Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What best describes a symbiotic relationship in which both organisms benefit?
A
mutualism
2
Q
Which of the following bacteria do NOT have a cell well?
A
mycoplasmas
3
Q
Prokaryotic cells that move in response to nutrient levels are said to display
A
chemotaxis
4
Q
Which of the following contains DNA or RNA but not both?
A
Viruses
5
Q
An obligate halophile requires high
A
salt
6
Q
In a chemical reaction, enzymes ___ the activation energy and ___ the reaction rate.
A
lower; increase
7
Q
Which of the following is a direct counting method?
A
viable plate count
8
Q
Psychrotrophs would be expected to grow
A
at refrigeration temperatures
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT a bacterial shape or arrangement?
A
bacilli in chains
10
Q
Which bactereial structure is primarily responsible for preventing bacteria from being destroyed by the hosts immune cells?
A
capsule
11
Q
The initial step in the process of many bacterial infections is adhereence of the microbe to mucous membranes. The bacterial component that mediates adhereence is the
A
pilus
12
Q
Plasma membranes are composed principally of
A
protein and phospholipid
13
Q
Which type of organism gets energy from breaking down organic molecules and uses sugars as a carbon source?
A
chemoheterotroph
14
Q
The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that simple ediffusion
A
does not require a protein
15
Q
The breakdown of a protein into its building blocks (amino acids) is
A
catabolic and exergonic
16
Q
Which of the following can be determined using simple stains?
A
size, shape and cellular arrangement
17
Q
Microbes that primarily infect the lungs are likely to be classifed as
A
obligate aerobes
18
Q
Certain antibiotics, such as streptomycin, inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by targeting the
A
70s ribosome
19
Q
What is the difference between spirilla and spirochetes?
A
spirilla are rigid with external flagella; spirochetes are flexible with internal flagella
20
Q
Helicobater pylori is a bacterial pathogen known to cause gastric ulcers and stomach cancer in humans. Which term best describes H. pylori?
A
mesophilic acidophile
21
Q
Abiogenesis refers to the
A
spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter
22
Q
Lysozyme in tears is an effective mechanism for precenting bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye), Which bacterial structure does lysozyme degrade?
A
peptidoglycan
23
Q
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding mitochondria?
A
mitochondria are not found in plant cells
24
Q
What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme?
A
competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme’s substrate
25
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that solubilizes CO2 so that it can be removed from human tissues. Zinc is required for this enzyme to function. Thus, zinc is best described as a(n) ___ that is required to form the functional ___
inorganic cofactor; holoenzyme
26
How does a noncompetitive inhibitor reduce an enzyme's activity?
The inhibitor binds to a location other than the active site, changing the shape of the active site.
27
What is the advantage of the spiral movement of spirochetes?
It allows the cells to move more easily through viscous human tissues and fluids, such as mucus.
28
Catabolic and anabolic reactions are coupled (connected). Which statement best describes this relationship?
Catabolic reactions provide energy and smaller molecules required for anabolic reactions.
29
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is grown for 80 hours. During that time, they go through four generations of growth. What is the generation time in minutes?
80 hourts/ 4 generations = 20 hours * 60 minutes... 1200 minutes/generation
30
What. is the total number of bacteria produced if 10 bacteria undergo binary fission for. 5 generations?
10 x 2^5
31
What tube below. shos the. expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?
B
32
Whichtube below shos the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?
E
33
In the figure below, which represents a cell wall that possesses endotoxin?
B
34
In the figure below, which represents a cell wall sensitive to the antibiotic penicillin?
A
35
Which of the. following would you expect to find in Gram-ppositive cell walls?
Peptidoglycan...teichoic. acid
36
Which of the following include eukaryotic cells?
Fungi, animals, helminths
37
memorize
38
After using an inoculating loop to transfer a culture from one medium to the next, what step should be taken next to avoid contamination?
Heat the inoculating loop with the bunsen burner flame until it becomes red hot.
