Final Exam: BacT/Mycology overview Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Histones are present in bacteria

A

FALSE

only present in eukaryotic cells

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2
Q

What is unique to gram positive bacteria?

A

Teichoic acid

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3
Q

T/F: Bacteria have chromosomes and ribosomes

A

TRUE

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4
Q

Mycobacteria stains gram positive or negative? Why?

A

Gram positive - due to their cell wall

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5
Q

What is unique to mycobacteria?

A

Mycolic acid

*no cell membrane

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6
Q

Why do bacteria stain gram positive?

A

Due to the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer

**purple

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7
Q

What is unique to gram negative bacteria?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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8
Q

Which of the following processes is the least likely virulence mechanism of bacteria?

  1. Flagella - mobility
  2. Fimbria - adherence
  3. Bacterial protein production by ribosomes
  4. Capsule - to evade phagocytosis
A

3 - this is something done but nearly all bacteria; doesn’t really increase virulence

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9
Q

How do prokaryotic cells replicate?

A

Binary fission

No meiosis

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10
Q

Do prokaryotes have a cytoskeleton?

A

NOPE!

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11
Q

Is the cell wall of eukaryotes simple or complex?

What about the cell wall of prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes - chemically simple when present

Prokaryotes - chemically complex

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12
Q

What syndrome can be caused do to the endotoxin, Lipid A, when released in large amounts?

What bacteria produce this endotoxin?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

Gram Negative

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13
Q

What components make up the triangle of tragedy?

A

Host - pathogen - environment

If these are not in balance –> disease

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14
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A microbe that can cause disease

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15
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

Mechanisms by which disease is caused

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16
Q

What is virulence?

A

Degree of pathogenicity; includes severity

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17
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

Properties or traits found in isolates that cause dz but which are not found in isolates of the same species that lack the ability to cause dz

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18
Q

Opportunistic pathogens require hosts to have a or many ________ to become infected

A

Predisposition(s)

immune compromised
age
poor nutrition etc etc

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19
Q

What two types of pathogens will produce a distinct disease?

A

Obligate and primary pathogens

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20
Q

What two types of pathogens cause “non-specific” disease?

A

Opportunistic and non-pathogenic

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21
Q

What does it mean if a bacteria is an obligate intracellular?

A

Does not multiply outside of the host cell

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22
Q

What makes facultative intracellular bacteria special?

A

They can be both intracellular and extracellular

Often will hide in macrophages to evade the immune system

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23
Q

What is the sequence of events in bacterial/fungal pathogenesis?

A
Entry into the host
Evade host defenses
Colonize the host systems
Multiply
Exert damage in the host
Transmit to other host = INFECTIOUS
24
Q

What are some consequences of bacterial infection?

A

Infection –> Dz –> Recovery
Infection –> Dz –> Death or disability
Infection –> Dz –> persistent infection (transmission or carrier stage)

25
Q

What do spirochetes have that spiral bacteria do not?

A

Endoflagella/axial filaments

26
Q

What are some virulence factors that bacteria may have?

A
Flagella - motility
Fimbriae - adherence 
Capsule - evade phagocytosis
Toxins - endo and exotoxins
Superantigens
Quorum sensing
Biofilms
27
Q

T/F: Any bacteria can opportunistically infect any of the body systems

A

TRUE

28
Q

What do fungi have in their cell membrane that is unique?

A

Sterols

29
Q

What is the unicellular form of fungi called? Multicellular fungi?

A
Unicellular = yeast
Multicellular = mold and hyphae
30
Q

What are dimorphic fungi?

A

Exist as yeast and mold depending on the temperature

31
Q

Fungi can reproduce via..?

A

Sexual and asexual reproduction

Budding, fragmenting

32
Q

What are 4 dimorphic fungi?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis
Histoplasma capsulatum
Coccidioides immitis
Sporothrix schenckii

33
Q

What are the fungus-like organisms discussed in class? (3)

A

Pythium and Lagenidium (water molds)

Prototheca - algae

34
Q

When should your specimen collection tube NOT be air tight?

A

When sending off a sample for fungal culture - do not want any moisture to build up

35
Q

Heavy pure culture of a bacteria is indicative of a ____________.

A

Infection

36
Q

Isolation of three or more types of organisms is most likely are result of ______.

A

Contamination

37
Q

Antibody titers:
Patient X has a titer of 1/300
Patient Y has a titer of 1/800

Which patient has a higher antibody titer?

A

Patient Y

*can sense the presence of antibodies after an 800 time dilution

38
Q

T/F: All antimicrobials are antibiotics, but not all antibiotics are antimicrobials

A

FALSE

All antibiotics are antimicrobials

Not all antimicrobials are antibiotics

**ABs are produced by a naturally occurring microorganism

39
Q

T/F: Mycobacteria are the only acid fast positive bacteria

A

False

40
Q

What antimicrobials have a MOA that involves the cell wall/cell membrane?

A

Beta lactams (penicillin, ampicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenems)
Glycopeptides (Vancomycin)
Bacitracin
Polymyxin

41
Q

What antimicrobials have a MOA that targets protein synthesis?

A
Tetracyclines
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
Chloramphenicols
Lincosamides
Streptogramins
42
Q

What antimicrobials have a MOA that targets DNA synthesis?

A

Sulfonamides
Fluroquinolons (enrofloxacin)
Nitroimidazoles/Nitrofurans
*Rifampin (RNA)

43
Q

What drugs target ergosterols in the cell wall of fugi?

A

Polyene

Azoles

44
Q

What is the MIC?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration: Min. amt. of a drug required to inhibit bacterial growth

45
Q

What is a susceptibility break point and what are some examples?

A

A drug concentration above which an organism is considered resistant and at/or below this value, the organism is susceptible to the drug

Ex: Susceptible, intermediate, Resistant

46
Q

What is innate antimicrobial resistance and acquired resistance?

A

Innate = preexisting genomic property

Acquired = acquired by a mutation(s)

47
Q

T/F: The Kirby Bauer disc test results in a MIC

A

False

just get breakpoints according to zone size

48
Q

T/F: The broth dilution test will result in a MIC

A

TRUE

49
Q

What are some non-therapeutic uses of antimicrobials?

A

Growth promotion
prophylactic
metaphylactic

50
Q

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antimicrobials?

When would you want to avoid using bacteriostatic ABs?

A
Cidal = kills bacteria
Static = inhibits growth

Avoid bacteriostatic ABs in patients that are immunocompromised or when infections are in CNS (want to get rid of all the bacteria)

51
Q
  1. What kind of organisms need oxygen for growth?
  2. What organisms do not require or utilize oxygen for growth?
  3. What organisms do not require oxygen, but can utilize it for growth?
A
  1. Aerobic, microaerophilic, capnophilic (grow best with CO2)
  2. Obligate anaerobe, aerotolerant anaerobe
  3. Facultative anaerobe
52
Q

What happens in the lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and decline phase of bacterial growth?

A
  1. lag: no growth
  2. log: Exponential growth
  3. stationary: plateau
  4. Decline: death
53
Q

When are spores produced?

A

When the environment is not ideal for bacteria survival. Spores are highly resistant dormant forms of bacteria.

54
Q

Acid fast positive stain _______

Acid fast negative stain ______

A

Positive = pink

negative = blue

55
Q

Gram negative stain ______

Gram positive stain _______

A

Negative = pink

Positive = violet/blue