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Neuro Exam 2-Final > Final - Concepts in Review: > Flashcards

Final - Concepts in Review: Flashcards

1
Q

for glioblastoma multiforme you see: mitotic figures, ___________ or ________________. You see _____________ around the first one.

A

necrosis or vascular proliferation

pseudopalisading

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2
Q

massive destruction of upper motor neurons for CN 7 on one side causes lasting weakness of the contralateral _________________

A

lower quadrant of face

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3
Q

Visual fields for both sides of the world come into the ____________________

damage = hemispatial neglect

A

right parietal lobe

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4
Q

what brain regions are involved in smooth pursuit?

A

the flocculonodulus

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5
Q

These cells receive synaptic inputs from leg mechanoreceptors (e.g. muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs), and then send their axons into the posterior spinocerebellar tract on the same side

A

Clarke’s nucleus

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6
Q

what inclusions have been found in degenerating ventral horn neurons in ALS?

A

TDP-43

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7
Q

Spongiform degeneration of the cerebral cortex: _______ disease

A

prion

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8
Q

parabrachial nucleus damage: ___________ breathing

A

anpneustic

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9
Q

halogenated anesthetics do 3 things:

A
  1. increase GABAa opening duration
  2. open K+ channels
  3. enhance glycine activity at channels
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10
Q

________ may deposit in the walls of small and medium size arteries leading to weakening of the vessel walls and hemorrhage

what is this called?

A

amyloid

cerebral amyloid angioplasty

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11
Q

________________ respiration - waxing and waning breathing pattern with a period of 10-20 seconds; seen with diencephalon damage, cardiac failure

A

Cheyne-Stokes

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12
Q

white matter necrosis in the periventricular areas, thought to be caused by anoxia in preemies.

what white matter tracts does this commonly affect?

A

periventricular leukomalacia

motor tracts (can have spasticity and paralysis)

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13
Q

the ______ is active in wakefulness

the __________ inhibits this for SWS

the __________ is active in REM sleep. What does it do?

A

ARAS

medullary RF

pontine RF, excitatory for Ach neurons

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14
Q

the otoacoustic emissions are used to damped ________________

A

high frequencies

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15
Q

Repeated stimulation is required to maintain consciousness. Interactions with examiner are largely unproductive: __________ mental state

A

obtunded

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16
Q

on a CT, an acute bleed shows up how?

over time it:

A

looks very white

gets less bright, looks less dense. almost great and like rest of brain

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17
Q

what are the three eye BBBs?

A

Retinal-blood barrier

1) Tight junc9ons of the endothelial cells 2) Ciliary Epithelium
3) Retinal Pigment Epithelial cells (similar to arachnoid membrane)

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18
Q

a high MAC = _____ potency

A

low

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19
Q

for a stroke, the ADC scan is __________ and the DWI is _________

A

darker

brighter

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20
Q

what are the characteristic histological features of an ependymoma?

A

true rosettes (around a lumen)

perivascular rosettes (around a vessel)

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21
Q

decerebrate posturing in a come looks like what?

what damage does this indicate?

A

looks like a flexion, arms down hands out

damage below the rostral medulla

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22
Q

how are prion diseases characterized histologically?

A

spongiform degeneration of cerebral cortex

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23
Q

PML is caused by:

it is of the ______ (CNS or PNS)

A

a latent JC virus

CNS

24
Q

The _______________q is a region of proliferating cells adjacent to the lateral ventricle from which neurons (and glia) migrate out to the cerebral cortex

there is a high incidence of hemorrhage in this area in ______________ who develop respiratory distress syndrome

A

germinal matrix

premature neonates

25
Q

what does CN 11 innervate?

A

sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

26
Q

how can you tell the difference between a hemorrhagic infarct and a regular hemorrhage?

A

presence of necrotic tissue

27
Q

Damage to the _____________ can cause
bilateral apraxia

what else?

