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Neuro Exam 2-Final > Final - Concepts in Review: > Flashcards

Final - Concepts in Review: Flashcards

1
Q

for glioblastoma multiforme you see: mitotic figures, ___________ or ________________. You see _____________ around the first one.

A

necrosis or vascular proliferation

pseudopalisading

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2
Q

massive destruction of upper motor neurons for CN 7 on one side causes lasting weakness of the contralateral _________________

A

lower quadrant of face

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3
Q

Visual fields for both sides of the world come into the ____________________

damage = hemispatial neglect

A

right parietal lobe

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4
Q

what brain regions are involved in smooth pursuit?

A

the flocculonodulus

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5
Q

These cells receive synaptic inputs from leg mechanoreceptors (e.g. muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs), and then send their axons into the posterior spinocerebellar tract on the same side

A

Clarke’s nucleus

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6
Q

what inclusions have been found in degenerating ventral horn neurons in ALS?

A

TDP-43

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7
Q

Spongiform degeneration of the cerebral cortex: _______ disease

A

prion

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8
Q

parabrachial nucleus damage: ___________ breathing

A

anpneustic

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9
Q

halogenated anesthetics do 3 things:

A
  1. increase GABAa opening duration
  2. open K+ channels
  3. enhance glycine activity at channels
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10
Q

________ may deposit in the walls of small and medium size arteries leading to weakening of the vessel walls and hemorrhage

what is this called?

A

amyloid

cerebral amyloid angioplasty

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11
Q

________________ respiration - waxing and waning breathing pattern with a period of 10-20 seconds; seen with diencephalon damage, cardiac failure

A

Cheyne-Stokes

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12
Q

white matter necrosis in the periventricular areas, thought to be caused by anoxia in preemies.

what white matter tracts does this commonly affect?

A

periventricular leukomalacia

motor tracts (can have spasticity and paralysis)

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13
Q

the ______ is active in wakefulness

the __________ inhibits this for SWS

the __________ is active in REM sleep. What does it do?

A

ARAS

medullary RF

pontine RF, excitatory for Ach neurons

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14
Q

the otoacoustic emissions are used to damped ________________

A

high frequencies

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15
Q

Repeated stimulation is required to maintain consciousness. Interactions with examiner are largely unproductive: __________ mental state

A

obtunded

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16
Q

on a CT, an acute bleed shows up how?

over time it:

A

looks very white

gets less bright, looks less dense. almost great and like rest of brain

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17
Q

what are the three eye BBBs?

A

Retinal-blood barrier

1) Tight junc9ons of the endothelial cells 2) Ciliary Epithelium
3) Retinal Pigment Epithelial cells (similar to arachnoid membrane)

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18
Q

a high MAC = _____ potency

A

low

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19
Q

for a stroke, the ADC scan is __________ and the DWI is _________

A

darker

brighter

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20
Q

what are the characteristic histological features of an ependymoma?

A

true rosettes (around a lumen)

perivascular rosettes (around a vessel)

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21
Q

decerebrate posturing in a come looks like what?

what damage does this indicate?

A

looks like a flexion, arms down hands out

damage below the rostral medulla

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22
Q

how are prion diseases characterized histologically?

A

spongiform degeneration of cerebral cortex

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23
Q

PML is caused by:

it is of the ______ (CNS or PNS)

A

a latent JC virus

CNS

24
Q

The _______________q is a region of proliferating cells adjacent to the lateral ventricle from which neurons (and glia) migrate out to the cerebral cortex

there is a high incidence of hemorrhage in this area in ______________ who develop respiratory distress syndrome

A

germinal matrix

premature neonates

25
what does CN 11 innervate?
sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
26
how can you tell the difference between a hemorrhagic infarct and a regular hemorrhage?
presence of necrotic tissue
27
Damage to the _____________ can cause bilateral apraxia what else?
left parietal lobe arithmetic, fluent aphasia
28
decorticate posturing in a coma could indicate damage: ___________________ what does decorticate posturing look like?
looks like T-rex arms above the rostral medulla or in the rostral medulla
29
the breathing pattern generator is located in the _______________ complex in the _________ (important)
pre-Botzinger | medulla
30
____________ preganglionics are located in thoracic and upper lumbar segments; in thoracic segments they form a pointy lateral extension of the intermediate gray (the intermediolateral cell column, or lateral horn) pop up - click to learn more . _____________ preganglionics mostly originate in the medulla
sympathetic parasympathetic
31
what are the two histological hallmarks of a pilocytic astrocytoma? (2)
pilocytic astrocytes and rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic inclusions)
32
two histo features of a meningioma:
whorls psammoma bodies
33
what two cranial nerves talk to each other through the medial lemniscus?
CN 6, CN 3
34
what does an activated opioid receptor do to a pain cell?
1. increases K+ channels | 2. Blocks VG Ca++ channels
35
what lesions can cause ring-enhancing scans?
1. glioblastoma 2. abscess 3. metastasis 4. CNS lymphoma 5. Rarely, MS
36
what are the features of Arnold Chiari Malformation? what is it usually associated with?
1. extension of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum 2. Flattening of pons 3. Beaking of tectum 4. Hydrocephalus Meningomyelocele
37
axons of the upper motor neurons for LMN cranial nuclei are collectively referred to as the __________________
corticobulbar tract
38
where are the main sensory and motor nuclei for CN 5?
caudal pons
39
what levels of the spinal cord are the intermediate horns located?
thoracic and upper lumbar
40
if there is lower face paralysis but not upper face, problem with _______ motor neurons (what side of cortex)
upper (contralateral)
41
on a contrast enhanced CT, why do certain lesions (such as a met) show up as ring enhancing?
there is a breakdown of the BBB
42
Patient responds only to strong, generally noxious stimuli and returns to the unconscious state when stimulation is stopped. When aroused, the patient is unable to interact with the examiner: ________ mental state
stupor
43
the pre optic area of the hypothalamus does 2 things. what are they?
inhibit tuberomamillary nucleus (sleep) temperature regulation
44
what is the method of treatment for medulloblastomas?
radiology, but need to do entire neuroaxis (since it spreads through CSF)
45
the most common cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage is a ______________
berry aneurysm
46
Clinical condition that occurs when at a young age one eye is blocked off (problems with ocular dominance column)
amblyopia
47
PET scans visualize __________ activity (through radioactive glucose). What is this good at detecting?
metabolic tumors
48
what are the pain NTs? (2)
glutamate | Substance P
49
____ fibers and _____ fibers contain opioid receptors
C, Adelta
50
corticobulbar tracts: bilateral distribution EXCEPT for: __________________, which only receives contralateral input
LMN for facial expression on lower face (CN 7)
51
chronic segmental demyelination causes the formation of:
onion bulbs
52
CNVIII reflex with CN VII to stapedius muscle modulates:
low frequencies
53
what are the histological hallmarks of an oligodendroglioma? (4)
1. increased oligos 2. halos around oligos 3. chicken wire vascular pattern 4. calcification
54
pinpoint pupils can be seen in _________ damage and _______ overdose
pinpoint, opioids
55
the middle layer with the iris, most of the ciliary body, choroid is in the ______ tract
uveal
56
what color is the skull in a CT? what color is fluid?
white fluid = dark grey

Neuro Exam 2-Final (18 decks)

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