Q

CR for AC joints?

A

perp to 1” sup to jugular notch

RTE 1513 (15 decks)

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