39
Immersion oil should be cleaned off an objective with which product
lens paper
40
The 40x objective of a light microscope is also known as the __ objective
high-dry
41
You have just rotated the 40x objective into position after viewing the specimen with the 10x objective. What should be your next step?
adjust the fine focus knob
42
What is the purpose. of heat fixing your slide before staining?
Heat fixation adhere the cells to the slide and coagulates thebacterial proteins, effectively killing the bacteria
43
What does ubiquitous mean?
Everywhere or in large amounts q
44
memorize
45
An inanimate object capable of being contaminated by infectious microbes is known as a(n)
fomite
46
Small, circular DNA molecules that replicate independently of bacterial chromosomes are called
plasmids
47
hich scientist is most responsible for finally disproving the. theory of spontaneous
Louis Pasteur
48
Some bacteria are obligate anaerobes. Which statement best explains this phenomenon?
They lack superoxide dismutase and catalase.W
49
hich is the acid-fast stain clinically useful?
It identifies the causative agents of leprosy and tuberculosis.
50
Which of the following steps in viral multiplication is only true of animal viruses?
uncoating
51
Which receptors of the influenza virus are responsible for binding to the host cell?
hemagglutinin
52
The region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transciption is called the
promoter
53
Transcription produces which of the following?
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
54
Corynebacterium. diphtheria is made virulent by incorporated prophage. genes encoding the diphtheria toxin. What term describes this process?
lysogenic conversion
55
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DNA replication?
new strands made in a 3' -> 5' direction
56
According to the operon model, a repressible enzyme will stop being produced when the
end-product is in excess
57
Deleterious mutations of ___ would result in the lac operon always being turned on.
repressor
58
RNA molecules. differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
All choices are correct
59
A gram-negative bacilli infection would be best treated with
aminoglycosides
60
Which viruses can cause gastroenteritis. with acute diarrhea?
Noroviruses and rotaviruses
61
Which of the following does NOT apply to shingles?
Occurs before chickenpox
62
Which of the following is NOT a chacteristic of the genetic dode?
all of the above are true of the genetic code
63
The analysis of the bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discoveredvirus showed 20% adenine, 40% G, 10% T and 30% cytosine. Thee viral nucleic acid is most likely
single-stranded DNA
64
Important charactereistics of antimicrobic drugs include all of the following EXEPT
has a low therapeutic index
65
The cellular basis for bactereial resistance to antimicrobics include
All these choices are correct
66
The most damaging type of mutation is a ___ mutation which can be caused by ___ mutations.
frameshift; deletion and insertion
67
Which of the following is FALSA regarding the lagging strand of DNA replication?
It is synthesized by DNA polymerase I instead of DNA polymerase III
68
Regarding both penicillins and quinolones, which one of the following tis the most accurate?
Both are bactericidal drugs
69
Which of the following is NOT true of measles?
Negri bodies can be found in the brainstem
70
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are
All the choices are correct.
71
Which of would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus with reverse transcriptase?
a complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from an RNA template.
72
Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involese
injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
73
All of the following pertain to virus eenvelopes EXPECT they
are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
74
All the following are correct about polio, EXEPT
The Salk vaccine contains an attenuated (weakened) virus.
75
Which of the following is NOT a means of drug resistance in bacteria?
development of a superinfection
76
Rubella is
associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and mental defects.
77
Which is incorrect about rabies?
all are correct statements.
78
When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means the
virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
79
You are studying an unknown virus that does not perform transciption to make viral proteins. Which of the following characteristics must also be TRUE for this unkown virus?
The virus has a positive, sense-stranded RNA genome.
80
Which of the following is a correct statement about eukaryotic mRNA?
mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm following RNA processing.
81
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding smallpox as compared to chickenpox?
Chickenpox causes a vesicular rash, whereas smallpox causes a maculopapular rash.
