Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Chapter 18 there are ____ bacterium. The morphology of this chapter is ___
A
4
gram-positive and negative cocci
(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)
2
Q
The first bacterium in chapter 18 is _
A
staphylococcus aureus
(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)
3
Q
The second bacterium in chapter 18 is _
A
streptococcus pyogenes
(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)
4
Q
The third bacterium in chapter 18 is _
A
streptococcus pneumonia
(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)
5
Q
The fourth bacterium in chapter 18 is _
A
neisseria meningitidis
(Chapter 18… Gram-Positive & Negative Cocci)
6
Q
Impetigo is associated with
A
1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes
7
Q
Erysipelas is associated with
A
1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes
8
Q
Cellulitis is associated with
A
1) S. Aureus
2) S. Pyogenes
9
Q
SSS is associated with
A
S. Aureus
10
Q
Necrotizing fascilitis is associated with
A
S. Pyogenes
11
Q
Meningitis is associated with
A
S. Pneumoniae
Neisseria Meningitidis
12
Q
Scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is associated with
A
S. Pyogenes
13
Q
Food poisoning is associated with
A
S. Aureus
14
Q
Pharyngitis and Sinusitis is associated with
A
S. Pyogenes
15
Q
Pneumonia, Ottis media, and sinusitis is associated with
A
S. Pneumoniae
16
Q
Glomerulonephritis is associated with
A
S. progenies
17
Q
Staphylococcus is
A
catalase (+)
- encapsulated
- no flagella
- no endospores
- b-hemolytic
- grows on MSA plates
18
Q
The difference between S aureus and S pyogenes is that S aureus is positive for _ (4)
A
1) catalase
2) coagulase
3) DNase
4) toxin
19
Q
the difference with streptococcus (when compared to staphlococcus) is that its
A
catalase negative
B hemolytic
20
Q
S. progenies has _ (3) which breaks down tissue known as
A
hyaluronidase
streptolysin
streptokinase
necrotizing fasciitis
21
Q
this is chapter
A
18
22
Q
Otitis media is
A
kids eustachian tubes are infected (S. Pneumoniae
23
Q
sore throat is associated with
A
N. Meningitidis
24
Q
The production of erythrogenic toxin can lead to
A
Scarlet Fever
25
Scalded skin syndrome is typically caused by
S. Aureus
26
Which bacterium produces the M-protein virulence factor?
S. Pyogenes
27
A bacterial analysis of a skin infection indicates that the bacteria are Gram-positive cocci that produce
coagulase. The etiology is
S. Aureus
28
Long-term complications of ______ infections include rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.
Streptococcus pyogenes
29
All species of Staphylococcus
produce catalase.
30
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, EXCEPT
scalded skin syndrome.
31
Necrotizing fasciitis is
caused by hyaluronidase, streptolysin, and streptokinase in certain strains of Streptococcus pyogenes.
32
The Staphylococcus or Streptococcus infection that has symptoms of fever, inflammation, and edema of deeper layers of the skin is
cellulitis.
33
Which disease is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
All of these choices are correct.
34
A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci?
mannitol salt agar
35
Staphylococcus aureus is troublesome in the hospital environment because
it is resistant to concentrations of salt that would inhibit the growth of most bacterial species.
36
All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme __________ that is easily detected in the lab.
catalase
37
The production of the enzyme __________ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.
coagulase
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53
Chapter 19 is about
Gram-positive Bacilli
54
Gas gangrene is caused by
Clostridium perfingens
55
Diarrhea and colitis is caused by
Clostridium difficile
56
Black eschar is associated with
anthrax
57
Chapter?
19
58
Colitis is caused by
C. Difficile
59
Chapter?
19b
60
Meningitis, Septicemia, and diarrhea is associated with
Listeria Monocytogenes
61
Hansen's disease is associated with
Mycobacterium laprae
62
death by asphyxiation is associated with
C. diph
63
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
a. is a facultative anaerobe b. is gram-positive c. forms endospores
d. found in soil e. All are true
All are true
64
Fecal transplants are sometimes used to treat
C. Diph
65
All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT
a. vaccination. b. immunity to tuberculosis.
c. current tuberculosis infection. d. previous tuberculosis infection.
e. being near someone with tuberculosis
E
66
The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is
the etiology of the symptoms?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A
67
A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with
anthrax.
68
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection EXCEPT
it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly canned food
69
All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes EXCEPT
it produces endospores.
70
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages.
