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Microbiology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Chapter 18 there are ____ bacterium. The morphology of this chapter is ___

A

4
gram-positive and negative cocci

(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)

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2
Q

The first bacterium in chapter 18 is _

A

staphylococcus aureus

(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)

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3
Q

The second bacterium in chapter 18 is _

A

streptococcus pyogenes

(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)

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4
Q

The third bacterium in chapter 18 is _

A

streptococcus pneumonia

(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)

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5
Q

The fourth bacterium in chapter 18 is _

A

neisseria meningitidis

(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)

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6
Q

Impetigo is associated with

A

1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes

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7
Q

Erysipelas is associated with

A

1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes

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8
Q

Cellulitis is associated with

A

1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes

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9
Q

SSS is associated with

A

S. Aureus

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10
Q

Necrotizing fascilitis is associated with

A

S. Pyogenes

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11
Q

Meningitis is associated with

A

S. Pneumoniae
Neisseria Meningitidis

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12
Q

Scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is associated with

A

S. Pyogenes

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13
Q

Food poisoning is associated with

A

S. Aureus

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14
Q

Pharyngitis and Sinusitis is associated with

A

S. Pyogenes

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15
Q

Pneumonia, Ottis media, and sinusitis is associated with

A

S. Pneumoniae

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16
Q

Glomerulonephritis is associated with

A

S. progenies

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17
Q

Staphylococcus is

A

catalase (+)
- encapsulated
- no flagella
- no endospores
- b-hemolytic
- grows on MSA plates

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18
Q

The difference between S aureus and S pyogenes is that S aureus is positive for _ (4)

A

1) catalase
2) coagulase
3) DNase
4) toxin

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19
Q

the difference with streptococcus (when compared to staphlococcus) is that its

A

catalase negative
B hemolytic

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20
Q

S. progenies has _ (3) which breaks down tissue known as

A

hyaluronidase
streptolysin
streptokinase

necrotizing fasciitis

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21
Q

this is chapter

A

18

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22
Q

Otitis media is

A

kids eustachian tubes are infected (S. Pneumoniae

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23
Q

sore throat is associated with

A

N. Meningitidis

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24
Q

The production of erythrogenic toxin can lead to

A

Scarlet Fever

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25
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is typically caused by

A

S. Aureus

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26
Q

Which bacterium produces the M-protein virulence factor?

A

S. Pyogenes

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27
Q

A bacterial analysis of a skin infection indicates that the bacteria are Gram-positive cocci that produce
coagulase. The etiology is

A

S. Aureus

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28
Q

Long-term complications of ______ infections include rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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29
Q

All species of Staphylococcus

A

produce catalase.

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30
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, EXCEPT

A

scalded skin syndrome.

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31
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is

A

caused by hyaluronidase, streptolysin, and streptokinase in certain strains of Streptococcus pyogenes.

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32
Q

The Staphylococcus or Streptococcus infection that has symptoms of fever, inflammation, and edema of deeper layers of the skin is

A

cellulitis.

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33
Q

Which disease is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

All of these choices are correct.

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34
Q

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?

A

mannitol salt agar

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35
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is troublesome in the hospital environment because

A

it is resistant to concentrations of salt that would inhibit the growth of most bacterial species.

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36
Q

All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme __________ that is easily detected in the lab.

A

catalase

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37
Q

The production of the enzyme __________ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.

A

coagulase

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38
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53
Q

Chapter 19 is about

A

Gram-positive Bacilli

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54
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

A

Clostridium perfingens

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55
Q

Diarrhea and colitis is caused by

A

Clostridium difficile

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56
Q

Black eschar is associated with

A

anthrax

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57
Q

Chapter?

A

19

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58
Q

Colitis is caused by

A

C. Difficile

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59
Q

Chapter?

A

19b

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60
Q

Meningitis, Septicemia, and diarrhea is associated with

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

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61
Q

Hansen’s disease is associated with

A

Mycobacterium laprae

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62
Q

death by asphyxiation is associated with

A

C. diph

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
a. is a facultative anaerobe b. is gram-positive c. forms endospores
d. found in soil e. All are true

A

All are true

64
Q

Fecal transplants are sometimes used to treat

A

C. Diph

65
Q

All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT
a. vaccination. b. immunity to tuberculosis.
c. current tuberculosis infection. d. previous tuberculosis infection.
e. being near someone with tuberculosis

A

E

66
Q

The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is
the etiology of the symptoms?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

A

67
Q

A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with

A

anthrax.

68
Q

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection EXCEPT

A

it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly canned food

69
Q

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes EXCEPT

A

it produces endospores.

70
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.

71
Q

Leprosy is a disease

A

caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab

72
Q

Which of the following is/are characteristic of multibacillary Hansen’s disease?

A

Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop.
Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease.
The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, and testes.
Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure.

73
Q

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism?

A

botulinum toxin in contaminated food

74
Q

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gas gangrene?

