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RUSVM BacT Spring 2017 > Final Exam: BacT/Mycology overview > Flashcards

Final Exam: BacT/Mycology overview Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Histones are present in bacteria

A

FALSE

only present in eukaryotic cells

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2
Q

What is unique to gram positive bacteria?

A

Teichoic acid

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3
Q

T/F: Bacteria have chromosomes and ribosomes

A

TRUE

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4
Q

Mycobacteria stains gram positive or negative? Why?

A

Gram positive - due to their cell wall

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5
Q

What is unique to mycobacteria?

A

Mycolic acid

*no cell membrane

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6
Q

Why do bacteria stain gram positive?

A

Due to the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer

**purple

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7
Q

What is unique to gram negative bacteria?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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8
Q

Which of the following processes is the least likely virulence mechanism of bacteria?

  1. Flagella - mobility
  2. Fimbria - adherence
  3. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes
  4. Capsule - to evade phagocytosis
A

3 - this is something done but nearly all bacteria; doesn’t really increase virulence

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9
Q

How do prokaryotic cells replicate?

A

Binary fission

No meiosis

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10
Q

Do prokaryotes have a cytoskeleton?

A

NOPE!

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11
Q

Is the cell wall of eukaryotes simple or complex?

What about the cell wall of prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes - chemically simple when present

Prokaryotes - chemically complex

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12
Q

What syndrome can be caused do to the endotoxin, Lipid A, when released in large amounts?

What bacteria produce this endotoxin?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

Gram Negative

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13
Q

What components make up the triangle of tragedy?

A

Host - pathogen - environment

If these are not in balance –> disease

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14
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A microbe that can cause disease

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15
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Mechanisms by which disease is caused

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16
Q

What is virulence?

A

Degree of pathogenicity; includes severity

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17
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

Properties or traits found in isolates that cause dz but which are not found in isolates of the same species that lack the ability to cause dz

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18
Q

Opportunistic pathogens require hosts to have a or many ________ to become infected

A

Predisposition(s)

immune compromised
age
poor nutrition etc etc

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19
Q

What two types of pathogens will produce a distinct disease?

A

Obligate and primary pathogens

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20
Q

What two types of pathogens cause “non-specific” disease?

A

Opportunistic and non-pathogenic

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21
Q

What does it mean if a bacteria is an obligate intracellular?

A

Does not multiply outside of the host cell

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22
Q

What makes facultative intracellular bacteria special?

A

They can be both intracellular and extracellular

Often will hide in macrophages to evade the immune system

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23
Q

What is the sequence of events in bacterial/fungal pathogenesis?

A 
Entry into the host
Evade host defenses
Colonize the host systems
Multiply
Exert damage in the host
Transmit to other host = INFECTIOUS
24
Q

What are some consequences of bacterial infection?

A

Infection –> Dz –> Recovery
Infection –> Dz –> Death or disability
Infection –> Dz –> persistent infection (transmission or carrier stage)

25
What do spirochetes have that spiral bacteria do not?
Endoflagella/axial filaments
26
What are some virulence factors that bacteria may have?
``` Flagella - motility Fimbriae - adherence Capsule - evade phagocytosis Toxins - endo and exotoxins Superantigens Quorum sensing Biofilms ```
27
T/F: Any bacteria can opportunistically infect any of the body systems
TRUE
28
What do fungi have in their cell membrane that is unique?
Sterols
29
What is the unicellular form of fungi called? Multicellular fungi?
``` Unicellular = yeast Multicellular = mold and hyphae ```
30
What are dimorphic fungi?
Exist as yeast and mold depending on the temperature
31
Fungi can reproduce via..?
Sexual and asexual reproduction Budding, fragmenting
32
What are 4 dimorphic fungi?
Blastomyces dermatitidis Histoplasma capsulatum Coccidioides immitis Sporothrix schenckii
33
What are the fungus-like organisms discussed in class? (3)
Pythium and Lagenidium (water molds) | Prototheca - algae
34
When should your specimen collection tube NOT be air tight?
When sending off a sample for fungal culture - do not want any moisture to build up
35
Heavy pure culture of a bacteria is indicative of a ____________.
Infection
36
Isolation of three or more types of organisms is most likely are result of ______.
Contamination
37
Antibody titers: Patient X has a titer of 1/300 Patient Y has a titer of 1/800 Which patient has a higher antibody titer?
Patient Y *can sense the presence of antibodies after an 800 time dilution
38
T/F: All antimicrobials are antibiotics, but not all antibiotics are antimicrobials
FALSE All antibiotics are antimicrobials Not all antimicrobials are antibiotics **ABs are produced by a naturally occurring microorganism
39
T/F: Mycobacteria are the only acid fast positive bacteria
False
40
What antimicrobials have a MOA that involves the cell wall/cell membrane?
Beta lactams (penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems) Glycopeptides (Vancomycin) Bacitracin Polymyxin
41
What antimicrobials have a MOA that targets protein synthesis?
``` Tetracyclines Macrolides Aminoglycosides Chloramphenicols Lincosamides Streptogramins ```
42
What antimicrobials have a MOA that targets DNA synthesis?
Sulfonamides Fluroquinolons (enrofloxacin) Nitroimidazoles/Nitrofurans *Rifampin (RNA)
43
What drugs target ergosterols in the cell wall of fugi?
Polyene | Azoles
44
What is the MIC?
Minimum inhibitory concentration: Min. amt. of a drug required to inhibit bacterial growth
45
What is a susceptibility break point and what are some examples?
A drug concentration above which an organism is considered resistant and at/or below this value, the organism is susceptible to the drug Ex: Susceptible, intermediate, Resistant
46
What is innate antimicrobial resistance and acquired resistance?
Innate = preexisting genomic property Acquired = acquired by a mutation(s)
47
T/F: The Kirby Bauer disc test results in a MIC
False just get breakpoints according to zone size
48
T/F: The broth dilution test will result in a MIC
TRUE
49
What are some non-therapeutic uses of antimicrobials?
Growth promotion prophylactic metaphylactic
50
What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antimicrobials? When would you want to avoid using bacteriostatic ABs?
``` Cidal = kills bacteria Static = inhibits growth ``` Avoid bacteriostatic ABs in patients that are immunocompromised or when infections are in CNS (want to get rid of all the bacteria)
51
1. What kind of organisms need oxygen for growth? 2. What organisms do not require or utilize oxygen for growth? 3. What organisms do not require oxygen, but can utilize it for growth?
1. Aerobic, microaerophilic, capnophilic (grow best with CO2) 2. Obligate anaerobe, aerotolerant anaerobe 3. Facultative anaerobe
52
What happens in the lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and decline phase of bacterial growth?
1. lag: no growth 2. log: Exponential growth 3. stationary: plateau 4. Decline: death
53
When are spores produced?
When the environment is not ideal for bacteria survival. Spores are highly resistant dormant forms of bacteria.
54
Acid fast positive stain _______ | Acid fast negative stain ______
Positive = pink negative = blue
55
Gram negative stain ______ | Gram positive stain _______
Negative = pink Positive = violet/blue

RUSVM BacT Spring 2017 (15 decks)

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