71
Leprosy is a disease
caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab
72
Which of the following is/are characteristic of multibacillary Hansen's disease?
Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop.
Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease.
The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, and testes.
Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure.
73
Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism?
botulinum toxin in contaminated food
74
Which of the following may be recommended for treating gas gangrene?
debridement of the wound
hyperbaric chamber
amputation of affected limb
rigorous cleansing of deep wounds
75
Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a high amount of
Oxygen
76
The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed
Tubercles
77
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91
Chapter 20 is about
Gram-Negative Bacilli
92
Escherichia is
lactose fermenting
93
Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia is
non lactose fermenting
94
pyocyanin produces
blue pus (pseudomonas aeruginosa)
95
capsule binds to mucociliary escalator is associated with
Bordetella pertussis
96
whooping cough is associated with
bordetella pertussis
97
Shigella doesn't have a
flagella
98
what type of Escherichia coli is common
O157:H7
99
flea vectors are associated with
Yersinia pestis
100
Bubonic and septicemic plague are associated with
Yersinia Pestis
101
Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by catarrhal and paroxysmal stages?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheria b. Yersinia pestis
c. Bordetella pertussis d. Francisella tularensis
C
102
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
a. Salmonella enterica. b. Escherichia coli.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Shigella dysenteriae.
A
103
A unique characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
a. fecal odor. b. drug resistance. c. green pigment. d. motility.
C
104
The severe symptoms of pertussis are due to
a. irritation of the epiglottis. b. pneumonia.
c. destruction of the mucociliary escalator. d. blocked airways.
e. Both c and d.
E
105
Which of the following is a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?
a. portal of entry b. mode of transmission c. likelihood of septicemia
d. presence/absence of diarrhea
C
106
A bubo is
a. ulcer where the bite occurred. b. granuloma of the skin.
c. enlarged lymph node. d. a “boo boo.”
C
107
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, EXCEPT
diarrheal illness
108
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, EXCEPT
it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
109
Salmonelloses are
caused by Salmonella enterica.
associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptiles.
gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea.
enteric fevers that often include septicemia.
110
Shigella species have the following characteristics, EXCEPT
they infect the small intestine.
111
Which of the following are TRUE about plague?
There is a septicemic form called the Black Death.
There is a bubonic form, during which buboes develop.
There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious.
The disease can be controlled by controlling the rodent population
112
The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to
toxins that destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract.
113
Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
E. coli 0157:H7
114
Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The __________ stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the __________ stage is characterized by severe coughing.
catarrhal; paroxysmal
115
E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their
cell wall antigen
116
Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called…
gastroenteritis
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131
Chapter 21 is about
Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
132
Lyme disease is associated with
Borrelia Burgdorferi
133
Ulcers is associated with
Campylobacter Pylori
134
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is associated with
Rickettsia Rickettsii
135
Gram-negative spirochete (flexible)
Borrelia
136
Bull eye rash is associated with
Borrelia Burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
137
amphitrichous microaerophile is associated with
Helicobacter Pylori
138
breath test can test for
gastritis
139
Rocky moutain spotted fever is associated with
Rickettsia (arthropod vector)
140
Infection + SIRS =
Sepsis
141
Sepsis stands for
Systemic
Inflammatory
Response
Syndrome
142
Which of the following conditions may occur in untreated Lyme disease?
a. arthritis b. rash c. heart disorderd. a and b e. All of these
E
143
"Rice water stools" are characteristic of
a. salmonellosis. b. cholera. c. Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
d. bacillary dysentery. e. H. pylori infection
B
144
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with
Lyme disease.
145
Lyme disease involves
early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck.
crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
people having contact with wooded or forested areas.
treatment with antibiotics
146
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
enterotoxin.
147
Helicobacter pylori causes
gastritis.
duodenal ulcers.
stomach ulcers.
increased risk for stomach cancer.
148
All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni, EXCEPT
it infects the stomach.
149
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash
150
Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification?
cholera
151
A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain?
Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea
152
A new patient enters your office complaining of stomach pain. He had previously been diagnosed with stomach ulcers and prescribed Tagamet. The treatment has been helpful, but the patient is concerned that he will have to take this prescription for the rest of his life, and would like a second opinion. One of the tests you perform is a urea breath test, for which he is positive. Which bacterial infection does this patient have?
Helicobacter pylori
153
How is Helicobacter pylori able to entrench itself on stomach epithelial cells?
It bores through stomach mucus using its flagella, and it attaches to the cells using specific receptors.
