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RTE 1513 > Exam 5 > Flashcards

Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

what lies in retroperitoneal space?

A

kidneys, ureters

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2
Q

what lies in infraperitoneal space?

A

bladder, urethra

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3
Q

Which kidney is lower?

A

R, bc of liver

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4
Q

kidneys lie at what vertical angle to the MSP?

A

20º

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5
Q

which kidney pole is closer to the midline?

A

upper

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6
Q

which kidney border is more ant? (med./lat.)

A

med.

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7
Q

kidneys lie at what angle to MCP?

A

30º

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8
Q

30º LPO for IVP shows what?

A

L kidney and ureter, with the R kidney in profile (II to IR)

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9
Q

kidneys are normally located midway btw?

A

xiphoid process and iliac crest

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10
Q

top of L kidney at what level?

A

T11/12

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11
Q

bottom of R kidney at what level?

A

L3

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12
Q

which are more anterior? renal veins or arteries?

A

renal veins anterior to renal arteries

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13
Q

average urine produced in 24 hours?

A

1.5 L

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14
Q

what is composed of 8-18 conical masses? and what are those conical masses called?

A

medulla; renal pyramids

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15
Q

apex of renal pyramid (that drains into minor calyces)?

A

renal papilla

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16
Q

urine is formed where?

A

in nephron

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17
Q

nephron?

A

structural and functional unit; 1 million per kidney

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18
Q

nephron is made up of what?

A

glomerulus and long tubules

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19
Q

filtrate from the collecting tubule flows to where?

A

minor calyx

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20
Q

what is located within the kidney cortex?

A

glomeruli, glomerulus capsules, PCT/DCT of nephrons

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21
Q

what is located w/in kidney medulla?

A

loop of henle & collecting tubules

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22
Q

ureters lie anterior to what?

A

psoas major mm

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23
Q

ureters enter what portion of bladder?

A

posterolateral

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24
Q

ureter diameter?

A

1mm-1cm

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25
Q

kidney stones most commonly get stuck at which constrictive point?

A

UVJ

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26
Q

mucosa of trigone? the rest of bladder?

A

smooth; rugae

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27
Q

urine amount that causes desire to void?

A

250 mL

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28
Q

total capacity of bladder?

A

350-500 mL

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29
Q

rectum full of feces pushes the bladder how?

A

up and forward

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30
Q

female urethra length?

A

4 cm

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31
Q

male urethra length?

A

17.5 - 20 cm

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32
Q

what controls rate of bolus injection?

A

needle gauge, injection amount, contrast viscosity, vein stability, and injection force

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33
Q

what controls drip infusion?

A

clamp device

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34
Q

syncope

A

feinting/loss of consciousness

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35
Q

why are antecubital fossa veins preferred?

A

larger and easy to access

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36
Q

antecubital fossa veins include what 3 veins?

A

median cubital, cephalic, and basilic veins

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37
Q

what veins should tech avoid?

A

sclerotic, tortuous, overused, area of vein bifurcation, veins directly over arteries

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38
Q

size of needle determined by what?

A

size of vein

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39
Q

where do you place tourniquet?

A

3-4” above injection site

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40
Q

for venipuncture approach vein at what angle?

A

20-45º

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41
Q

you should observe what when securing a butterfly needle?

A

back flow of B

42
Q

contrast w salt as cation?

A

ionic

43
Q

contrast that creates a hypertonic condition?

A

ionic

44
Q

contrast w high osmolality?

A

ionic

45
Q

contrast w low osmolality?

A

nonionic

46
Q

isotonic contrast?

A

nonionic

47
Q

contrast that remains intact when injected?

A

nonionic

48
Q

expensive contrast?

A

nonionic

49
Q

Low Osmolality Organic Iodide contrast?

A

ionic contrast w nonionic characteristic (less dose required, less adverse reactions)

50
Q

2 common side effects of contrast?

A

temp hot flashes, metallic taste

51
Q

normal creatinine levels?

A

0.6 - 1.5 mg/dL

52
Q

normal BUN levels?

A

8 - 25 mg/100 mL

53
Q

metformin must be withheld at least how long long after exam?

A

48 hrs

54
Q

2 local reactions to contrast?

A

extravasation and phlebitis (vein inflammation)

55
Q

categories of systemic reactions?