82
memorize
83
memorize
84
memorize
85
memorize
86
Which of these numbers correctly expresses a dilution factor?
10^-4
87
What is the corrrect order of the Gram stain?
crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
88
What does the kirby-bauer test assess?
The susceptibility of an organism to a set of abtibiotics
89
Two plates recently inoculated with B. subtilis are exposed to UV radiation with the lid OFF. Plate A is exposed for 10 seconds, and plate B is exposed for 3 minutes. You should expect
more B. Subtilis growth on plate A than plate B.
90
Failure to apply safranin in a gram stain would result in
gram-positive bacterium staining purple and G-negative bacteria being colorless
91
Which of the following lists the types of microbes in order of susceptibility to antiseptics and disinfectants, from the most susceptible to least susceptible?
non-acid-fast bacteria, acid-fast bacteria, encapsulated bacteria, bacterial spores
92
Which antibiotic is typically administered to patients with MRSA or C. difficile infections?
Vancomycin
93
Which of the following is least likely to kill endospores?
Pasteurization
94
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with
chickenpox
95
B-lactam drugs inhibit enzymes known as ___, thereby decreasing the crosslinking of peptidoglycan. Clavulanate inhibits enzymes known as ___.
transpeptidases; B-lactamases
96
Structual genes code for
mRNA and proteins
97
Which antibiotic is typically NOT administered to pregnant women, nursing mother or children under 8 years of age?
tetracycline
98
Which of the following is INCORRECT about purines?
purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.
99
Which of the following lists microbes or microbial structures in order from hardest to destroy by heat to the easiest to destroy?
bacterial endospores, fungal spores, vegetative bacteria, fungi
100
In Frederick Griffith's experiment what most likely explains the recovery of live streptococcus pneumoniae S strain cells from a mouse injected with heat-killed S strain mixed with live R strain cells?
The R strain cells picked up the S strain DNA, enabling it to produce a capsule
101
The decimal reduction time for a bacterium is 30 minutes upon boiling. Starting with 10^12 bacteria, how many bacteria would remain after 2 hours and 30 minutes of boiling?
10^7
102
What is an example of a virulence factor that is related to immune system evasion?
capsule
103
T Helper cells release ___ to activate B Cells
cytokines
104
Which of the following is NOT a first line of defense
inflammation
105
Virulence factors include all the following EXEPT
cytokines
106
Which portal of entry is the MOST commonly used by pathogens
respiratory
107
Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
production of antibodies
108
All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors (TLRs) EXCEPT
interferons
109
The binding of an antibody to an antigen can cause all of the following EXCEPT
clonal expansion
110
Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?
Spleen
111
The human body typically begins to be colinized by its normal flora
during and immediately after birth
112
Which pair is mismatched
Coagulase to dissolve fibrin clots
113
Shivering is a sign that
body temperature is rising
114
The slowing, rolling, sticky of leukocytes to blood vessel walls is called ___ whereas the squeezing of leukocytes out of the vessel is called ___
margination...diapedesis
115
Fever is initiated when circulating substances known as ___ affect the bodies thermostat also known as the bodies ___.
pyrogens;... hypothalmus
116
Antigen presenting cells
all of the above
117
all of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen EXCEPT
it is mostly IGm that are produced
118
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called an ___ however if the molecule is too small by itsself to illicite an immune response it is termed an ___
epitope...hapten
119
Rabbid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease this excess salivation
is the result of hydrophobia
120
Your patient is born without a thymus how would this affect your patient
the patient would not produce mature T lymphocytes
121
which of the following statements about innate immunity is INCORRECT
innate immunity remembers specific antigens and amplifies response upon later exposure
122
Your four yo patient recently received a Dtap vaccination providing immunity to diphtheria tetanus and pertussis. If your patient is exposed to pertussis a few weeks later, which of the results would you expect to receive when measuring the patient's antibody titer?
A sharp increase in IgG
123
Which of the following events occurs LAST in inflammation?