A

debridement of the wound
hyperbaric chamber
amputation of affected limb
rigorous cleansing of deep wounds

75
Q

Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a high amount of

A

Oxygen

76
Q

The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed

A

Tubercles

77
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87
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89
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90
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91
Q

Chapter 20 is about

A

Gram-Negative Bacilli

92
Q

Escherichia is

A

lactose fermenting

93
Q

Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia is

A

non lactose fermenting

94
Q

pyocyanin produces

A

blue pus (pseudomonas aeruginosa)

95
Q

capsule binds to mucociliary escalator is associated with

A

Bordetella pertussis

96
Q

whooping cough is associated with

A

bordetella pertussis

97
Q

Shigella doesn’t have a

A

flagella

98
Q

what type of Escherichia coli is common

A

O157:H7

99
Q

flea vectors are associated with

A

Yersinia pestis

100
Q

Bubonic and septicemic plague are associated with

A

Yersinia Pestis

101
Q

Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by catarrhal and paroxysmal stages?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Yersinia pestis
c. Bordetella pertussis d. Francisella tularensis

A

C

102
Q

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
a. Salmonella enterica. b. Escherichia coli.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Shigella dysenteriae.

A

A

103
Q

A unique characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
a. fecal odor. b. drug resistance. c. green pigment. d. motility.

A

C

104
Q

The severe symptoms of pertussis are due to
a. irritation of the epiglottis. b. pneumonia.
c. destruction of the mucociliary escalator. d. blocked airways.
e. Both c and d.

A

E

105
Q

Which of the following is a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?
a. portal of entry b. mode of transmission c. likelihood of septicemia
d. presence/absence of diarrhea

A

C

106
Q

A bubo is
a. ulcer where the bite occurred. b. granuloma of the skin.
c. enlarged lymph node. d. a “boo boo.”

A

C

107
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, EXCEPT

A

diarrheal illness

108
Q

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, EXCEPT

A

it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.

109
Q

Salmonelloses are

A

caused by Salmonella enterica.

associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptiles.
gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
enteric fevers that often include septicemia.

110
Q

Shigella species have the following characteristics, EXCEPT

A

they infect the small intestine.

111
Q

Which of the following are TRUE about plague?

A

There is a septicemic form called the Black Death.
There is a bubonic form, during which buboes develop.
There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious.
The disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population

112
Q

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to

A

toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract.

113
Q

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

A

E. coli 0157:H7

114
Q

Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The __________ stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the __________ stage is characterized by severe coughing.

A

catarrhal; paroxysmal

115
Q

E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their

A

cell wall antigen

116
Q

Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called…

A

gastroenteritis

117
Q
A
118
Q
A
119
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A
120
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A
121
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A
122
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A
123
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A
124
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A
125
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A
126
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A
127
Q
A
128
Q
A
129
Q
A
130
Q
A
131
Q

Chapter 21 is about

A

Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease

132
Q

Lyme disease is associated with

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

133
Q

Ulcers is associated with

A

Campylobacter Pylori

134
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is associated with

A

Rickettsia Rickettsii

135
Q

Gram-negative spirochete (flexible)

A

Borrelia

136
Q

Bull eye rash is associated with

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

137
Q

amphitrichous microaerophile is associated with

A

Helicobacter Pylori

138
Q

breath test can test for

A

gastritis

139
Q

Rocky moutain spotted fever is associated with

A

Rickettsia (arthropod vector)

140
Q

Infection + SIRS =

A

Sepsis

141
Q

Sepsis stands for

A

Systemic
Inflammatory
Response
Syndrome

142
Q

Which of the following conditions may occur in untreated Lyme disease?
a. arthritis b. rash c. heart disorderd. a and b e. All of these

A

E

143
Q

“Rice water stools” are characteristic of
a. salmonellosis. b. cholera. c. Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
d. bacillary dysentery. e. H. pylori infection

A

B

144
Q

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with

A

Lyme disease.

145
Q

Lyme disease involves

A

early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck.
crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
people having contact with wooded or forested areas.
treatment with antibiotics

146
Q

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its

A

enterotoxin.

147
Q

Helicobacter pylori causes

A

gastritis.
duodenal ulcers.
stomach ulcers.
increased risk for stomach cancer.

148
Q

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni, EXCEPT

A

it infects the stomach.

149
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash

150
Q

Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification?

A

cholera

151
Q

A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain?

A

Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea

152
Q

A new patient enters your office complaining of stomach pain. He had previously been diagnosed with stomach ulcers and prescribed Tagamet. The treatment has been helpful, but the patient is concerned that he will have to take this prescription for the rest of his life, and would like a second opinion. One of the tests you perform is a urea breath test, for which he is positive. Which bacterial infection does this patient have?

A

Helicobacter pylori

153
Q

How is Helicobacter pylori able to entrench itself on stomach epithelial cells?

A

It bores through stomach mucus using its flagella, and it attaches to the cells using specific receptors.

Microbiology (18 decks)

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