A

mild (nonallergic), moderate (anaphylactic), severe (vasovagal reaction)

56
Q

urticaria?

A

moderate-severe hives (moderate systemic reaction to contrast)

57
Q

severe hypotension?

A

systolic BP < 80 mm Hg

58
Q

severe bradycardia?

A

< 50 bpm

59
Q

contrast reaction may not be identifiable for up to how long?

A

48 hrs

60
Q

what must you do before IVU?

A

void bladder, clamp foley catheter

61
Q

IVU is what kind of study?

A

f(x)al

62
Q

pt’s w what 2 disorders are at a particularly high risk when performing IVUs?

A

multiple myeloma (bone tumor) & pheochromocytoma (adrenal medulla tumor)

63
Q

what can be done to pt’s before exam to help reduce risks to high-risk pt’s?

A

hydration therapy, normal saline IV drip, and diuretic (+ urine)

64
Q

bladder carcinoma

A

tumor that’s 3x’s more common in males

65
Q

most common urinary congenital abnormality?

A

duplication of ureter and renal pelvis

66
Q

95% of fusion of horeshoe kidneys occur at which poles?

A

lower

67
Q

cystisis

A

bladder inflammation more common in females

68
Q

most common cause of enlarged kidneys?

A

polycystic kidney disease; appears as a “bunch of grapes” scattered throughout kidney

69
Q

IVU pt prep?

A

NPO 8 hr, void bladder, clamp foley

70
Q

ureteric compression?

A

to enhance filling and allow renal collecting system to retain contrast longer

71
Q

when do you inflate ureteric compression paddles?

A

after injection of contrast

72
Q

alt. to ureteric compression?

A

15º trendelenberg - similar results, less risks

73
Q

IVU protocol?

A

KUB scout, 45s-1min nephrogram, 5-, 10-, 15-min AP supine, 20min 30º LPO/RPO, postvoid (prone/erect)

74
Q

prolapsed bladder or enlarged prostate best confirmed…?

A

in erect pos

75
Q

nephrogram shows what?

A

renal parenchyma blush w contrast

76
Q

retrograde urography is what kind of study?

A

nonfunctional exam done in OR by urologist to determine location of obstructions

77
Q

contrast flows into cystogram by what?

A

gravity! (only!)

78
Q

VCU is what kind of study?

A

f(x)al

79
Q

VCU projection for female?

A

AP

80
Q

VCU projection for male?

A

30º RPO

81
Q

nuclear med good for showing?

A

signs of organ rejection

82
Q

CR for AP Cystography?

A

CR 10-15º caudad to 2” sup. to pubic symphysis

83
Q

rotation for obl pos’s of cystography?

A

45-60º

84
Q

CR for post obl cystography?

A

perp to 2” sup. to pubic symphysis and 2” med. to ASIS

85
Q

CR for lat cystography?

A

(w pb shield behind pt) perp to 2” sup. and post. to pubic symphysis

86
Q

CR for VCU?

A

perp to pubic symphysis (AP female, 30º RPO male)

87
Q

what is important before VCU?

A

remove foley catheter

88
Q

renal cysts and adrenal masses are demonstrated during which phase of IVU?

A

nephrogram

89
Q

larger exposure angle in tomography produces what kind of sections?

A

thinner

90
Q

most common exposure angle for IVU?

A

10º

91
Q

(post obl) which kidney is placed in profile or II to IR and best shown?

A

upside

92
Q

(post obl) which ureter is projected away from spine and provides unobstructed view of this ureter?

A

downside

93
Q

which post void IVU shows nephroptosis?

A

erect pos

94
Q

which XR shows enhanced pelvic calyceal filling?

A

AP IVU w ureteric compression

95
Q

what pos best shows possible fistulas?

A

lat

96
Q

a ______ obl pos shows the posterolateral aspect of bladder, especially UVJ

A

steeper (60º)

97
Q

what should you do to show urinary reflux for AP cystogram?

A

center higher at level of iliac crest

98
Q

1 reason for IVP?

A

hematuria

99
Q

IVP must include?

A

pubic symphysis

100
Q

cystograms evaluate?

A

bladder

101
Q

VCUGs eval?

A

bladder + urethra

102
Q

typical starting point for sthenic pt for nephrotomography?

A

8cm

RTE 1513 (15 decks)

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