Macrophages clean up cellular debris and dead neutrophils by phagocytosis
124
All of the following apply to T cells EXCEPT that they
Coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies
125
All of the following apply to B cells EXCEPT
Play a critical role in both the cell-mediated and humoral responses
126
Which T cell is INCORRECTLY matched to its description?
Tc: Attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening
127
What is the role of B cell receptors and T cell receptors in the immune response?
To recognize specific epitopes of an antigen
128
CD4 T cell activation occurs through _____ antigen presentation, involving presentation of antigen with _____. On the other hand, CD8 T cell activation occurs through _____ antigen presentation, involving presentation of antigen with _____.
Extracellular; MHC II; intracellular; MHC I
129
Genetic mutations in the CD8a gene often result in a CD8 T cell deficiency. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to occur on a patient with such a mutation?
This patient would be less able to respond to viral infections
130
Both Vibrio cholerae and Salmonella typhi are capable of causing disease in otherwise healthy individuals. The ID of V. cholerae is 1,000,000 cells, while the ID S. typhi is 10,000 cells. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE?
Both V. cholerae and S. typhi are pathogenic, but S. typhi is more infectious than V. cholerae
131
Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunnity over passive immunity
active immunity enables the developement of immunologic memory whereas no memory developes with passive immunity
132
place the stages of adaptive immunity in the correct order from first to last
1=antigen presentation, lymphocyte activation, lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation, antigen elimination
133
memorize
134
memorize
135
Staphylococcus and micrococcus bacteria, or a gram blank and catalase blank
Positive and positive
136
Streptococcus and enterococcus bacteria are gram blank in calories blank
Positive and negative
137
The presence of starch is determined by a blank color, when blank is added
Dark, purple and iodine
138
Amylase breaks down
Starch
139
Kovacs reagent is used to detect
Catalase
140
memorize
141
Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen
True
142
Most of your immune system is located in the
Spleen
143
Lymphocytes and macrophages typically destroy pathogens in the
Lymph nodes
144
Which of the following sites would most likely be free of normal microbiota
Lungs
145
Hospital staff talk about polymorphonuclear leukocytes they are referring to
Neutrophils
146
Which of the following is an example of a GALT
Pyers patches
147
Which molecule causes vasodilation and increased permeability during inflammation
Histamine
148
What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation
Redness, edema, pain, heat
149
memorize
150
It's possible to get bone fractures from tetanus
True
151
The higher, the incidence of splenic lymphocyte apoptosis the greater the severity of sepsis
True
152
In both botulism and tetanus respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing, and if left untreated, respiratory failure leads to death
True
153
Splenic white pulp contains
Leukocytes
154
Helicobacter chloride is a blank, whereas borrelia burgdorferi is a blank bacterium
Spyro bacillus, and Spyro cheat
155
Children are more likely to get otitis media in adults because children's used stationary tubes are
All the above
156
Severe sepsis can be characterized as all the following, except
Low blood pressure
157
Violent, coughing, and gasping for air is the blank stage of whooping cough
Proximal
158
Which of the following is not a recognized form of anthrax
Septic
159
Fever, headache and stiff neck are typically the initial symptoms of
Meningitis
160
What is the typical habitat of endospore forming bacteria that are agents of disease?
Soil
161
Which of the following is not typically a zoo in attic?
Anthrax
162
Which of the following is not characteristic of tetanus?
Black eschar
163
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the paucibacillary form of leprosy
Disfiguration and loss of extremities
164
Which of the following variance factors does not contribute to the spread of necrotizing fasciitis
Urethra, Jenna tocsin
165
Spastic paralysis is caused by toxin, released from blank, whereas flaccid paralysis is caused by toxin released from blank
Clostridium, tetany and clostridium botulinum
166
Helicobacter Pouri infection can lead to
Peptic also disease and stomach cancer
167
Poultry products are likely a source of infection by
Salmonella in Terrica or camped out Dr., July
168
Which of the following is not true, regarding the different types of plague
All are true about plague
169
Which of the following can be treated by fecal microbiota transplants
Clostridium Difícil associated diarrhea
170
Vernon cystic fibrosis patients are most susceptible to infection by
Pseudo Monas, are you getting Asa?