A

left parietal lobe

arithmetic, fluent aphasia

28
Q

decorticate posturing in a coma could indicate damage: ___________________

what does decorticate posturing look like?

A

looks like T-rex arms

above the rostral medulla or in the rostral medulla

29
Q

the breathing pattern generator is located in the _______________ complex in the _________ (important)

A

pre-Botzinger

medulla

30
Q

____________ preganglionics are located in thoracic and upper lumbar segments; in thoracic segments they form a pointy lateral extension of the intermediate gray (the intermediolateral cell column, or lateral horn) pop up - click to learn more . _____________ preganglionics mostly originate in the medulla

A

sympathetic

parasympathetic

31
Q

what are the two histological hallmarks of a pilocytic astrocytoma? (2)

A

pilocytic astrocytes and rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic inclusions)

32
Q

two histo features of a meningioma:

A

whorls

psammoma bodies

33
Q

what two cranial nerves talk to each other through the medial lemniscus?

A

CN 6, CN 3

34
Q

what does an activated opioid receptor do to a pain cell?

A
  1. increases K+ channels

2. Blocks VG Ca++ channels

35
Q

what lesions can cause ring-enhancing scans?

A
  1. glioblastoma
  2. abscess
  3. metastasis
  4. CNS lymphoma
  5. Rarely, MS
36
Q

what are the features of Arnold Chiari Malformation?

what is it usually associated with?

A
  1. extension of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum
  2. Flattening of pons
  3. Beaking of tectum
  4. Hydrocephalus

Meningomyelocele

37
Q

axons of the upper motor neurons for LMN cranial nuclei are collectively referred to as the __________________

A

corticobulbar tract

38
Q

where are the main sensory and motor nuclei for CN 5?

A

caudal pons

39
Q

what levels of the spinal cord are the intermediate horns located?

A

thoracic and upper lumbar

40
Q

if there is lower face paralysis but not upper face, problem with _______ motor neurons (what side of cortex)

A

upper (contralateral)

41
Q

on a contrast enhanced CT, why do certain lesions (such as a met) show up as ring enhancing?

A

there is a breakdown of the BBB

42
Q

Patient responds only to strong, generally noxious stimuli and returns to the unconscious state when stimulation is stopped. When aroused, the patient is unable to interact with the examiner: ________ mental state

A

stupor

43
Q

the pre optic area of the hypothalamus does 2 things. what are they?

A

inhibit tuberomamillary nucleus (sleep)

temperature regulation

44
Q

what is the method of treatment for medulloblastomas?

A

radiology, but need to do entire neuroaxis (since it spreads through CSF)

45
Q

the most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is a ______________

A

berry aneurysm

46
Q

Clinical condition that occurs when at a young age one eye is blocked off (problems with ocular dominance column)

A

amblyopia

47
Q

PET scans visualize __________ activity (through radioactive glucose). What is this good at detecting?

A

metabolic

tumors

48
Q

what are the pain NTs? (2)

A

glutamate

Substance P

49
Q

____ fibers and _____ fibers contain opioid receptors

A

C, Adelta

50
Q

corticobulbar tracts: bilateral distribution EXCEPT for: __________________, which only receives contralateral input

A

LMN for facial expression on lower face (CN 7)

51
Q

chronic segmental demyelination causes the formation of:

A

onion bulbs

52
Q

CNVIII reflex with CN VII to stapedius muscle modulates:

A

low frequencies

53
Q

what are the histological hallmarks of an oligodendroglioma? (4)

A
  1. increased oligos
  2. halos around oligos
  3. chicken wire vascular pattern
  4. calcification
54
Q

pinpoint pupils can be seen in _________ damage and _______ overdose

A

pinpoint, opioids

55
Q

the middle layer with the iris, most of the ciliary body, choroid is in the ______ tract

A

uveal

56
Q

what color is the skull in a CT?

what color is fluid?

A

white

fluid = dark grey

Neuro Exam 2-Final (18 decks)

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