171
Which of the following organisms cause a type of diarrhea with rice water stools?
Vibrio cholera
172
Which of the following bacteria would not be treated with penicillin?
Neisseria meningitis
173
Which of the following is incorrect about Lyme disease?
All the choices are correct
174
Late stage of sepsis is a blank response due to blank
Hypo, inflammatory, and immune cell apoptosis
175
Your patient has a foot wound that has developed into a serious necrosis in the recommend treatment has been sessions in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber. The ideology is.
Clostridium perry fringes
176
The blockage of the passage of air to the lungs, by firing in the tissue are characteristic of blank, whereas the destruction of the mucocele or airy excavator is characteristic of blank
Diphtheria and pertussis
177
KCS lesions containing inflammatory white blood cells within the lungs are called blank and be found in patients with blank
To Burgos and tuberculosis
178
You're a streamer migraines, often develop as a result of what infection
burgdorferi
179
Cholera symptoms include
All the choices are correct
180
In E. coli O157:H7, the O refers to its ____ antigen, whereas the H refers to its ____
Cell wall; flagellar
181
Which is. the correct order of the "sepsis continuum?"
SIRS --> sepsis --> severe sepsis --> septic shock
182
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding leprosy?
Transmitted by the gastrointestinal route
183
Gas gangrene may be distinguished from necrotizing fasciitis by the presence of ____ in the affected area of gas gangrene
Gram-positive, endospore-forming bacilli
184
Which of the following is FALSE about the multibacillary (MB) form of leprosy?
The MB form is more common than the milder PB form
185
Latent tuberculosis
Results when M. tuberculosis bacteria are phagocytized and walled off within granulomas in the lungs
186
Your patient starts to develop a macular, maculopapular and petechial rash beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. He states that he received a tick bite a few days ago after hiking in the woods. Which of the following. is the most likely diagnosis
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
187
The nurse is reviewing instructions with a pregnant woman. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
"I will eat cheese and lunchmeats to ensure I get enough protein and calcium."
188
What infectious agent is of concern from the previous question?
Listeria monocytogenes
189
You should always perform a Gram stain first when attempting to identify a bacterial unknown.
True
190
Upon the breakdown of glucose, bacteria will either produce acidic or neutral end-products, but not both
True
191
Streptococci are catalase _____, whereas staphylococci are catalase _____
Negative: positive
192
Motility in a SIM agar deep is due to the presence of what bacteria appendage
Flagella
193
A positive citrate utilization test will turn the median
Blue
194
Hydrogen, sulfide production can be detected by blank, which turns blank
Iron black
195
A TSI slant can be used to test for all the following except
Motility
196
Which of the following is false about indoor production?
It indicates the presence of hemolysins
197
MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar platese are selective for the growth of ___ bacteria, and differential for ___
Gram-negative; lactose fermenters
198
Memorize
199
Inhalation anthrax is the most common and most lethal form of anthrax
True
200
Pregnant woman should eat sashimi to prevent listeriosis
Falsa
201
You are more likely to get CA-MRSA than HA-MRSA
true
202
Which is not a typical symptom of pneumonia
diarrhea
203
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of Lyme disease?
persistent cough
204
Which of the following is a virulence factor of Aerococcus urinae?
its ability to form a biofilm
205
Which of the following bacteria do NOT cause cellulitis
streptococcus pneumoniae
206
Swollen lymph nodes are also known as
buboes
207
Which virulence factor produces blue pus
pyocyanin
208
Your 10 year old patient is diagnosed with hemolytic uremic syndrome after consumption of undercooked beef. The most likely causative E. coli strain is
all of the above
